[ { "data": { "Question": "The excitatory postsynaptic potentials:", "Options": { "A": "They are all or nothing.", "B": "They are hyperpolarizing.", "C": "They can be added.", "D": "They spread long distances.", "E": "They present a refractory period." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be added.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3f94e16f-d240-4a37-8c56-0a81403cc69b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Motor plate is the union between the motor neuron and the:", "Options": { "A": "Smooth muscle.", "B": "Skeletal muscle", "C": "Cardiac muscle", "D": "Muscle spindle", "E": "Tendon." }, "Correct Answer": "Skeletal muscle", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c135b123-91ff-420f-8b26-aaee17045b6c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "DO NOT generate action potentials:", "Options": { "A": "Smooth muscle fibers.", "B": "Bipolar neurons of the retina.", "C": "Skeletal striated muscle fibers.", "D": "Cardiac muscle fibers.", "E": "Ganglion neurons of the retina." }, "Correct Answer": "Bipolar neurons of the retina.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3b5c0b0d-c27d-4d2a-844a-1fd12cee796b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the initiation of voluntary movements the first area that is activated is:", "Options": { "A": "Premotor cortex.", "B": "Primary motor cortex.", "C": "Brain stem", "D": "Cerebellum.", "E": "Basal ganglia" }, "Correct Answer": "Premotor cortex.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6e036c34-064d-441c-b12c-299511a188d2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The corpuscles of Pacini:", "Options": { "A": "They are innervated by unmyelinated fibers.", "B": "They are mechanoreceptors of slow adaptation.", "C": "They have small receptor fields.", "D": "They are located in deep areas of the dermis.", "E": "They are thermoreceptors." }, "Correct Answer": "They are located in deep areas of the dermis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fd421464-d058-4560-9447-40a0ad493a1c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The color of the eyes depends on the pigment present in:", "Options": { "A": "Pupil.", "B": "Cornea.", "C": "Iris.", "D": "Choroid", "E": "Retina." }, "Correct Answer": "Iris.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "004dff04-878d-4b9c-a346-3e56ac6112c1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cones:", "Options": { "A": "They are preferably in the peripheral retina.", "B": "They have membranous discs stacked in their outer segment.", "C": "They have less sensitivity than the canes.", "D": "Sinaptan with ganglionic neurons.", "E": "Sinaptan only on center bipolar \"on\"." }, "Correct Answer": "They have less sensitivity than the canes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4e8b3e5d-bfbb-449e-92f3-5d8a2eafb5ff", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the layer closest to the pigment epithelium of the retina are the cells:", "Options": { "A": "Ganglionares", "B": "Cones and canes.", "C": "Amacrinas.", "D": "Bipolar", "E": "Horizontal" }, "Correct Answer": "Cones and canes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ec6feb62-0442-4677-8a3f-996fcacbe523", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The intrafusal fibers:", "Options": { "A": "They contract in their central region.", "B": "They generate most of the muscle tension.", "C": "They are arranged in series with extrafusal fibers.", "D": "They are innervated by alpha motor neurons.", "E": "They receive sensory innervation of \"Ia\" fibers." }, "Correct Answer": "They receive sensory innervation of \"Ia\" fibers.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "329861c2-b67d-494c-83ca-f089c053b9fd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum receive direct input from:", "Options": { "A": "Spinal neurons", "B": "Neurons of deep cerebellar nuclei.", "C": "Climbing fibers", "D": "Mossy fibers.", "E": "Pyramidal neurons of cerebral cortex." }, "Correct Answer": "Climbing fibers", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6ca6811f-0c71-4af4-9712-3b730ae78368", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They release noradrenaline the:", "Options": { "A": "Sympathetic preganglionic fibers.", "B": "Sympathetic Postganglionic Fibers", "C": "Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers", "D": "Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers", "E": "Only the chromaffin cells." }, "Correct Answer": "Sympathetic Postganglionic Fibers", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "648b8dff-98d1-45b3-a34b-f59a3e925521", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Circadian rhythms are established in:", "Options": { "A": "Pineal gland.", "B": "Suprachiasmatic nucleus.", "C": "Retina.", "D": "Spinal cord.", "E": "Centromedianic thalamic nucleus." }, "Correct Answer": "Suprachiasmatic nucleus.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2bde9520-1cd6-40e2-b6fe-350cfd70b211", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it innervates constitute:", "Options": { "A": "Motor plate.", "B": "Motor unit", "C": "Neuromuscular junction", "D": "Motor synapse", "E": "Motor filament" }, "Correct Answer": "Motor unit", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7a76d085-2a6a-48ee-89b7-7c9602ce9883", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the ear of mammals:", "Options": { "A": "The sterocilies of the hair cells contact the basilar membrane.", "B": "The tympanic ramp contains endolymph.", "C": "The basilar membrane is wider and more flexible at the level of the helicotrema.", "D": "The sensory cells are those of Deiter.", "E": "The oval membrane has a larger surface than the tympanic membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "The basilar membrane is wider and more flexible at the level of the helicotrema.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "86745813-d7e7-479b-97d0-8726b28bb435", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Calcitriol or active Vitamin D induces:", "Options": { "A": "Hypocalcemia", "B": "Synthesis of calbindin in enterocytes.", "C": "Calcium secretion in urine.", "D": "PTH secretion.", "E": "Decrease in intestinal absorption of phosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "Synthesis of calbindin in enterocytes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a5bebe8a-dcaa-4117-b43e-e167d69315e3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Increase the activity of Na + / K + -ATPase:", "Options": { "A": "Insulin.", "B": "Aldosterone", "C": "ACTH.", "D": "Atrial natriuretic peptide.", "E": "ADH." }, "Correct Answer": "Aldosterone", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a6b24e71-c39c-49f5-8ccc-fe2608205d9d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The glucocorticoids:", "Options": { "A": "Increase ACTH levels.", "B": "They stimulate the secretion of CRH.", "C": "They are anti-inflammatory.", "D": "They are hypoglycemic.", "E": "Increase immune responses." }, "Correct Answer": "They are anti-inflammatory.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "71da9f38-8e13-40fe-9fde-e868016cf82b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Placental lactogen has equivalent effects to:", "Options": { "A": "GH", "B": "Insulin.", "C": "Oxytocin", "D": "Estrogens", "E": "FSH." }, "Correct Answer": "GH", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e3fdd871-8d01-4f6f-8dd4-74b07333be95", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Lacks hypothalamic control:", "Options": { "A": "Glucagon.", "B": "ACTH.", "C": "Prolactin", "D": "GH", "E": "LH" }, "Correct Answer": "Glucagon.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9ec5bd1c-d742-4da3-84e1-1370e2391c0a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The kidneys secrete the hormone:", "Options": { "A": "Calcitriol.", "B": "Renina", "C": "Angiotensin II.", "D": "Aldosterone", "E": "Calcitonin" }, "Correct Answer": "Calcitriol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7cae976e-bddd-4f48-b189-9cd661e0a92d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The neurohypophysis:", "Options": { "A": "It is a continuation of the hypothalamus.", "B": "It presents dual hypothalamic control.", "C": "It receives hypothalamic hormones via blood.", "D": "It is irrigated by the portal system hypothalamus pituitary gland.", "E": "It produces prolactin." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a continuation of the hypothalamus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ea0e66d7-0ae2-44c8-9182-62ca541e184a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "GH secretion:", "Options": { "A": "It stops after puberty.", "B": "Increase during the fast.", "C": "It decreases during sleep.", "D": "It is stimulated by somatostatin.", "E": "It is inhibited by exercise." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase during the fast.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cac2b564-aee1-4e24-80be-4981a3d73548", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Thyroid hormones inhibit:", "Options": { "A": "The basal metabolism.", "B": "The production of body heat.", "C": "Growth.", "D": "The development and maturation of the central nervous system.", "E": "The secretion of TSH." }, "Correct Answer": "The secretion of TSH.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "87b99d51-b55a-40cb-8f00-61c33f6ce70e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Prolactin stimulates the:", "Options": { "A": "Milk secretion", "B": "Milky ejection.", "C": "Deposit of fat in the breasts.", "D": "Formation of the mammary ducts.", "E": "Formation of mammary secretory cells." }, "Correct Answer": "Milk secretion", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5c732335-7577-45f4-9305-4e9a20e51b89", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The second heart sound coincides with:", "Options": { "A": "End of ventricular diastole.", "B": "End of atrial diastole.", "C": "Opening of the aortic valve.", "D": "Atrial systole", "E": "Closing of the semilunar valves." }, "Correct Answer": "Closing of the semilunar valves.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7c10178e-a714-4bba-88ae-f1f9facb5cfe", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The activation of arterial baroreceptors causes:", "Options": { "A": "Stimulation of the bulbar pressure center.", "B": "Activation of the parasympathetic.", "C": "Increased blood pressure.", "D": "Tachycardia.", "E": "Positive inotropic effect." }, "Correct Answer": "Activation of the parasympathetic.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b751d6ac-5271-44f9-8796-9bfa24aba0a6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The blood flow velocity is maximum in:", "Options": { "A": "Great arteries", "B": "Distribution arteries.", "C": "Arterioles", "D": "Capillaries", "E": "Venules" }, "Correct Answer": "Great arteries", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dfaa8293-3a29-44de-84a7-ea82833efe04", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are essential for blood coagulation:", "Options": { "A": "Red blood cells.", "B": "White blood cells", "C": "Platelets.", "D": "The lymph.", "E": "Serum glucose" }, "Correct Answer": "Platelets.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fac6aca3-21b0-497a-871f-015e77864535", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Fibrinogen is activated by:", "Options": { "A": "Platelet stopper", "B": "Plasmina.", "C": "Thrombin", "D": "Thromboplastin.", "E": "Factor von Willebrand." }, "Correct Answer": "Thrombin", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "09d79ca9-dba4-4d07-87db-8a1e9686598b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ventricular filling is greater during:", "Options": { "A": "Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.", "B": "First third of the ventricular diastole.", "C": "Atrial systole", "D": "Intermediate phase of ventricular diastole.", "E": "It is uniform." }, "Correct Answer": "First third of the ventricular diastole.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e0c877e9-a27f-43bc-9a97-8ccad3bd5d47", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main vessels that regulate blood flow are:", "Options": { "A": "Arteries", "B": "Arterioles", "C": "Capillaries", "D": "Venules", "E": "Veins." }, "Correct Answer": "Arterioles", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "503c2fb8-cd23-408b-97b5-cd79fe8af25c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "After ventricular systole, the volume of blood in the ventricle is:", "Options": { "A": "Zero.", "B": "The telesistolic.", "C": "The systolic.", "D": "The end-diastolic.", "E": "Greater in the right ventricle than in the left." }, "Correct Answer": "The telesistolic.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1bb66b1c-8852-4a74-837f-695e09da9c8c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The QT interval of the electrocardiogram indicates the duration of:", "Options": { "A": "Atrial contraction", "B": "Ventricular contraction.", "C": "Ventricular relaxation", "D": "Atrial relaxation", "E": "Delay in the atrioventricular node." }, "Correct Answer": "Ventricular contraction.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0be9e044-6f12-48fd-873e-d78c0ccca3c7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Activates the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system an increase in:", "Options": { "A": "Blood pressure.", "B": "Parasympathetic activity", "C": "Concentration of Ca2 + in plasma.", "D": "Na + concentration in plasma.", "E": "Sympathetic activity" }, "Correct Answer": "Sympathetic activity", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a1327700-b1c3-46c6-832b-6b2cd397fa8d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "During ventricular systole:", "Options": { "A": "All ventricular blood is expelled.", "B": "Intraventricular pressure is equal in both ventricles.", "C": "The ventricular volume begins to decrease from the beginning of the contraction.", "D": "The atrio-ventricular valves are open.", "E": "The atria are relaxed." }, "Correct Answer": "The atria are relaxed.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e5bec571-b081-47db-9e9e-c97ab6927ecd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lymphatic flow from the feet:", "Options": { "A": "It increases when standing up.", "B": "Increase by external compression.", "C": "Increases when decreasing capillary permeability.", "D": "It decreases during inspiration.", "E": "Decrease by exercise." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase by external compression.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "239fb694-d7f3-4dc6-a130-34641b6cde01", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reabsorption of glucose in the nephron:", "Options": { "A": "It has no maximum rate.", "B": "It is less than 50% of the filtered.", "C": "It is done in the proximal tubule.", "D": "It is mediated by insulin.", "E": "It is by simple diffusion." }, "Correct Answer": "It is done in the proximal tubule.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "10de06ed-5721-4518-bed1-198c9e454fa6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Urine is hypoosmolar with respect to plasma in:", "Options": { "A": "Bowman's capsule.", "B": "Proximal tubule", "C": "Medulla area of ​​the loop of Henle.", "D": "Initial zone of the distal tubule.", "E": "Collecting tubule in the presence of ADH." }, "Correct Answer": "Initial zone of the distal tubule.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e798f432-35db-4f37-9687-4ffe0021f24f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the digestive system, the vagus:", "Options": { "A": "Stimulates the contraction of the cardia.", "B": "The gastro-colic reflex mediates.", "C": "Decreases the secretion of gastric acid.", "D": "Inhibits the secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate.", "E": "It is not choralgogo." }, "Correct Answer": "The gastro-colic reflex mediates.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5ecef2e8-6ba3-47be-930b-4e77336e2593", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Inhibits gastrin secretion:", "Options": { "A": "Parasympathetic stimulation.", "B": "Sight, aroma and taste of the food.", "C": "Stomach distension", "D": "Presence of proteins in the stomach.", "E": "Somatostatin." }, "Correct Answer": "Somatostatin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c6e4b77b-2e63-494b-b710-d4e6789125ae", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure:", "Options": { "A": "In the initial phase of inspiration.", "B": "In the middle phase of inspiration.", "C": "In the middle phase of an expiration.", "D": "At the end of expiration.", "E": "At the end of the inspiration." }, "Correct Answer": "In the middle phase of an expiration.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d721275d-3e29-435d-bf15-4fecec244afc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The anatomical dead space:", "Options": { "A": "It is always greater than the physiological one.", "B": "Secret surfactants.", "C": "Includes medium-sized bronchioles.", "D": "It allows gaseous exchange.", "E": "Includes the volume of inspiratory reserve." }, "Correct Answer": "Includes medium-sized bronchioles.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "54dae2df-24bd-4bf1-a574-9f197702d5ad", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If the arterial pO2 decreases to 60 mm of Hg:", "Options": { "A": "Decreases ventilation.", "B": "Central chemoreceptors are activated.", "C": "The central chemoreceptors are depressed.", "D": "The arterial chemoreceptors are activated.", "E": "It produces loss of consciousness." }, "Correct Answer": "The arterial chemoreceptors are activated.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0285eb91-7ae5-4641-9688-6fe552958f25", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pyramidal neurons are in:", "Options": { "A": "Cerebellum.", "B": "Brain.", "C": "Spinal cord.", "D": "Spinal ganglia.", "E": "Hypophysis." }, "Correct Answer": "Brain.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e60991bd-a938-42ed-9042-17f138b4f621", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lipid inclusion of unilocular adipocytes is surrounded by:", "Options": { "A": "Actin filaments.", "B": "Myosin filaments.", "C": "Filaments of vimentin.", "D": "Microtubules", "E": "Membrane from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum." }, "Correct Answer": "Filaments of vimentin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6e44e211-5bb3-4712-b8f1-cb4cbcdb4c68", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of phosphatidylserine on the cell surface indicates:", "Options": { "A": "Cellular senescence", "B": "Apoptosis", "C": "Necrosis.", "D": "Mitosis.", "E": "Hormone stimulation" }, "Correct Answer": "Apoptosis", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "95303a82-894e-46dd-becf-ee3152437bda", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hydrolases of the lysosomes act in medium:", "Options": { "A": "Acid.", "B": "Basic.", "C": "Neutral.", "D": "It depends on the material to digest.", "E": "At any pH." }, "Correct Answer": "Acid.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d2d88b69-e88c-4904-ac85-33b5ea353062", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Heterochromatin lacks:", "Options": { "A": "Histone H1.", "B": "Nucleosomes", "C": "Exons", "D": "Transcriptional activity", "E": "Origins of replication." }, "Correct Answer": "Transcriptional activity", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ab1a2ad9-7aec-43cf-baf9-340cfbcbefd8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The epithelium of the epidermis is:", "Options": { "A": "Stratified keratinized plane.", "B": "Stratified non-keratinized plane.", "C": "Simple keratinized cylindrical.", "D": "Keratinized stratified cylindrical.", "E": "Cubic stratified." }, "Correct Answer": "Stratified keratinized plane.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a78572d5-05d7-4a17-bf06-88951e8ed060", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cell is destroyed to release the secretion:", "Options": { "A": "Merocrine", "B": "Apocrine", "C": "Endocrine", "D": "Holocrine", "E": "Paracrine" }, "Correct Answer": "Holocrine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "247e3181-f5c8-4b06-9eba-612daf6fafcb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the following, the first precursor cell of neutrophil granulocytes is:", "Options": { "A": "Monoblast.", "B": "Myeloblast.", "C": "Metamielocito.", "D": "Cell in band (or in staff)", "E": "Promyelocyte" }, "Correct Answer": "Myeloblast.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c66acde7-16ca-4b77-b361-931135c346bc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The system in T:", "Options": { "A": "It is present in all muscle cells without exception.", "B": "It is part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "It has an ATPase activated by Ca2 +.", "D": "It is a tubular invagination of the plasma membrane.", "E": "Releases Ca2 + to the cytosol during recruitment." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a tubular invagination of the plasma membrane.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "94e4c234-493e-4f05-b285-723cccc305f6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In eukaryotic cells the lipids of the membrane are synthesized mainly in:", "Options": { "A": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "B": "Golgi apparatus.", "C": "Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "D": "Mitochondria", "E": "Ribosomes" }, "Correct Answer": "Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "203f1feb-4f6e-4374-8d58-7ee9a53f93cd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Fibrous cartilage is typical of:", "Options": { "A": "Windpipe.", "B": "Bronchi", "C": "Auricular pavilion", "D": "Intervertebral discs.", "E": "External auditive conduct." }, "Correct Answer": "Intervertebral discs.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bb9494b6-ccef-467c-b17d-7e552aa48ad8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Presents centroacinosas cells the gland:", "Options": { "A": "Parotid.", "B": "Submaxillary", "C": "Sublingual", "D": "Pancreas.", "E": "Liver." }, "Correct Answer": "Pancreas.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e3de9022-63be-43fc-8471-fb6587779d9f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The continuous capillaries are typical of:", "Options": { "A": "Central Nervous System.", "B": "Liver.", "C": "Glands", "D": "Kidney.", "E": "Digestive tube." }, "Correct Answer": "Central Nervous System.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6651ab42-c70a-4d2e-a033-13ba5e7a8e45", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Müller cells of the retina are:", "Options": { "A": "Modified neurons.", "B": "Glandular", "C": "Neurogliales of support.", "D": "Of the microglia.", "E": "Of the pigmentary layer." }, "Correct Answer": "Neurogliales of support.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8659d35d-f083-4ea8-8d87-144dba92206a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ribosomal subunits are formed in the:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleoplasm.", "B": "Nucleolus", "C": "Nuclear sheet.", "D": "Nuclear pore.", "E": "Cytoplasm." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleolus", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bc0f4afa-fcd8-45fb-95da-3565f6380175", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The nuclear lamina is formed by:", "Options": { "A": "Actina.", "B": "Tubulina.", "C": "Intermediate filaments", "D": "Fibronectin", "E": "Laminin" }, "Correct Answer": "Intermediate filaments", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "665a9214-18e4-4fbf-b243-efd01a6aff39", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Importin intervenes in the transport of proteins from the cytoplasm to:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleus.", "B": "Endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "Mitochondria.", "D": "Peroxisome", "E": "Lysosome" }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f581928f-abc1-479f-b4a0-cdb4a46d28af", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are formed by maturation of late endosomes:", "Options": { "A": "Lysosomes", "B": "Phagosomes", "C": "Multivesicular bodies.", "D": "Secretion granules", "E": "Proteosomes" }, "Correct Answer": "Lysosomes", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7b3fe196-f404-4849-9b5f-150a29744d63", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cell displacement by creep depends on:", "Options": { "A": "Cilia.", "B": "Stereocilios.", "C": "Flagella.", "D": "Actin filaments.", "E": "Microvilli." }, "Correct Answer": "Actin filaments.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ff319f51-9084-4fd8-a2ed-82cd72ac0fbc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They have their own ribosomes:", "Options": { "A": "Lysosomes", "B": "Peroxisomes", "C": "Endosomes", "D": "Secretion granules", "E": "Mitochondria" }, "Correct Answer": "Mitochondria", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5273a594-a225-48d2-9e6d-ba92c4b1b8c6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Kinesin and dynein are:", "Options": { "A": "Adhesion proteins.", "B": "Microtubular motors.", "C": "Degradative enzymes", "D": "Components of the vesicular cover.", "E": "Transcriptional factors." }, "Correct Answer": "Microtubular motors.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d815277d-6dae-46d8-ac57-341db5f82725", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They produce myelin in the central nervous system:", "Options": { "A": "Astrocytes", "B": "Ependymal cells.", "C": "Satellite cells.", "D": "Schwann cells.", "E": "Oligodendrocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Oligodendrocytes", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6b0b0a49-9fc3-4050-9b48-61e618d7719f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It does NOT occur during apoptosis:", "Options": { "A": "Rupture of the plasma membrane.", "B": "Condensation of chromatin.", "C": "Collapse of the cytoskeleton.", "D": "Fragmentation of DNA", "E": "Formation of apoptotic bodies." }, "Correct Answer": "Rupture of the plasma membrane.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3a567267-55f4-4bf5-9ff4-4614c0148a7d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The desmosomes:", "Options": { "A": "Communicate the cytoplasms of contiguous cells.", "B": "They seal the intercellular space.", "C": "They surround the entire cell perimeter.", "D": "They connect the cell to the basal lamina.", "E": "They are point intercellular adhesive bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "They are point intercellular adhesive bonds.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e431f17d-a8dc-4f0f-9ec4-ce3bcb0c0e2b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tissue is avascular:", "Options": { "A": "Cartilaginous.", "B": "Adipose.", "C": "Osseous.", "D": "Muscular.", "E": "Nervous." }, "Correct Answer": "Cartilaginous.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3541f27d-40ac-43d3-aeea-622185e30cf6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The goblet cells belong to the tissue:", "Options": { "A": "Epithelial.", "B": "Conjunctive.", "C": "Cartilaginous.", "D": "Osseous.", "E": "Adipose." }, "Correct Answer": "Epithelial.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8bf8e050-7e7a-4f5a-8f9a-c490d86d3ec1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mast cells or mast cells belong to the tissue:", "Options": { "A": "Epithelial.", "B": "Conjunctive.", "C": "Adipose", "D": "Lymphoid", "E": "Nervous." }, "Correct Answer": "Conjunctive.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "52dec90e-7ec0-4ed4-8372-b6fc98f4fb12", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They produce bone resorption:", "Options": { "A": "Fibroblasts.", "B": "Osteoblasts", "C": "Osteoclasts.", "D": "Osteocytes", "E": "Osteona." }, "Correct Answer": "Osteoclasts.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3dbe7cfd-7300-4f21-bf78-de402038ddfd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are fragments of the cytoplasm of a precursor cell:", "Options": { "A": "Lymphocytes", "B": "Megakaryocytes", "C": "Monocytes", "D": "Platelets.", "E": "Erythrocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Platelets.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fa6a6183-ebb2-4413-ad7c-70f5d7d0ee79", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a statistical test offers a value p <0.05:", "Options": { "A": "The null hypothesis is accepted.", "B": "The alternative hypothesis is rejected.", "C": "the null hypothesis is rejected.", "D": "The null hypothesis can not be rejected.", "E": "There is no evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis." }, "Correct Answer": "the null hypothesis is rejected.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9e02db0e-0e4a-4b47-9a6f-6c1fd3589051", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A confidence interval to estimate the population mean will be more precise when:", "Options": { "A": "The lower the confidence level.", "B": "The greater the dispersion of the sample.", "C": "The smaller the sample size.", "D": "The greater the typical sampling error.", "E": "The higher the confidence level." }, "Correct Answer": "The lower the confidence level.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c04ded28-e8f4-49c5-a39b-7491362c314a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a sample of size 100 has a standard deviation of 10, its typical error is:", "Options": { "A": "10", "B": "100", "C": "0.1", "D": "one.", "E": "There is not enough data to calculate it." }, "Correct Answer": "one.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "31b59e2b-b2de-40a9-8d0f-fe38f0aff00a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many degrees of freedom does a Student's t-test applied to two samples related to a total of 25 individuals?", "Options": { "A": "26", "B": "24", "C": "2. 3.", "D": "48", "E": "47" }, "Correct Answer": "24", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b432eaa5-196c-426d-9198-d2ea4f321044", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most common ectopic pregnancy occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "The fallopian tube.", "B": "The oviductal tube.", "C": "The cervix", "D": "The ovary", "E": "The abdomen." }, "Correct Answer": "The fallopian tube.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bf9204c6-eb2f-4f24-97e0-2845efef5395", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The blastocyst is detached from the zona pellucida in:", "Options": { "A": "The ovary", "B": "The fallopian tube.", "C": "Oviductal tube.", "D": "The uterus.", "E": "The vagina" }, "Correct Answer": "The uterus.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "99c9f2dc-692a-4467-a29a-6b4405efb1ca", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term that includes the changes of the endometrium during pregnancy is:", "Options": { "A": "Hatching.", "B": "Apposition.", "C": "Accession.", "D": "Invasion.", "E": "Decidualization." }, "Correct Answer": "Decidualization.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cd201020-a86f-46a4-8035-4f071e25e808", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "After gastrulation, the epiblast is transformed into:", "Options": { "A": "Endoderm", "B": "Mesoderm", "C": "Ectoderm", "D": "Celoma", "E": "Chorionic villi." }, "Correct Answer": "Ectoderm", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5094f212-ca7e-4c1c-a7b7-5f063e52640f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the formation of the skin they intervene:", "Options": { "A": "Only the ectoderm.", "B": "The ectoderm, mesoderm and cells of the neural crest.", "C": "The ectoderm and mesoderm.", "D": "The ectoderm and cells of the neural crest.", "E": "Only the mesoderm." }, "Correct Answer": "The ectoderm, mesoderm and cells of the neural crest.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1193d37-ba79-413c-b5ec-b7724e59aa1c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the human genome, the coding sequences are called:", "Options": { "A": "Exons", "B": "Promoters", "C": "Intensifiers", "D": "Introns", "E": "Adapters" }, "Correct Answer": "Exons", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0f23f712-661f-4c0e-ab8a-00a4f8b2fb61", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The amount of DNA in a genome is called value:", "Options": { "A": "TO.", "B": "D.", "C": "An.", "D": "C.", "E": "Cn." }, "Correct Answer": "C.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "07858d92-28e9-45b3-ad65-33fbaaf53d1e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most frequent mechanism that induces the activation of the ABL protooncogene in chronic myeloid leukemia is:", "Options": { "A": "Point mutation", "B": "Gene amplification.", "C": "Methylation of the promoter.", "D": "Deletion", "E": "Translocation" }, "Correct Answer": "Translocation", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d4c3a452-fa83-4913-8453-88562247aa4c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has a recessive inheritance linked to the X chromosome the:", "Options": { "A": "Acatalasemia", "B": "Hemophilia A.", "C": "Rett syndrome.", "D": "Cystic fibrosis,", "E": "Hypophosphatemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Hemophilia A.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7746aa67-7f0d-45bb-a053-0130c955e4e5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that transcribes small ribosomal RNAs is:", "Options": { "A": "II.", "B": "I.", "C": "IV.", "D": "III.", "E": "V." }, "Correct Answer": "III.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b043fc54-a502-4cf3-b0b8-2e1c00230fe9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To silence messenger RNA (mRNA) siRNAs and miRNAs are usually linked to your:", "Options": { "A": "TATA box.", "B": "5'-UTR.", "C": "5 'cap.", "D": "3'-UTR.", "E": "Poly (A) 3 tail." }, "Correct Answer": "3'-UTR.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ab9f9f26-a26a-494e-aab7-8973b060dae7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Generates blunt DNA fragments the restriction enzyme:", "Options": { "A": "Bam HI.", "B": "Hae III.", "C": "Hind III.", "D": "Eco RI.", "E": "Eco RII." }, "Correct Answer": "Hae III.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "814410c0-73fd-40d9-a241-d9121c943f50", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In eukaryotes, group II introns are in genes:", "Options": { "A": "Of rRNA.", "B": "From tRNA.", "C": "They encode proteins in the nucleus.", "D": "They encode proteins in mitochondria.", "E": "None is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "They encode proteins in mitochondria.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "054b9848-09c1-4946-922b-f2de17db7f46", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes:", "Options": { "A": "Small rRNA", "B": "Pre-mRNA.", "C": "ARNsno.", "D": "ARNt.", "E": "Large rRNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Large rRNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d81d3fc5-d575-4228-be69-693920f83c88", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What enzyme does a retrovirus use to synthesize DNA copy of its genome?", "Options": { "A": "DNA polymerase I.", "B": "cDNA polymerase I.", "C": "RNA polymerase I.", "D": "cDNA polymerase II.", "E": "Reverse transcriptase" }, "Correct Answer": "Reverse transcriptase", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b149549d-117c-435b-950c-1ea6ab3076b3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many palindromic sequences exist on the human Y chromosome that allow Y-Y recombination ?:", "Options": { "A": "8", "B": "6", "C": "Four.", "D": "10", "E": "12" }, "Correct Answer": "8", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bf486db8-cff0-42ed-b69e-8317786c0244", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is an oncogen:", "Options": { "A": "NF1", "B": "P53", "C": "RB", "D": "cMYC.", "E": "WT1." }, "Correct Answer": "cMYC.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d87e5138-e0ad-448e-b1b0-c88d10ae7f61", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a stop codon for translation:", "Options": { "A": "AUG.", "B": "UAU", "C": "UGA", "D": "UAC.", "E": "UGU" }, "Correct Answer": "UGA", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e6bce4ab-f450-4def-9438-24829400d484", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the replication of eukaryotic DNA the functions that correspond to the gamma (γ) DNA polymerase are:", "Options": { "A": "Translational synthesis of nuclear DNA.", "B": "Replication and repair of mitochondrial DNA.", "C": "Initiation of nuclear DNA synthesis.", "D": "Repair of nuclear DNA.", "E": "Synthesis of the leading and delayed nuclear DNA chain." }, "Correct Answer": "Replication and repair of mitochondrial DNA.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "54230530-cbb7-43fa-876a-0693368dfd4e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If the guanine percentage of a double-stranded DNA molecule is 30%, that of adenine is:", "Options": { "A": "10%", "B": "70%", "C": "80%", "D": "twenty%.", "E": "30%" }, "Correct Answer": "twenty%.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "abeffc37-c165-4d17-b721-e2f60ec81695", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the 5 types of histones of chromatin, the one with the lowest molecular weight is:", "Options": { "A": "H2A.", "B": "H2B.", "C": "H1", "D": "H4", "E": "H3" }, "Correct Answer": "H4", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1dd472ec-1d77-45e5-b125-32e7d7ba16f9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The three-dimensional structure of B-DNA:", "Options": { "A": "It is shorter and wider than the A-DNA.", "B": "It has around 20pb for each 360º turn of the propeller.", "C": "It is the most stable structure under physiological conditions.", "D": "It appears when the DNA is placed in a saline solution.", "E": "It is a left-handed helix." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the most stable structure under physiological conditions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "426abdaa-3434-4cf0-8a2d-fbbd33dadf9f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Williams-Beuren syndrome is characterized by a microdeletion of the long arm of the chromosome:", "Options": { "A": "Four.", "B": "22", "C": "fifteen.", "D": "17", "E": "7" }, "Correct Answer": "7", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5a581075-1e29-4322-a1c7-be3d98218ebf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The genetic phenomenon that explains that the expression of a gene is influenced by the sex of the parent is:", "Options": { "A": "Character limited by sex.", "B": "Characteristic linked to sex.", "C": "Cytoplasmic inheritance.", "D": "Genomic imprint", "E": "Maternal genetic effect." }, "Correct Answer": "Genomic imprint", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6414d77f-8d9d-4b08-a77c-d6ead9dfb5a2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that:", "Options": { "A": "The trait appears more frequently in males.", "B": "The unaffected people do not transmit the trait.", "C": "The trait tends to skip generations.", "D": "The affected people have both affected parents.", "E": "The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents." }, "Correct Answer": "The unaffected people do not transmit the trait.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c7c771c4-c650-4d97-93b9-9b3508aed52e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In mitosis, the nuclear membrane disintegrates and spindle microtubules bind to the kinetochores in:", "Options": { "A": "Cytokinesis", "B": "Prometaphase.", "C": "Metaphase", "D": "Interface.", "E": "Prophase." }, "Correct Answer": "Prometaphase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "47f6571d-b49c-43f6-bb25-ffa56af127a5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Has a dominant inheritance linked to the X chromosome the:", "Options": { "A": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "B": "Fabry disease.", "C": "Huntington's Korea.", "D": "Cystic fibrosis.", "E": "Rett syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Rett syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ea91c238-198e-4383-97bc-7d620bfa38c5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Has an autosomal dominant inheritance:", "Options": { "A": "Alcaptonuria.", "B": "Huntington's Korea.", "C": "Rett syndrome.", "D": "Colour blindness.", "E": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy." }, "Correct Answer": "Huntington's Korea.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2c97161b-98ff-4cd7-b08e-cee43edda8cb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of Barr corpuscles of the cells of a man with karyotype 48, XXXY is:", "Options": { "A": "two.", "B": "one.", "C": "0", "D": "3.", "E": "Four." }, "Correct Answer": "two.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cbee409f-2f2f-4dec-b318-a9086c1f53f2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The type of epistasia that explains the 15: 1 dihybrid phenotypic ratio is:", "Options": { "A": "Double dominant.", "B": "Simple recessive", "C": "Recessive dominant double.", "D": "Double recessive", "E": "Simple dominant." }, "Correct Answer": "Double dominant.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "03d707dc-9371-4822-8661-dfe7d24ac96c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To calculate the number of different genotypes in any allelic series the formula is applied:", "Options": { "A": "(n-1) / 2.", "B": "n x (n + 1) / 2.", "C": "n x (n-1) / 2.", "D": "(n-1) x (n + 1) / 2.", "E": "(2n-1) / 2." }, "Correct Answer": "n x (n + 1) / 2.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e92937b-af7a-4c14-9fc3-367770ec22fb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The change corresponds to a change mutation:", "Options": { "A": "T → C.", "B": "A → T.", "C": "G → A.", "D": "C → T.", "E": "A → G." }, "Correct Answer": "A → T.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c277a8df-0084-41ea-86bb-4d04b3df1052", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The order of the stages of the cell cycle is:", "Options": { "A": "S, G1, Mitosis, G2.", "B": "G2, G1, S, Mitosis.", "C": "G1, Mitosis, G2, S.", "D": "S, G0, Mitosis, G1.", "E": "G1, S, G2, Mitosis." }, "Correct Answer": "G1, S, G2, Mitosis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4370ed03-b2c6-48af-b986-63499ef8ce9f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many chromosomes would a male with nulisomy have for chromosomes 17 and 18?", "Options": { "A": "43", "B": "Four. Five.", "C": "44", "D": "42", "E": "40" }, "Correct Answer": "42", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a8ab6f15-f011-4d19-b8c1-2ab25d843a27", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is NOT associated with defects in DNA repair the:", "Options": { "A": "Fanconi anemia.", "B": "Li-Fraumeni syndrome.", "C": "Bloom syndrome.", "D": "Xeroderma pigmentosa.", "E": "Sickle-cell anemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Sickle-cell anemia", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "56a58d76-bffc-4abf-9be1-1bdda2b0268a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The denaturing of proteins:", "Options": { "A": "Alters the native conformation without affecting the biological activity.", "B": "It is always irreversible.", "C": "It can only be achieved by treatment with strong acids.", "D": "It does not affect the primary structure.", "E": "It produces the hydrolysis of the protein." }, "Correct Answer": "It does not affect the primary structure.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0132b2ce-b248-4b84-8051-a8f8bc6cc8a0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the structure of proteins:", "Options": { "A": "All globular proteins have the same domains.", "B": "The tertiary structure is present only in oligomeric proteins.", "C": "Hemoglobin is the only protein that has a quaternary structure.", "D": "The protein domains are regions of compact folding that exert a certain function.", "E": "The tertiary and quaternary structures are maintained only by the peptide bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "The protein domains are regions of compact folding that exert a certain function.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4b59ef7e-d6f9-4e7e-8ebc-66ba2a1847f6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding enzymatic cofactors:", "Options": { "A": "All enzymes are required to be active.", "B": "Its binding to the enzyme is always covalent.", "C": "There are no two enzymes that use the same cofactor.", "D": "They can be metal ions.", "E": "They only have structural function." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be metal ions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3c3845a2-fbc9-4495-9f11-f3ca5889f475", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to enzymatic inhibition:", "Options": { "A": "An irreversible inhibitor causes the denaturation of the enzyme.", "B": "The competing inhibitors bind to the substrate of the reaction.", "C": "A non-competitive inhibitor does not need to bind to the enzyme to exert its activity.", "D": "All inhibitors modify Vmax.", "E": "A competitive inhibitor increases the value of Km." }, "Correct Answer": "A competitive inhibitor increases the value of Km.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "73b1781d-5f5f-4716-89a8-f2079513c8fa", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sulfur contains the side chain of:", "Options": { "A": "Lysine", "B": "Tryptophan", "C": "Cysteine", "D": "Serina", "E": "To the girl." }, "Correct Answer": "Cysteine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8a659543-5b36-49bb-a283-8d14f712eac5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It contains an imidazole group the side chain of:", "Options": { "A": "Arginine", "B": "Tyrosine", "C": "Glutamine", "D": "Histidine", "E": "Lysine" }, "Correct Answer": "Histidine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f8d951a4-68b7-4efb-8c6f-891cdaccca06", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pentose phosphate pathway produces:", "Options": { "A": "NADH and acetyl-CoA.", "B": "NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate.", "C": "NADH and ribose-5-phosphate.", "D": "Urea.", "E": "Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a8147422-0544-4d97-8873-c0998677b6d3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The oxygen we consume in the respiratory chain is transformed into:", "Options": { "A": "Acetyl-CoA.", "B": "Carbon dioxide.", "C": "Carbon monoxide.", "D": "Water.", "E": "Carbonic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Water.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1ceab4d0-4fe3-482a-ac66-0d9846d84ec7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It is not modified and can be reused.", "B": "It does not change, but it loses its activity.", "C": "It always requires the participation of cofactors.", "D": "It denatures to facilitate bonding with the substrate.", "E": "It always requires energy." }, "Correct Answer": "It is not modified and can be reused.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ceb4771e-2fad-406b-8a09-65257c4bb8c0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The maximum speed of an enzymatic reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It depends on the substrate concentration.", "B": "It depends on the enzyme concentration.", "C": "It doubles when duplicating the substrate concentration.", "D": "It is Km / 2.", "E": "It is the same for all enzymes." }, "Correct Answer": "It depends on the enzyme concentration.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1c77c4e1-6f6f-4def-bbad-6a100f672afe", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ketone bodies:", "Options": { "A": "They are used by the liver to synthesize fatty acids.", "B": "They only form in conditions of good nutrition.", "C": "Its formation is especially active in skeletal muscle.", "D": "It is formed from acetyl-CoA.", "E": "They never give acetone." }, "Correct Answer": "It is formed from acetyl-CoA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "197de720-05d6-4577-8e70-0a9914157a29", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In general, allosteric enzymes:", "Options": { "A": "They link the effectors in the active center.", "B": "They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors.", "C": "They originate hyperbolic curves of speed before the concentration of substrate.", "D": "They change their conformation when they link effectors.", "E": "They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited." }, "Correct Answer": "They change their conformation when they link effectors.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "41e2a5bc-1ff7-456a-8975-2fe2a9b785b0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is completely oxidized in the citric acid cycle:", "Options": { "A": "-ketoglutarate.", "B": "Succinate", "C": "Citrate.", "D": "Acetyl-CoA.", "E": "Oxalacetate." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetyl-CoA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "66c49698-3c8c-44ad-a460-c302bf394c38", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Animals can NOT synthesize glucose from:", "Options": { "A": "Glycerol.", "B": "To the girl.", "C": "Palmitate", "D": "Oxalacetate.", "E": "Lactate" }, "Correct Answer": "Palmitate", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e28b2a1b-a567-465b-9c65-7b6d938f8047", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyruvate carboxylase:", "Options": { "A": "It requires biotin.", "B": "Use a methyl group activated as a carbon source.", "C": "It catalyzes the production of acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide.", "D": "It is activated in the muscle during the Cori cycle.", "E": "It is an intermediate of the citric acid cycle." }, "Correct Answer": "It requires biotin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eb66b46b-8172-42c6-ba1a-dfa10b351a56", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Cori cycle:", "Options": { "A": "It involves the synthesis and degradation of glycogen.", "B": "It does not imply the conversion of lactate into pyruvate.", "C": "It only takes place in the liver.", "D": "Oxidizes tricarboxylic acids.", "E": "It involves glycolysis and gluconeogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "It involves glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4be69288-75bd-40fd-a69d-833e5f349f3e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is activated when cyclic AMP joins the:", "Options": { "A": "Adenylate cyclase.", "B": "Protein kinase A.", "C": "Glycogen phosphorylase kinase.", "D": "Pyruvate kinase.", "E": "Phosphofruct kinase 1." }, "Correct Answer": "Protein kinase A.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b92ae8fa-0f75-4db0-ad47-b8b3632321b6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The enantiomers of a molecule are:", "Options": { "A": "Very different in all its chemical and physical properties.", "B": "Superimposed mirror images.", "C": "Distinguishable by their optical activity.", "D": "The result of the cyclization of a molecule in different positions.", "E": "Interconvertible without rupture of covalent bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "Distinguishable by their optical activity.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4443b6c8-7078-48bc-8830-668b5155f4fe", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The forces that stabilize the alpha helix are:", "Options": { "A": "Intra-chain hydrogen bridges parallel to the axis of the helix.", "B": "Disulfide bridges between methionines.", "C": "Hydrogen bridges between chains perpendicular to the axis of the helix.", "D": "Van der Waals forces among the radicals.", "E": "Links between lysine radicals." }, "Correct Answer": "Intra-chain hydrogen bridges parallel to the axis of the helix.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6ba26484-3594-49ee-8946-8b596ff6611f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The phosphate groups of the nucleotides:", "Options": { "A": "They are stabilized by binding to divalent anions.", "B": "They form low-energy hydrolysis bonds.", "C": "They are called X, Y and Z as they move away from ribose.", "D": "They are attached to the C3' of the ribose.", "E": "They present negative charge." }, "Correct Answer": "They present negative charge.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "43643010-7c91-41d5-94fa-25a1d822a71f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the link between the nitrogenous base and the ribose of the nucleotides:", "Options": { "A": "The anomeric carbon of ribose is in alpha configuration.", "B": "It is an N-glycosidic bond.", "C": "It involves the C5' of the ribose.", "D": "It involves phosphate groups.", "E": "It is of a different nature for each nitrogenous base." }, "Correct Answer": "It is an N-glycosidic bond.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "555e4ada-4754-43ca-9cf2-49a4faa0aee5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The phosphodiester bond:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by attack from a nitrogenous base to a phosphate.", "B": "It is formed using NMP as a substrate.", "C": "In its training PPi is consumed.", "D": "It involves an alpha phosphate of one nucleotide and an OH group of the ribose of another.", "E": "It does not need enzymatic catalysis." }, "Correct Answer": "It involves an alpha phosphate of one nucleotide and an OH group of the ribose of another.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aa454188-7b64-4dfb-8034-1f5494fbe10b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tRNA-aminoacyl-transferases:", "Options": { "A": "They link the amino acid to the ribosome.", "B": "They bind the amino acid to the anticodon of the tRNA.", "C": "They are RNA polymerases.", "D": "They guarantee the fidelity of the translation.", "E": "They are not important in the translation." }, "Correct Answer": "They guarantee the fidelity of the translation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b59454e6-2d45-49a0-af7b-d13016a1fa58", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the translation of prokaryotes, the first tRNA:", "Options": { "A": "It is introduced in site A.", "B": "Join a methylated amino acid.", "C": "It is accompanied by the IF2 factor.", "D": "It is paired with a UGA start codon.", "E": "Always join serina." }, "Correct Answer": "It is accompanied by the IF2 factor.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b2099278-4b97-4292-9255-bf41607e8c6c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the synthesis of proteins it is correct to affirm that:", "Options": { "A": "Start at the carboxyl end.", "B": "The mRNA is translated from the 5'-end to the 3'-end.", "C": "In eukaryotes it takes place in the nucleus.", "D": "The first subunit of the ribosome to bind to the mRNA is the largest.", "E": "It does not consume energy." }, "Correct Answer": "The mRNA is translated from the 5'-end to the 3'-end.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2b10a386-4003-40fe-97a0-376469e6f1bd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when the values ​​of [s] are much lower (<1/100) than the value of Km:", "Options": { "A": "We are in saturation kinetics.", "B": "The kinetics is of order 1.", "C": "The Vo is the Vmax.", "D": "The speed is independent of the [s].", "E": "That situation never occurs." }, "Correct Answer": "The kinetics is of order 1.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "621efc04-76ca-47f5-9641-6fe6d1bfe49b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Enzymatic regulation by phosphorylation:", "Options": { "A": "It is reversible.", "B": "It requires enzymes that directly introduce the Pi.", "C": "Introduce the Pi into acidic and basic amino acids.", "D": "Always activate enzymes.", "E": "It is carried out by phosphatases." }, "Correct Answer": "It is reversible.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ac696637-7b69-4b91-89cf-90f869624fbf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glycogenesis:", "Options": { "A": "It is a very active pathway in all tissues.", "B": "It is activated by insulin.", "C": "All their reactions occur in the mitochondria.", "D": "One of its substrates is ribose.", "E": "It is produced in the liver." }, "Correct Answer": "It is produced in the liver.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fbcdc427-5f2a-40f1-9629-319313f97ec8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the urea cycle, the argininsuccinate:", "Options": { "A": "It generates fumarate and arginine by argininesuccinase.", "B": "It has five amino groups in its structure.", "C": "Its synthesis produces energy in the form of ATP.", "D": "It is synthesized in the mitochondria.", "E": "It is a keto acid." }, "Correct Answer": "It generates fumarate and arginine by argininesuccinase.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d620987e-5337-4c6b-acaa-30b1ec06c22b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acetyl-CoA carboxylase:", "Options": { "A": "It is a mitochondrial enzyme.", "B": "Its product is Succinyl-CoA.", "C": "It requires biotin as a cofactor.", "D": "Free ATP", "E": "Eat NADH." }, "Correct Answer": "It requires biotin as a cofactor.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "eb693201-8193-435d-bbe0-be37958d878b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acetyl-CoA:", "Options": { "A": "It is synthesized from pyruvate in the eukaryotic cytoplasm.", "B": "It has a phosphate bond rich in energy.", "C": "Presents a guanine nucleotide in coenzyme A.", "D": "Activates pyruvate carboxylase and inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase.", "E": "It easily crosses the mitochondrial inner membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "Activates pyruvate carboxylase and inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f000127b-1543-4c72-b735-c33a47dd9b6f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the regulation of glycogen metabolism by adrenaline:", "Options": { "A": "Adenylate cyclase is inhibited.", "B": "Protein kinase A is inhibited through cAMP.", "C": "Glycogen synthetase is inhibited by phosphorylation.", "D": "Glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by phosphorylation.", "E": "The main enzyme that carries it out is protein kinase C." }, "Correct Answer": "Glycogen synthetase is inhibited by phosphorylation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0efca354-4bfd-4a4a-9942-b112d7b0a8b7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Diphyllobothrium latum competes with its definitive host for the vitamin:", "Options": { "A": "TO.", "B": "B 12", "C": "C.", "D": "D.", "E": "AND." }, "Correct Answer": "B 12", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c8911976-1974-4b48-a91f-fbf1e3c24734", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Miltefosine and meglumine antimonate are used against:", "Options": { "A": "Plasmodium falciparum.", "B": "Entamoeba histolytica.", "C": "Fasciola hepatica.", "D": "Leishmania", "E": "Trichinella spiralis." }, "Correct Answer": "Leishmania", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b1e63f8d-8ffd-49f5-a0e5-0aadb9909c60", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Praziquantel is indicated against:", "Options": { "A": "Dicrocoelium dendriticum.", "B": "Plasmodium.", "C": "Taenia saginata.", "D": "Toxoplasma gondii.", "E": "Entamoeba histolytica." }, "Correct Answer": "Taenia saginata.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b3f92e5c-0522-4ee4-8799-097edda9314d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The eggs are operculated:", "Options": { "A": "Hymenolepis nana.", "B": "Trichinella spiralis.", "C": "Enterobius vermicularis.", "D": "Fasciola hepatica.", "E": "Ascaris lumbricoides." }, "Correct Answer": "Fasciola hepatica.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4d861602-1922-4bda-ba90-22b095c4edda", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Miracidium is a larval phase that is part of the biological cycle of a:", "Options": { "A": "Pediculus", "B": "Ascaris", "C": "Oxiuro.", "D": "Fluke.", "E": "Phlebotomist" }, "Correct Answer": "Fluke.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "24277dc5-92f0-41d9-8915-5e3e0e23f3a5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The transmission of hepatitis E virus is via:", "Options": { "A": "Fecal-oral", "B": "Body secretions.", "C": "Bloodline", "D": "Placenta.", "E": "Aerial" }, "Correct Answer": "Fecal-oral", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e8912626-c29f-4f18-a366-90f9f1482da9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The genetic material of parvoviruses is:", "Options": { "A": "Double-stranded DNA", "B": "Single chain DNA", "C": "Single-stranded positive RNA", "D": "Single negative chain RNA.", "E": "Double-stranded RNA" }, "Correct Answer": "Single chain DNA", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "023c75c4-14e9-4926-8c40-b8dfed6ccb8a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They have helical symmetry in their capsid the:", "Options": { "A": "Rabies virus.", "B": "Common cold virus.", "C": "Papilomavirus.", "D": "Herpesvirus.", "E": "Adenovirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Rabies virus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3ca68dcb-ff2d-4dd5-bca3-4d1f4c55c3dd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The genome of the hepatitis B virus is DNA from:", "Options": { "A": "Simple string (+).", "B": "Simple string (-).", "C": "Double circular chain.", "D": "Double linear chain.", "E": "Incomplete circular double chain (with notches)." }, "Correct Answer": "Incomplete circular double chain (with notches).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "859d2401-ea7c-4183-ae00-bdca7568e3db", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The retrovirus envelope comes from (the):", "Options": { "A": "Plasma membrane.", "B": "Nuclear membrane.", "C": "Endoplasmic reticulum.", "D": "Golgi apparatus.", "E": "Mitochondria." }, "Correct Answer": "Plasma membrane.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "30a3b419-f732-417b-a7ea-7c0dfe038c51", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Baltimore system of virus classification is based on:", "Options": { "A": "The type of genetic material (DNA or RNA) they possess.", "B": "The morphology of their virions.", "C": "The replication of the genome and the synthesis process of its mRNA.", "D": "The symmetry of the capsid.", "E": "The presence or absence of wrapping." }, "Correct Answer": "The replication of the genome and the synthesis process of its mRNA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "97fd7dfe-dfd5-4949-87c0-4f76e6eb3054", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They cause diarrhea in children:", "Options": { "A": "Togavirus.", "B": "Coronavirus.", "C": "Arenavirus.", "D": "Parvovirus.", "E": "Astrovirus" }, "Correct Answer": "Astrovirus", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "17339741-6f8d-4e25-a8e8-7d9e39b6a579", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The bodies of Negri are masses of viral particles visible under an optical microscope in cells infected by the virus:", "Options": { "A": "Smallpox", "B": "Anger.", "C": "The polyoma.", "D": "Yellow fever", "E": "Herpes" }, "Correct Answer": "Anger.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d425547f-928b-4a95-9d11-ccfdfc96b326", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The antiviral tamiflu that is used against the bird flu virus acts:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibiting viral neuraminidase.", "B": "Inactivating the viral protease responsible for the processing of capsomere precursors.", "C": "Preventing the decapsidation of viral particles.", "D": "Blocking the interaction of viral particles with their cellular receptor.", "E": "Altering the activity of the viral DNA polymerase." }, "Correct Answer": "Inhibiting viral neuraminidase.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ccbf84d8-d3a8-44d2-b6f6-00f21377d854", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The genetic material of the influenza virus is replicated in the:", "Options": { "A": "Lysosome", "B": "Cellular cytoplasm.", "C": "Nucleus of the cell.", "D": "Endosome", "E": "Golgi apparatus." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleus of the cell.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "25c26ea5-9de1-4090-91f9-e9f45824791e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Immediately after the herpes virus decapsidation takes place:", "Options": { "A": "Synthesis of an own RNA polymerase.", "B": "Circularization of its genome.", "C": "Lysis of the endosome.", "D": "Transcription of the viral DNA polymerase.", "E": "Synthesis of a protein that inhibits the replication of the host cell." }, "Correct Answer": "Circularization of its genome.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "da183848-cee4-49bb-b3dd-6e076ce9ae20", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The common cold virus has a genome:", "Options": { "A": "Single chain DNA", "B": "Double-stranded DNA", "C": "Fragmented.", "D": "Simple chain RNA", "E": "Double-stranded RNA" }, "Correct Answer": "Simple chain RNA", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0e923955-5675-4129-b9ee-6ae3c2198acd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most important causative agents of cervical cancer are:", "Options": { "A": "Papilomavirus.", "B": "Polyomavirus", "C": "Retrovirus.", "D": "Cytomegalovirus.", "E": "Parvovirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Papilomavirus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c7059199-1880-4340-b84c-1d77cfd93e0f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They use a reverse transcriptase during their replication:", "Options": { "A": "Papovavirus.", "B": "Polyomavirus", "C": "Hepadnavirus.", "D": "Parvovirus.", "E": "Herpesvirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepadnavirus.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bf62af5c-fb3d-4ee2-923d-2764788de6c9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The virus (virusoid) of hepatitis D (agent δ) needs to co-infect with the hepatitis virus:", "Options": { "A": "TO.", "B": "B.", "C": "C.", "D": "AND.", "E": "G." }, "Correct Answer": "B.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "db8995ba-c984-4cec-ba9b-8417aaed2933", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Most Gram-positive bacteria do not grow in MacConkey's medium because it contains:", "Options": { "A": "Bile salts and crystal violet.", "B": "Lactose and casein hydrolyzate.", "C": "Neutral red", "D": "Mannitol", "E": "Basic fuchsin" }, "Correct Answer": "Bile salts and crystal violet.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ee8da430-7d6c-402e-8e49-5907cd6547c8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The immersion oil used for microscopic observation:", "Options": { "A": "Protects the sample from the oxidizing effect of air.", "B": "Lubricate the objective lens.", "C": "Reduces refraction and increases resolution.", "D": "It acts as a lens that increases magnification.", "E": "Avoid dehydration of the preparation." }, "Correct Answer": "Reduces refraction and increases resolution.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "73405fd2-9011-4ef6-b5b2-176af1f9b7df", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To observe the bacterial capsules in a clear field microscope, a stain is made:", "Options": { "A": "Resistant acid", "B": "From Leifson.", "C": "Simple.", "D": "Negative.", "E": "Differential." }, "Correct Answer": "Negative.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "131b9e74-83d6-41b0-88a2-809a0f29feff", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The microbiocidal action of iodine and chlorine and many of its derivatives is due to:", "Options": { "A": "They are oxidizing agents.", "B": "They bind specifically to the active centers of the enzymes.", "C": "They bind specifically to ribosomal proteins.", "D": "They induce pores in the membranes.", "E": "They cause the dissolution of membrane phospholipids." }, "Correct Answer": "They are oxidizing agents.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eaffd799-1e18-4e7f-b4ea-a948debd5545", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The bacteria contain endotoxins:", "Options": { "A": "Of all types except microplasmas.", "B": "Gram positive.", "C": "Gram negative", "D": "Intracellular", "E": "Endospore formers" }, "Correct Answer": "Gram negative", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5519fc43-14db-4743-ab99-c93ee9f9c276", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The O antigen used in the classification of Gram negative bacteria corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "The flagellar proteins.", "B": "Components of the capsule.", "C": "The peptidoglycan.", "D": "The polysaccharide of lipopolysaccharides.", "E": "Plasma membrane proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "The polysaccharide of lipopolysaccharides.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2eaa1ce6-56d3-4f3b-971f-8e3dbba4d519", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alcohol-resistance acid is used to identify:", "Options": { "A": "Fermenting bacteria.", "B": "Yeasts used in the production of alcoholic beverages.", "C": "Bacteria that possess mycolic acids.", "D": "Sporulated organisms.", "E": "Oxidizing organisms from sulfides to sulfuric acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Bacteria that possess mycolic acids.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "04576669-bb5c-4ea9-a577-5caa2536885d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Archaea differ from the bacteria in that:", "Options": { "A": "Their membranes have a single phospholipid layer.", "B": "They have several chromosomes.", "C": "Their membranes have glycerol ethers.", "D": "They are not susceptible to viral infection.", "E": "They do not have a cell wall." }, "Correct Answer": "Their membranes have glycerol ethers.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a98ec041-8bbf-41be-9a09-156445a2d42a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Very commonly the autoinducer molecules responsible for the quorum perception of many Gram-negative bacteria are:", "Options": { "A": "N-acyl homoserine lactones.", "B": "Diaminopimelic acid.", "C": "Proteins", "D": "Hills", "E": "Fatty acids." }, "Correct Answer": "N-acyl homoserine lactones.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2751bc70-c573-4430-b71c-050ac5512eb1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most commonly used data to study the phylogenetic relationship between bacteria is:", "Options": { "A": "The cytosine-guanine composition of their DNA.", "B": "The degree of DNA-DNA hybridization.", "C": "The amino acid sequence of ribosomal proteins.", "D": "The nucleotide sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA.", "E": "The composition of the cell wall." }, "Correct Answer": "The nucleotide sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aaaf85d6-a846-43f9-a3e5-d8b8a31db384", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It usually protects the DNA of a restriction enzyme:", "Options": { "A": "Methylation of a nitrogenous base.", "B": "Glycosylation of a nitrogenous base.", "C": "Acetylation of deoxyribose.", "D": "Phosphorylation of deoxyribose.", "E": "Loss of one of the hydroxyl groups of phosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "Methylation of a nitrogenous base.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "88dc8047-c64c-4b49-962e-5d8e650a4620", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An essential characteristic of plasmids is:", "Options": { "A": "Be able to integrate into the genome of the host cell.", "B": "Direct the process of bacterial conjugation.", "C": "Carry genes for antibiotic resistance.", "D": "Replicate autonomously.", "E": "Being circular DNA molecules." }, "Correct Answer": "Replicate autonomously.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d69d7f09-3c7f-492a-ba23-8ce50122842c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The fermentation of glucose used by Escherichia coli is:", "Options": { "A": "Lactic", "B": "Propionic", "C": "Alcoholic", "D": "Butyric", "E": "Acid-mixed." }, "Correct Answer": "Acid-mixed.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c8d927c7-41fe-4b72-86a9-64f2f24a92c4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The target of the aminoglycoside antibacterials is the:", "Options": { "A": "DNA polymerase", "B": "Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan.", "C": "30S subunit of the ribosome.", "D": "RNA polymerase", "E": "DNA gyrase." }, "Correct Answer": "30S subunit of the ribosome.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "95fb8a73-abb3-4bcc-9880-4d9561ce1a08", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the synthesis of DNA, the quinolones act:", "Options": { "A": "Joining the double helix and thus blocking the progress of the replication fork.", "B": "Interlacing in the double helix and thus causing errors in the transcription.", "C": "On DNA gyrase.", "D": "As nucleotide analogs that are incorporated into DNA.", "E": "About DNA polymerases." }, "Correct Answer": "On DNA gyrase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "64369949-3219-4c6f-9629-fc99fddf7f45", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Isoniazid is effective against:", "Options": { "A": "Brucella.", "B": "Mycoplasma.", "C": "Staphylococcus aureus.", "D": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "E": "Bacillus anthracis." }, "Correct Answer": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e68e732f-0f79-4051-ace5-5d93f1e756c1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A difference between the genus Vibrio and the enterobacteria is to be:", "Options": { "A": "Strict anaerobe.", "B": "Halophile.", "C": "Negative oxidase of peritric flogging.", "D": "Very demanding nutritionally.", "E": "Do not ferment glucose." }, "Correct Answer": "Halophile.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b296a2be-494b-4a4b-81c6-972cadfd5e24", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cause of syphilis:", "Options": { "A": "Trichomonas vaginalis.", "B": "Neisseria gonorrhoeae.", "C": "Treponema pallidum.", "D": "Mycoplasma genitalium.", "E": "Mobiluncus curtisii." }, "Correct Answer": "Treponema pallidum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5d5e7df5-6b42-4e1c-82ba-7ddaed84d72b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They incorporate sterols to their plasma membrane:", "Options": { "A": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "B": "Micrococcus luteus.", "C": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae", "D": "Chlamydia trachomatis.", "E": "Rickettsia prowazekii." }, "Correct Answer": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7d0eb978-982e-44b9-aa9d-1c36d88d70b6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The vaginal microbiota of a healthy fertile woman is dominated by bacteria of the genus:", "Options": { "A": "Peptostreptococcus", "B": "Bifidobacterium", "C": "Eubacterium.", "D": "Lactobacillus", "E": "Vagococcus" }, "Correct Answer": "Lactobacillus", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d12e85ca-8cce-4eae-8f23-91109ff29bb5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Lyme disease is caused by:", "Options": { "A": "Borrelia burgdorferi.", "B": "Treponema saccharophilum.", "C": "Spirillum commune.", "D": "Leptospira interrogans.", "E": "Limulus polyphemus." }, "Correct Answer": "Borrelia burgdorferi.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8d11d236-8f8a-46c5-bf6b-4b7545314777", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cholera toxin:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibits protein synthesis.", "B": "It is hemolytic and dermonecrotic.", "C": "Alters the flow of electrolytes in the intestine.", "D": "It is formed by a single polypeptide that is cleaved by the effect of proteases.", "E": "It produces food poisoning." }, "Correct Answer": "Alters the flow of electrolytes in the intestine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f42e5c0a-a882-4c6a-844d-466b2fd80f4c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Botulinum toxin:", "Options": { "A": "It occurs in infected and poorly aerated wounds.", "B": "Blocks protein synthesis.", "C": "It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine in the myoneural plaque.", "D": "It interferes with nerve impulse transmission at the level of axons.", "E": "It causes necrosis of the nerve endings." }, "Correct Answer": "It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine in the myoneural plaque.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5ddf17ed-70e7-4eef-a429-c6ed107080d9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An important test to distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from saprophytic staphylococci, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis is:", "Options": { "A": "Oxidase", "B": "Catalase", "C": "Indole.", "D": "Urea", "E": "Coagulase" }, "Correct Answer": "Coagulase", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f9d404d9-a9ae-4e94-bc90-64c18b5fde1f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically:", "Options": { "A": "Sensitive to most antibiotics used in human medicine.", "B": "Pathogen obligated.", "C": "Opportunistic pathogen.", "D": "Commensal bacteria of the digestive tract.", "E": "Intracellular pathogen." }, "Correct Answer": "Opportunistic pathogen.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6f3250bf-5c01-4d1a-965c-69a7a3d76dc1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Infections caused by Clostridium tetani, Bordetella pertussis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Vibrio cholerae have in common:", "Options": { "A": "The type of transmission.", "B": "The reservoir.", "C": "The production of exotoxins.", "D": "The affected organs.", "E": "The route of infection." }, "Correct Answer": "The production of exotoxins.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a6fb42dd-1cc5-4e5c-a4af-ca69660215ab", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is one (one):", "Options": { "A": "Fímbria.", "B": "Capsule.", "C": "Scourge", "D": "Endotoxin", "E": "Adhesin" }, "Correct Answer": "Capsule.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ba72f146-8bd2-4e69-9e67-1c141274da3c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by:", "Options": { "A": "Air conditioning systems.", "B": "Contact between individuals.", "C": "Mosquito bite.", "D": "Contaminated food.", "E": "Fecal-oral route." }, "Correct Answer": "Air conditioning systems.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "60b62d57-2ae8-4021-b0ef-18c0e26149f4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It contains a Gram negative species that causes meningitis the genus:", "Options": { "A": "Trichomonas.", "B": "Pasteurella", "C": "Burkholderia.", "D": "Francisella.", "E": "Neisseria." }, "Correct Answer": "Neisseria.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "861fe698-6b31-4b73-a07a-51adaf576360", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In mammals, Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are receptors:", "Options": { "A": "Signaling.", "B": "Antigenic", "C": "Of histocompatibility alleles.", "D": "Of phagocytosis.", "E": "Of chemokines." }, "Correct Answer": "Signaling.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6a803c70-890f-40be-9249-506d23eae509", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The innate immune response to viruses is mainly mediated by lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "B1", "B": "Th1.", "C": "Cytolytic T", "D": "NK", "E": "Tγδ." }, "Correct Answer": "NK", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0e0929bf-9f68-43b3-be31-726bef62a348", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main function of chemokines is:", "Options": { "A": "Regulate lymphocyte traffic.", "B": "Stimulate cell proliferation in response to chemical agents.", "C": "Amplify the production of antiviral cytokines.", "D": "Regulate the selection in the thymus.", "E": "Antagonize some cytokines." }, "Correct Answer": "Regulate lymphocyte traffic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "383aab74-a855-41ca-93aa-30fa818b7b29", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Interactions between selectins and vascular targeins:", "Options": { "A": "They are very strong.", "B": "They mediate the first phase of the leukocyte / endothelium adhesion.", "C": "They are permanent.", "D": "They mediate firm adhesion to the endothelium.", "E": "They are very intense in the spleen." }, "Correct Answer": "They mediate the first phase of the leukocyte / endothelium adhesion.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9be073d1-6dfd-4099-9377-0dd71c96e095", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the processing and presentation of peptides of extracellular origin intervene (n):", "Options": { "A": "The TAP proteins.", "B": "The tapasina.", "C": "The HLA-DM molecule.", "D": "The proteosome.", "E": "The HLA-B molecules." }, "Correct Answer": "The HLA-DM molecule.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4096487d-d8f4-4b2f-8b63-3ad0e4e4d022", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main autocrine growth factor for most T lymphocytes after antigen recognition is:", "Options": { "A": "Interleukin 2", "B": "Interleukin 4", "C": "Interleukin 10", "D": "TGF-beta.", "E": "All the previous ones" }, "Correct Answer": "Interleukin 2", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "68057a0f-2b12-4ca8-a102-8413b8ad9b95", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Tα CD4 + lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "They are functionally cooperative with B lymphocytes and other T lymphocytes.", "B": "They recognize native antigens in soluble form.", "C": "They recognize peptides in the MHC class I context.", "D": "They are less abundant than CD8 + in human blood.", "E": "They release perforins." }, "Correct Answer": "They are functionally cooperative with B lymphocytes and other T lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "28a883e3-c0d7-4501-971a-4d9465e26888", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is more characteristic of Th1 than Th2 lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "Interleukin 5", "B": "The TGF-beta.", "C": "Interleukin 10", "D": "Interleukin 17", "E": "The IFN-γ." }, "Correct Answer": "The IFN-γ.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "33d897d1-23b8-4754-9d17-6fecf04c7784", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Th1 lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "Activate B lymphocytes and eosinophils.", "B": "Activate macrophages and NK lymphocytes.", "C": "They secrete mainly IL-4.", "D": "They promote the production of IgE.", "E": "They are a type of Treg lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Activate macrophages and NK lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b44a422d-485b-40e1-9b8f-2111ce6fba0c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are involved in the lytic action of cytotoxic T lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "Granzimas", "B": "Opsonins.", "C": "Histamines", "D": "Integrins", "E": "Cathepsins." }, "Correct Answer": "Granzimas", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f24b5573-9277-4084-9969-acd432c7f766", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The development of B cells in the bone marrow:", "Options": { "A": "It is dependent on the antigen.", "B": "It begins with gene rearrangements in the kappa light chain.", "C": "It is dependent on stromal cells.", "D": "It begins with gene rearrangements in the delta heavy chain.", "E": "It is dependent on T lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "It is dependent on stromal cells.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "890c272d-4533-4cec-abfb-833c69fd49db", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They can be part of the B lymphocyte receptor on the cell surface:", "Options": { "A": "IgM and IgG.", "B": "IgD and IgG.", "C": "IgD and IgM.", "D": "IgA and IgM.", "E": "IgG and IgE." }, "Correct Answer": "IgD and IgM.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "edede43d-04e4-49c9-aa23-9240970509b3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Determines the isotype change of the immunoglobulin heavy chain:", "Options": { "A": "The receptor of cell B.", "B": "The CD40 molecule and the cytokines.", "C": "IgM or IgD of the lymphocyte membrane.", "D": "Age.", "E": "The location of the lymphocyte within the germinal center." }, "Correct Answer": "The CD40 molecule and the cytokines.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ea45af34-c5f2-4455-8071-bf4ce537d802", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In comparison with the primary humoral responses, the secondary ones:", "Options": { "A": "They are based primarily on IgM.", "B": "They are faster and more durable.", "C": "They generate antibodies of low affinity for the antigen.", "D": "They present a low level of hypermutation.", "E": "They generate much lower amount of antibodies." }, "Correct Answer": "They are faster and more durable.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e520c37a-50db-4a64-9fbf-f9f512d4c08c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most abundant immunoglobulin isotype produced by plasma cells of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue is:", "Options": { "A": "IgM", "B": "IgD.", "C": "IgG", "D": "IgA", "E": "IgE" }, "Correct Answer": "IgA", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cf4a1dbc-69fe-47e6-92ca-82089d2d6101", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following may occur in multimeric form associated with the J chain:", "Options": { "A": "IgA and IgG.", "B": "IgD and IgM,", "C": "IdE and IgD.", "D": "IgA and IgD.", "E": "IgA and IgM." }, "Correct Answer": "IgA and IgM.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "70f2ad91-1944-4e77-9329-f64279ba363c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The classical pathway of complement is activated in response to:", "Options": { "A": "Antigen-antibody complexes.", "B": "Direct binding of C3b to bacterial walls.", "C": "Microbial glycolipids.", "D": "Properdin", "E": "The C-reactive protein." }, "Correct Answer": "Antigen-antibody complexes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a4e50ce0-d0f1-462e-934a-090f23e1c389", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are directly involved in allergic reactions:", "Options": { "A": "T lymphocytes.", "B": "Dendritic cells", "C": "Monocytes", "D": "Platelets.", "E": "Mastocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Mastocytes", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0f3e09e6-1fd1-4da0-8cb7-c24c73464a22", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Serum disease is a hypersensitivity:", "Options": { "A": "Mediated by IgE.", "B": "Against molecules of the extracellular matrix.", "C": "Mediated by deposition of immune complexes in certain tissues.", "D": "With formation of granulomas.", "E": "With activation of mast cells associated with blood vessels." }, "Correct Answer": "Mediated by deposition of immune complexes in certain tissues.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "83d62c33-bf5c-4fa3-8790-aa4cb17d3795", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Contact dermatitis is mediated by:", "Options": { "A": "IgE", "B": "IgG", "C": "Activated eosinophils.", "D": "Activated NK lymphocytes.", "E": "Activated Th1 lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Activated Th1 lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "522727d4-8df2-4e76-b0d9-2881d0ba8b16", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A complication of transplantation of hematopoietic precursors is:", "Options": { "A": "Common variable immunodeficiency.", "B": "Graft-versus-host disease.", "C": "Immunodeficiencies in complement components.", "D": "The lack of NK lymphocytes.", "E": "Chronic granulomatous disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Graft-versus-host disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7ec90f8e-64c5-4325-a28e-aa53b01a9ccc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most common use of indirect ELISA is the quantification of:", "Options": { "A": "Serum proteins.", "B": "The cytotoxicity mediated by NK lymphocytes.", "C": "The activation of the complement.", "D": "Specific antibodies in a serum.", "E": "Apoptosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Specific antibodies in a serum.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b955c2ca-cc34-4810-bf3b-7575e2a79b96", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "As an immunoanalytical technique, flow cytometry is mainly based on the detection of signals:", "Options": { "A": "Chemiluminescent", "B": "Fluorescent", "C": "Bioluminescent", "D": "Piezoelectric.", "E": "Magnetic" }, "Correct Answer": "Fluorescent", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e8bde200-f0ac-473c-be26-7931251f1d51", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When centrifuging human peripheral blood in a density gradient in Ficoll:", "Options": { "A": "The mononuclear cells float on the Ficoll.", "B": "The lymphocytes remain in the background.", "C": "The erythrocytes float on the Ficoll.", "D": "The granulocytes float on the Ficoll.", "E": "The monocytes remain in the background." }, "Correct Answer": "The mononuclear cells float on the Ficoll.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9924a419-741f-4676-8c4d-6c7b759ea835", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In comparison with polyclonal antibodies, a monoclonal antibody:", "Options": { "A": "It has low cost.", "B": "It has heterogeneous specificity.", "C": "It is of variable specificity.", "D": "Recognizes a single epitope.", "E": "It is of variable affinity." }, "Correct Answer": "Recognizes a single epitope.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3fdd408b-a025-4bea-afb5-75590482ddeb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Type I pneumocytes:", "Options": { "A": "They produce surfactant.", "B": "They give rise to type II pneumocytes.", "C": "They have a lot of organelles.", "D": "They are responsible for gas exchange.", "E": "They are mesenchymal cells." }, "Correct Answer": "They are responsible for gas exchange.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3dae88fa-b4b6-4865-9910-c8f102f88f81", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has a single nucleus in central position:", "Options": { "A": "Skeletal muscle fiber.", "B": "Cardiac muscle fiber.", "C": "Osteoclast", "D": "Thrombocyte", "E": "Erythrocyte" }, "Correct Answer": "Cardiac muscle fiber.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "12ddd847-179b-4a0f-b633-00933d538343", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Azidothymidine (AZT) used against the human immunodeficiency virus:", "Options": { "A": "It binds to the cellular RNA polymerase and blocks transcription.", "B": "It binds to the early promoter of the virus and prevents its recognition by RNA polymerase.", "C": "Antagonizes the phosphorylation of nucleosides, thus inhibiting the synthesis of viral DNA.", "D": "Blocks the transport of thymidine to the cellular interior.", "E": "Inhibits transcriptase" }, "Correct Answer": "Inhibits transcriptase", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b823ec21-6769-49fc-87ab-b24c7f283924", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Typically the species of the genus Leptospira:", "Options": { "A": "They have movement by perimeter flagellation.", "B": "They present endoflagelos.", "C": "They are anaerobic.", "D": "They form prostecas.", "E": "They are diners." }, "Correct Answer": "They present endoflagelos.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a6f731ff-797c-4c1d-a5cd-de580ae739a4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "After antigenic recognition, the T cell receptor transmits an activation signal through:", "Options": { "A": "CD3 and chain .", "B": "Ig and Ig.", "C": "TAP1 and TAP2.", "D": "RAG1 and RAG2.", "E": "Determining regions of complementarity 1 and 2." }, "Correct Answer": "CD3 and chain .", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1aac5919-b6ff-45cf-92c9-2e7c96014356", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase:", "Options": { "A": "It is inhibited by citrate.", "B": "It is activated by the AMP.", "C": "Releases a phosphate like Pi.", "D": "It is a mitochondrial enzyme.", "E": "It catalyzes a reversible reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Releases a phosphate like Pi.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e080bf83-1b08-4326-8f0b-c0a28352ba1e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a three-point test crossover study, a negative interference indicates that:", "Options": { "A": "More double crossings have occurred than expected.", "B": "There have been fewer double crossings than expected.", "C": "The match coefficient is less than 1.", "D": "A simple crossover decreases the likelihood of a double crossover occurring.", "E": "There have been fewer simple cross-links than expected." }, "Correct Answer": "More double crossings have occurred than expected.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5c015926-ba8b-4e33-b35b-04943eed7c15", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of pairs of metacentric chromosomes of the human karyotype is:", "Options": { "A": "8", "B": "6", "C": "Four.", "D": "12", "E": "two." }, "Correct Answer": "Four.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b500f5e4-757e-43ef-b801-2a1fe6459f5b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The trophoblast develops from:", "Options": { "A": "The outer layer of the blastocyst.", "B": "The internal cell mass.", "C": "The zona pellucida.", "D": "The bilaminar germinative disc.", "E": "The endometrium" }, "Correct Answer": "The outer layer of the blastocyst.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b6bf3344-dd18-47f2-bfe3-f63b6de4f8f4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the electrophoresis of hemoglobin in cellulose acetate:", "Options": { "A": "Neutral Red or Evans Blue are used as dyes.", "B": "Three differentiated fractions are obtained: Hb A, Hb A2 and carbonic anhydrase.", "C": "The majority fraction is HbA2.", "D": "The hemolysate is obtained using CINH4.", "E": "Acetone-Ethanol (1: 1) is used as decolorizer." }, "Correct Answer": "Three differentiated fractions are obtained: Hb A, Hb A2 and carbonic anhydrase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6116de76-e39d-4711-a4ef-9b43be658fdd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the three types of bone cells?", "Options": { "A": "Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes.", "B": "Osteoclasts, trabeculae and osteoliths.", "C": "Osteocytes, osteoblasts and mitochondria.", "D": "Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes.", "E": "Osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "04da91b8-d929-462e-b259-6df15c4e9fec", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The \"patellar reflex\" consists of:", "Options": { "A": "Extension of the foot in response to the percussion of the Achilles tendon.", "B": "Extension of the big toe in response to stimulation of the inner edge of the sole.", "C": "The extension of the leg in response to percussion on the patellar tendon.", "D": "The flicker in response to the touch of the cornea.", "E": "The fan extension of the toes in response to the stimulation of the sole of the foot." }, "Correct Answer": "The extension of the leg in response to percussion on the patellar tendon.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c309cd77-e4b4-430f-9d71-e559c747090e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord?", "Options": { "A": "Twenty eight.", "B": "Twenty nine.", "C": "Thirty one.", "D": "Thirty-three.", "E": "Thirty-five." }, "Correct Answer": "Thirty one.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a0dc151e-4549-4406-94a1-e996cab6d6e7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The specialized type of soft and diffuse connective tissue, called myeloid tissue, is also called:", "Options": { "A": "Spinal cord.", "B": "Bone marrow.", "C": "Myelin", "D": "Endochondral marrow", "E": "Leukomyelin" }, "Correct Answer": "Bone marrow.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "88a93b71-cca1-4900-a46e-2c2bfdf543a5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is cardiac output?", "Options": { "A": "The volume of blood that leaves the heart per unit of time (ml / min or l / min).", "B": "The complete heartbeat constituted by contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) in both atria and in both ventricles measured in time (sec).", "C": "The blood that remains in the heart when the pressure gradient determines the distension of the cardiac fibers.", "D": "The power gradient of the contraction, also called contractility.", "E": "The ventricular volume that remains constant." }, "Correct Answer": "The volume of blood that leaves the heart per unit of time (ml / min or l / min).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "40aa50fe-ec48-47fa-9208-f3fb002f123d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Substances that prevent abrupt changes in the pH of a solution by adding an acid or a base to it are called:", "Options": { "A": "Aceto-acetic bodies.", "B": "Tampons.", "C": "Hydrogens.", "D": "Anhydrous.", "E": "Answers 2 and 3 are the correct ones." }, "Correct Answer": "Tampons.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d3a5cd2c-3e13-4d54-83e0-6f3fe527ea2f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to pulmonary surfactant, indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It contains enzymes necessary for gas exchange.", "B": "It helps to eliminate harmful elements in the alveoli.", "C": "It is secreted by type 1 pneumonites.", "D": "Decreases alveolar surface tension.", "E": "It is only synthesized in emergency situations." }, "Correct Answer": "Decreases alveolar surface tension.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7a0d8437-bcad-4b77-b0e3-3084f8865d8b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding the regulation of hematopoiesis:", "Options": { "A": "Altitude inhibits hematopoiesis.", "B": "Erythropoietin inhibits hematopoiesis.", "C": "Hypoxia stimulates the production of erythropoietin.", "D": "Erythropoietin is synthesized in the liver.", "E": "Erythropoietin does not influence the production of red blood cells." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypoxia stimulates the production of erythropoietin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4dcb7636-fa02-4ade-b086-b3026798360c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The negative feedback regulation of thyroid hormone is as follows:", "Options": { "A": "High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that elevate HRT.", "B": "High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that raise TSH.", "C": "High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that decrease TRH.", "D": "Decreased TRH that elevates TSH.", "E": "Decreased TSH that elevates HRT." }, "Correct Answer": "High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that decrease TRH.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "53dc380e-2a8b-47e5-a6ff-dff136b49c0a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Granular or juxtaglomerular cells of the nephron secrete:", "Options": { "A": "Angiotensin I.", "B": "Renina", "C": "Angiotensinogen.", "D": "Aldosterone", "E": "Vasopressin" }, "Correct Answer": "Renina", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0eeaf548-5845-4194-8355-ef379d511021", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The fundamental function of the basal ganglia is:", "Options": { "A": "Control movement", "B": "Increase hearing", "C": "Improve the ability of taste.", "D": "Increase appetite", "E": "Increase urination" }, "Correct Answer": "Control movement", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d84057b3-9dbf-4228-a5af-0756dfa399cc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart, under physiological conditions the cardiac output is directly proportional to:", "Options": { "A": "The size of the ventricle.", "B": "The heart rate", "C": "The venous return.", "D": "The thickness of the myocardium.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The venous return.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "db8b0304-e4ce-4a91-9945-74c843ed1dce", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Law of Bases of the National Health of 1944 established with obligatory character:", "Options": { "A": "That in each Spanish province a College of Health Assistants was created that would integrate practitioners, midwives and nurses.", "B": "The creation of the Body of Ministers, Practitioners of Surgery and Midwives.", "C": "The official program to be followed by nurses in the Faculties of Medicine.", "D": "The creation of the Nursing Corps of the Traditionalist Spanish Falange and of the JONS.", "E": "The requirements to obtain the title and to be able to get registered as Professional Nurses of the Spanish Red Cross." }, "Correct Answer": "That in each Spanish province a College of Health Assistants was created that would integrate practitioners, midwives and nurses.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c678b810-f8be-4a52-8766-f5bdad4355a0", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In charge of who was the regulation of the exercise of health professions in Spain during the fifteenth century and later?", "Options": { "A": "The Faculties of Medicine.", "B": "The Protomedical Court.", "C": "The General Board of Health.", "D": "The Ministry of Education.", "E": "The General Benevolence of the State." }, "Correct Answer": "The Protomedical Court.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "513e3819-5e6a-4714-b4e9-ede3478fb027", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The History of Nursing is narrated around the relationships between the different elements and the factors that define periods or stable phases of history, called:", "Options": { "A": "Domestic; Preprofessional; Religious and Postprofessional.", "B": "Tribal / Domestic; Religious / Institutional; Preprofessional and Professional.", "C": "Tribal; Religious; Domestic and Institutional.", "D": "Tribal / Domestic; Antigua / Relational; Scientific / Professional and Postprofessional.", "E": "Empirical Vocational and Scientific." }, "Correct Answer": "Tribal / Domestic; Religious / Institutional; Preprofessional and Professional.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ce411f2d-0444-4c56-86d8-17afd262fe6c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "By what legal norm were regulated for the first time the specialties for the Diploma in Nursing and obtaining the title of Specialist Nurse?", "Options": { "A": "Order June 1, 1992 (BOE June 2).", "B": "Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22 (BOE May 6).", "C": "Royal Decree 992/1987, of July 3 (BOE 1 of August).", "D": "Royal Decree 943/1986 (BOE May 14).", "E": "Order of July 15, 1980 (BOE of July 23)." }, "Correct Answer": "Royal Decree 992/1987, of July 3 (BOE 1 of August).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "806bc5e7-b79d-4c32-98fe-1b8834df86d6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The so-called \"Dark Age of Nursing\" occurred as a result of:", "Options": { "A": "The development of Nursing as a vocational activity.", "B": "The interference of technology in relation to the patient.", "C": "The progressive medicalization of care.", "D": "The dispersion of religious orders provoked by Protestantism.", "E": "The creation of the body of protomedicatos and protobarberatos." }, "Correct Answer": "The dispersion of religious orders provoked by Protestantism.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a9e504fc-ca8a-456c-9c60-b1b86848560e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the name of the specialty of the History of Nursing that is dedicated to the study of existing care systems in Prehistory?", "Options": { "A": "Paleodermia.", "B": "Neo-nursing", "C": "Primo Nursing.", "D": "Ethno-nursing", "E": "Meso-nursing" }, "Correct Answer": "Paleodermia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7ba29bc5-0b20-4f24-8440-b353a99a32f9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The author who showed in her writings her interest in the control of the environment, as well as the importance of the influence of Nature in the health of the people is:", "Options": { "A": "V. Henderson.", "B": "H. Peplau.", "C": "F. Nightingale.", "D": "M. Leininger.", "E": "D. Orem." }, "Correct Answer": "F. Nightingale.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8ad82b4b-1a94-4884-a2ac-6068ba7103c9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When was the first School of Nurses in Spain founded?", "Options": { "A": "In 1857, in Madrid, at the Hospital de la Princesa, by Isabel II.", "B": "In 1896, in Madrid, at the Institute of Operative Therapy \"Santa Isabel de Hungría\", by Dr. Rubio.", "C": "In 1908, in Madrid, by the Red Cross.", "D": "In 1917, in Madrid, in the Hospital of Santa Isabel and San Pablo, by the Protomedicato.", "E": "In 1952, in Madrid, after the creation of the Social Security hospitals." }, "Correct Answer": "In 1896, in Madrid, at the Institute of Operative Therapy \"Santa Isabel de Hungría\", by Dr. Rubio.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "056551e9-bd38-484e-b184-95d19c376e6b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Virgina Henderson describes the relationship of the nurse with the patient in the following structure:", "Options": { "A": "Levels: Substitution. Help. Accompaniment.", "B": "Roles: Strange. Person resource. Teacher. Leadership. Substitute. Advice.", "C": "Skills: Beginner Advanced beginner Effective. Expert.", "D": "Help modes: Act for another. Lead another. Support another. Provide an environment that fosters development. Teach another", "E": "Styles: Stimulation. Confirmation. Conservation and continuity of life. Self-image Compensation and rest." }, "Correct Answer": "Levels: Substitution. Help. Accompaniment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "51f0b01e-2a40-48e6-ac5f-8733be7797a4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The conception of person based on the idea that he is a being inseparably linked to his culture is developed in the care model of:", "Options": { "A": "M. E. Rogers.", "B": "N. J. Pender.", "C": "J. Watson.", "D": "M. Leininger.", "E": "M. K. Chisman and J. Riehl-Sisca." }, "Correct Answer": "M. Leininger.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4dba6479-1d05-4aeb-9ea7-0349f7d09d58", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "E. H. is a 64-year-old lady diagnosed with hypertension and assisted by her nurse in the corresponding program. The activities carried out by the nurse are aimed at regulating the exercise and development of the self-care agency of E. H. The lady performs her self-care and regulates the exercise and development of her self-care agency. This organization of care is described by Orem as a system:", "Options": { "A": "Partially compensatory.", "B": "Support-education.", "C": "Completely compensatory.", "D": "Complementation", "E": "Of shared regulation and development." }, "Correct Answer": "Support-education.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6707d398-4c21-4a36-b0bc-6d9cdbaa2894", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Alfaro-Lefevre, thinking critically in the context of nursing situations means that:", "Options": { "A": "It is constantly revaluing, self-correcting and seeking to improve.", "B": "It replaces the process of nursing care.", "C": "Supports concrete proposals to maintain priorities and interventions.", "D": "It makes our own limitations and predispositions lose importance.", "E": "Provide the arguments to justify that the best answer is the perfect one." }, "Correct Answer": "It is constantly revaluing, self-correcting and seeking to improve.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "61230034-639c-49c2-929d-61b92fa0fd91", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the characteristics of the Nursing Process is:", "Options": { "A": "Decision making is characteristic of the planning stage.", "B": "It focuses on the nurse.", "C": "The data of each phase provide information for the next.", "D": "Decision making must be linked to standard response.", "E": "It must be designed so that it remains static." }, "Correct Answer": "The data of each phase provide information for the next.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a2ebccd2-658b-43bb-83bc-f7661ac85433", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The validation or verification of information is an essential step in critical thinking that helps you avoid:", "Options": { "A": "Make assumptions", "B": "Skip pertinent information", "C": "Misinterpreting situations.", "D": "Draw hasty conclusions or focus in the wrong direction.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All the previous answers are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e231c4d6-d0ed-48d5-afd8-769d12225bfd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the interview with a patient during the assessment stage, open questions present a disadvantage because:", "Options": { "A": "They can reveal the affectivity of the interviewee with respect to one aspect.", "B": "The answers are difficult to register and doing it requires skill.", "C": "They let the interviewee speak.", "D": "Too much importance is attached to the opinions of the interviewee.", "E": "They can attract interest and confidence for the freedom they provide." }, "Correct Answer": "The answers are difficult to register and doing it requires skill.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ac4c5573-5903-4a52-8404-06220a575a51", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The nurse identifies that the person she has evaluated presents a series of manifestations that correspond to the defining characteristics of a diagnostic label, however, does not identify any possible cause. How should you enunciate the diagnosis following the guidelines of the PES format?", "Options": { "A": "Problem related to unknown cause manifested by the defining characteristics identified.", "B": "Using the term related to instead of due to, between problem and etiology.", "C": "As a risk diagnosis.", "D": "Problem related to the defining characteristics identified.", "E": "The absence of cause means that there is no problem, so a diagnosis could not be stated." }, "Correct Answer": "Problem related to unknown cause manifested by the defining characteristics identified.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "331e8766-8abe-4f2c-90f7-c1feafea1ecb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When recording the data obtained during the execution of the care, the appropriate thing is:", "Options": { "A": "Take some time to make the annotations, after a reflection based on what is remembered.", "B": "Focus on the important problems and events that communicate what is different that day in that person.", "C": "Collect all that has been perceived about the answer, even if it is subjective, because it is an important information for the team.", "D": "Record all the normal manifestations that the person presents.", "E": "Make the annotations in a general manner, without describing temporal concretions that would hinder interpretation." }, "Correct Answer": "Focus on the important problems and events that communicate what is different that day in that person.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d68c1010-344d-43ed-a210-b5aa1760c224", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the NANDA-I taxonomy, it is correct to affirm that:", "Options": { "A": "All the diagnoses contained in the taxonomy are appropriate for all practicing nurses.", "B": "All the proposed diagnoses are relevant for all specialties.", "C": "There are diagnoses that may be outside the scope of exercise that governs the nurse practice of a specific area.", "D": "The use of the diagnoses contained in the classification supports their use over the regulations that may exist in a specific area.", "E": "The taxonomy must adjust to each reality, removing those diagnoses that are not usual and including those that do not appear in the classification and represent common problems." }, "Correct Answer": "There are diagnoses that may be outside the scope of exercise that governs the nurse practice of a specific area.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b9922c86-9b7b-41e7-9137-76450547a054", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is NOT a component of the evaluation stage of the Nursing Process:", "Options": { "A": "The collection of data related to the results.", "B": "The comparison of the data with the desired results.", "C": "The relationship of the nursing activities with the results.", "D": "The continuation, modification or termination of the care plan.", "E": "The election of pertinent results and determination of precise indicators." }, "Correct Answer": "The election of pertinent results and determination of precise indicators.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "55a7a573-290f-4573-bb72-96fad53e2f22", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "That the professions have an \"internal good\" that defines them, means that they have:", "Options": { "A": "A moral commitment and goals that have to be achieved through the fulfillment of certain principles and the observation of certain values.", "B": "A professional ethic intrinsic to that profession that defines it, endows it with meaning and justifies its existence and value.", "C": "To be developed by highly qualified professionals academically.", "D": "That be supported by laws and regulations issued by the top health officials.", "E": "The answers 1 and 2 are the correct ones." }, "Correct Answer": "The answers 1 and 2 are the correct ones.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3a9571a9-e7d0-4a87-8d98-eb9db46fe329", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The system of norms and sanctions that is established in a mandatory way for professionals based on professional ethics behaviors, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Professional bioethics", "B": "Practical ethics", "C": "Professional deontology.", "D": "Professional rights", "E": "Hierarchical moral code." }, "Correct Answer": "Professional deontology.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b3b67007-5892-41cc-bb56-3d4b74a06ca4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Code of Ethics, in their professional practice, the nurse / guarantor will guarantee and carry out a correct and adequate treatment for all the people who need it:", "Options": { "A": "Less in the assumptions of risks.", "B": "Regardless of your condition, age or circumstance.", "C": "Except in the case of patients legally declared dangerous.", "D": "But it can be exempted from its obligation only when dealing with infectious and contagious patients.", "E": "Except when the professional presents his objection in writing." }, "Correct Answer": "Regardless of your condition, age or circumstance.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "14ecc81b-f9ea-495f-94ed-885115d436a9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What name do the Codes that define the internal good of the nursing profession receive, according to which obligations and responsibilities are enunciated and professional excellence is promoted?", "Options": { "A": "Deontological.", "B": "Ethical", "C": "Bioethics", "D": "Practical", "E": "Of Care" }, "Correct Answer": "Ethical", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5f340f53-4c42-4058-a9e5-110729d856d2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the prevalence of bioethical principles, the principles of justice and nonmaleficence are framed in an ethics:", "Options": { "A": "Of maximums.", "B": "Of minimums.", "C": "Deontological", "D": "Pluralistic.", "E": "Of excellence" }, "Correct Answer": "Of minimums.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "fd045aaa-2f2b-4fd2-a26d-ecb22d8d3d12", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "As a health professional, you must have communicative qualities / abilities. Based on the following dialogue, identify what the nurse does: Patient - I do not know what they are going to do to me, I am afraid that something goes wrong in the operation. Nurse - Do not worry, calm down, you will see how everything will turn out well.", "Options": { "A": "It is receptive and encourages the communication of more concrete aspects.", "B": "It is giving false assurances, offers reassuring answers without reasonable basis.", "C": "The nurse uses the technique of pointing.", "D": "It is transmitting the nurse's own safety.", "E": "It is addressing the patient's anxiety." }, "Correct Answer": "It is giving false assurances, offers reassuring answers without reasonable basis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "04ed1531-dff9-456b-8c9f-819b6bffb97d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient goes to the nursing office because he wants to lose weight and says: \"I'm thinking about taking a diet and exercising, but now it does not work for me\". The professional responds: \"You are saying that you want to lose weight but now is not a good time. Tell me, what are you going to do? \"The nurse is using communication strategies as:", "Options": { "A": "The technique of paraphrasing and confrontation.", "B": "The technique of cognitive restructuring and dichotomous reasoning.", "C": "An aggressive and manipulative style of communication.", "D": "Feedback and systematic desensitization.", "E": "The summary and verification of assimilation." }, "Correct Answer": "The technique of paraphrasing and confrontation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3310c2f9-d675-46b2-bb0c-55436b988d27", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "To deal directly and effectively with stressful situations, you can use:", "Options": { "A": "Confrontation as a strategy centered on emotion.", "B": "The distancing as a strategy focused on the problem.", "C": "Strategies focused on the problem, such as social support.", "D": "The defensive mechanism of regression.", "E": "The self-incrimination." }, "Correct Answer": "Strategies focused on the problem, such as social support.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4a3834ec-2fd1-456e-b652-9dd9bef9b597", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The transactional or processual stress model of Lazarus and Folkman:", "Options": { "A": "It focuses on physiological reactions to any stressful stimulus.", "B": "Describes the general adaptation syndrome.", "C": "It establishes three stages: reaction, resistance and exhaustion.", "D": "It attaches great importance to the cognitive processes that mediate between the stressful stimulus and the stress response.", "E": "Describes the long-term negative effects of prolonged exposure to stress." }, "Correct Answer": "It attaches great importance to the cognitive processes that mediate between the stressful stimulus and the stress response.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "50feafdd-0721-4446-b2ec-0fb1d923585a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are signs and symptoms of severe anxiety:", "Options": { "A": "Tachycardia and nausea.", "B": "Decreased attention and tremors.", "C": "Vomiting and psychomotor agitation.", "D": "Insomnia and malaise", "E": "Distorted perception and inability to communicate." }, "Correct Answer": "Tachycardia and nausea.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "806b2eca-f2db-4f13-97d0-9ce7bafab32b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct statement about the relaxation technique:", "Options": { "A": "Visualization decreases the degree of relaxation.", "B": "The best relaxation is achieved when the person falls asleep.", "C": "You can practice relaxation, after continuous practice, in any position and place.", "D": "In deep breaths it is not advisable to hold the air for a few seconds.", "E": "If tingling appears, it indicates that the person is not relaxing well." }, "Correct Answer": "You can practice relaxation, after continuous practice, in any position and place.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d0f41b9d-495d-495e-a497-55318f4b9244", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following options does NOT correspond to the objectives of the pre-anesthetic medication:", "Options": { "A": "Reduce anxiety", "B": "Relieve preoperative pain.", "C": "Relieve postoperative pain", "D": "Facilitate the induction of anesthesia.", "E": "Reduce the anesthetic needs." }, "Correct Answer": "Relieve postoperative pain", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "96e17d27-ad98-4cd7-b723-6c184e5e3bc2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the wrong option in relation to the most frequent adverse reactions produced by the following drugs:", "Options": { "A": "Penicillins: permanent alteration of the coloring of the teeth.", "B": "Clindamycin: diarrhea.", "C": "Quinolones: headaches.", "D": "Aminoglycosides: ototoxicity.", "E": "Tetracyclines: photosensitivity." }, "Correct Answer": "Penicillins: permanent alteration of the coloring of the teeth.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2d44667b-962e-4d6a-9097-3c1a1c813b65", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct option:", "Options": { "A": "Long-acting bronchodilators should be used on demand.", "B": "Rapid-acting bronchodilators should be administered every 3-5 hours.", "C": "Bradycardia is an adverse effect that frequently appears after the administration of bronchodilators.", "D": "Glucocorticoids are used as a preventive treatment for seizures in asthmatic patients.", "E": "The answers 1 and 4 are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucocorticoids are used as a preventive treatment for seizures in asthmatic patients.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "288e8a49-ba26-481e-8f0a-c51a808ece18", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Vitamin K is the specific antagonist for:", "Options": { "A": "Oral anticoagulants", "B": "Insulin.", "C": "Paracetamol.", "D": "Heparin.", "E": "Opiates" }, "Correct Answer": "Oral anticoagulants", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "12799293-a350-44a6-bb3c-8abf088111e7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Proton pump inhibitor drugs are useful in the treatment of:", "Options": { "A": "Constipation.", "B": "Corneal ulcer.", "C": "Peptic ulcer.", "D": "Traveler's diarrhea.", "E": "Crohn's disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Peptic ulcer.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3eb65f79-2767-4599-8f39-c1edd5d155ec", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following drugs has antihypertensive action:", "Options": { "A": "Pancuronium", "B": "Nitroprusside sodium", "C": "Procainamide", "D": "Salbutamol", "E": "Clarithromycin" }, "Correct Answer": "Nitroprusside sodium", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e9dad926-7de0-4477-80c9-f5e0ae72e64a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to adrenaline it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "It produces uterine contractions.", "B": "It is used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock.", "C": "It is used together with ampicillin in situations of sepsis.", "D": "It is contraindicated in situations of cardiac arrest due to its effect.", "E": "Encapsulated is rapidly absorbed orally." }, "Correct Answer": "It is used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "73e2ba19-5657-46c7-8df8-19ab521f66c0", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In strict vegetarians, a lack of one of the following vitamins may appear:", "Options": { "A": "B12 vitamin.", "B": "Vitamin C.", "C": "Retinol", "D": "Folate", "E": "Niacin" }, "Correct Answer": "B12 vitamin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "714b4519-27d0-47b0-be1a-06d582f7c1da", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "With regard to the intermittent administration of enteral nutrition, point out the INCORRECT response:", "Options": { "A": "It can be administered in bolus.", "B": "The administration should last 15 to 20 minutes.", "C": "After the take, you have to wash the probe to remove debris.", "D": "It is always administered with a pump.", "E": "The total amount is divided into 4 or 5 daily doses." }, "Correct Answer": "It is always administered with a pump.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c7fe7cf8-9a57-4b4f-905f-b73114d01400", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Olive oil has the following nutrients in its composition, EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Cholesterol.", "B": "Oleic acid.", "C": "Antioxidants", "D": "Vitamin E.", "E": "Linoleic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Cholesterol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9d0c0b0a-0f4c-4f66-8255-81fe9c5637c3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is estimated with the measurement of skin folds?", "Options": { "A": "The total body mass.", "B": "The lean mass.", "C": "The body fat.", "D": "The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass.", "E": "The skeletal muscles." }, "Correct Answer": "The body fat.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5c8a7bf4-b054-46b1-9c57-abadf52af2d7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these foods should reduce a patient with high cholesterol from his diet?", "Options": { "A": "Cereals.", "B": "Vegetables.", "C": "Whole milk.", "D": "Olive oil.", "E": "Fish." }, "Correct Answer": "Whole milk.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "180e3eba-8ca4-41ad-bbdb-96712de51d88", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following nutrients requires more special attention and recommendation in later life?", "Options": { "A": "Selenium.", "B": "Calcium.", "C": "Essential amino acids.", "D": "Lipids", "E": "Fiber." }, "Correct Answer": "Calcium.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "40651463-10d4-4cbe-b61c-27dbf965e972", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Fatty fish, commonly called blue, are those that contain just over 10% fat. Which of the following is a lean fish and, therefore, with a lower fat intake?", "Options": { "A": "Sardine.", "B": "Eel.", "C": "Salmon.", "D": "Sole.", "E": "Mackerel." }, "Correct Answer": "Sole.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5868ea89-077d-4958-b32d-d82e4c7817a4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "To diagnose a situation of cardiorespiratory arrest, the correct sequence of assessment according to the recommendations of the Guide 2010 of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation consists of:", "Options": { "A": "Check unconsciousness, check signs of life or presence of pulse, check if you breathe and open the airway.", "B": "Check unconsciousness, alert, open the airway and check if it breathes.", "C": "Check pulse, alert, open the airway, check unconsciousness, check if you breathe.", "D": "Open the airway, check unconsciousness, check for pulse or signs of life (cough, movement) and check if you breathe.", "E": "Open the airway, alert, check if you breathe, check presence of pulse or signs of life and check unconsciousness." }, "Correct Answer": "Check unconsciousness, alert, open the airway and check if it breathes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "04c6f486-1c6f-4eeb-a53e-5f303f86bb28", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "People affected by chronic heart failure usually present the diagnosis of nursing Intolerance to activity related to:", "Options": { "A": "Fear, because it is a situation that poses a potential risk to life.", "B": "Imbalance between the supply and oxygen demand due to the decrease in myocardial contractility.", "C": "Excess fluid volume due to interruption of blood flow.", "D": "Poor knowledge about the disease and treatment with diuretics.", "E": "Infection due to decreased immune response." }, "Correct Answer": "Imbalance between the supply and oxygen demand due to the decrease in myocardial contractility.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "be03a5d8-e9c2-4916-a27b-a16b4de62fea", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In acute coronary syndrome with ST-segment elevation, heparin is used because:", "Options": { "A": "It is fibrinolytic, since it destroys the thrombus.", "B": "It inhibits the formation of more thrombi and prevents their recurrence.", "C": "It inhibits platelet aggregation.", "D": "Restores the patency of the coronary artery immediately.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "It inhibits the formation of more thrombi and prevents their recurrence.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1bc77702-9f43-42ad-8e8f-9aa6e97ee3a9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What self-care recommendations for discharge would you give to a patient with epistaxis?", "Options": { "A": "Sneeze with your mouth closed.", "B": "Perform deep breaths and instil saline into nostrils.", "C": "Blow your nose hard.", "D": "Avoid activities that involve physical effort.", "E": "Adopt the Fowler position." }, "Correct Answer": "Avoid activities that involve physical effort.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7493e0a0-c2d8-4ea8-ae20-8b0d631fe8b5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "J. L. is a patient who has to administer a drug by inhalation with a dispenser in the form of a pressurized cartridge. The recommendation that will give you for its correct administration will be:", "Options": { "A": "Place the inhaler 6 cm in front of the mouth.", "B": "Perform a slow and deep expiration before administration.", "C": "Hold the cartridge with your thumb up and your index finger down.", "D": "Start the inspiration after pressing the inhaler.", "E": "The mouth should not be rinsed after inhalation." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a slow and deep expiration before administration.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c38b2d74-b453-4540-ac74-4f00e6d38c22", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When administering oxygen therapy to a patient admitted to the emergency room due to exacerbated COPD, you should take into account that:", "Options": { "A": "The flow of oxygen must be high, since respiratory failure is accompanied by hypoxia.", "B": "The concentration of oxygen is conditioned by the patient's clinical situation.", "C": "The concentration of oxygen must be equal to the atmospheric concentration, since the patient presents hypercapnia.", "D": "The flow should be low, since hypoxia is the only stimulus to breathe.", "E": "The flow must be adjusted to achieve a PO2 greater than 90 mmHg." }, "Correct Answer": "The flow should be low, since hypoxia is the only stimulus to breathe.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0eb84d7c-f4d1-425e-a5a8-a50fe446ebe4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What action would you take if you notice that in the chamber of the hydraulic seal of a patient's chest drainage, the water rises on inspiration and descends on expiration?", "Options": { "A": "Observe possible system bids.", "B": "Check the pressure level of the suction gauge.", "C": "Milk the tubes for obstruction.", "D": "None, since it is a normal finding.", "E": "Check that the system is placed horizontally." }, "Correct Answer": "None, since it is a normal finding.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1cf03853-287a-4052-a6e2-5316d7c40dbc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When caring for a patient who has undergone a supraglottic laryngectomy, you should bear in mind that:", "Options": { "A": "He has lost the ability to speak by extirpation of the true vocal cords.", "B": "The tracheostomy they have performed will be permanent.", "C": "You have a risk of bronchoaspiration due to difficulty swallowing.", "D": "You may have constipation due to cervical dissection.", "E": "A portion of the larynx has been removed along with a vocal cord." }, "Correct Answer": "You have a risk of bronchoaspiration due to difficulty swallowing.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4fc1c6b2-a348-479e-94d9-6ed05df40e20", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The management of seizures in a patient, within the ictal phase, includes activities such as reassuring him, protecting him from injuries, administering the prescribed medication and maintaining a permeable airway, among others. But, in addition, it is fundamental:", "Options": { "A": "Introduce any object into the patient's mouth.", "B": "Put your fingers in your mouth to try to keep it open.", "C": "Do not waste time in the establishment of a venous line, because in no case will be necessary.", "D": "Do not force any object into your mouth.", "E": "Proceed with nasotracheal intubation, always and in all cases." }, "Correct Answer": "Do not force any object into your mouth.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b0a0933d-4dd0-4e11-8f23-1b04c1d48453", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system. The loss of muscular strength in the acute phase can imply an urgency, which in severe cases results in:", "Options": { "A": "Exclusive loss of muscle strength in the lower extremities.", "B": "Tetraplegia and respiratory failure that need to control the patient's circulatory status, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.", "C": "Psychomotor agitation that leads to sleep disorders.", "D": "Scarce affectation of costal and / or diaphragmatic muscles.", "E": "Alterations exclusively sensory." }, "Correct Answer": "Tetraplegia and respiratory failure that need to control the patient's circulatory status, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d529f6fd-3e8b-49b0-9829-71099d855c60", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When you assess a patient with a neurological problem, you check that he has a positive Kerning sign. This finding is related to:", "Options": { "A": "Meningeal irritation", "B": "Convulsive crisis.", "C": "Alteration of the I Cranial Pair.", "D": "Diplopia.", "E": "Cerebral stroke." }, "Correct Answer": "Meningeal irritation", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d899feef-ee47-4731-8b42-75bccb9d08ef", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is true?", "Options": { "A": "The disease begins with obvious manifestations that guide the doctor to formulate the definitive diagnosis.", "B": "The disease is a neurological disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia.", "C": "In the beginning, patients walk more and more slowly.", "D": "Flaccidity, associated with motor dysfunction, is bilateral.", "E": "In advanced stages, the patient presents lordosis." }, "Correct Answer": "The disease is a neurological disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c417383e-3fc8-4b08-9963-619a86fb5b38", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the main risk factor in the appearance of ischemic or hemorrhagic ICTUS?", "Options": { "A": "Cardiopathy", "B": "Mellitus diabetes.", "C": "Hyperlipidemia", "D": "Arterial hypertension.", "E": "Obesity." }, "Correct Answer": "Arterial hypertension.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d9924f8b-3223-4e72-b236-30b3291e7847", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The control of vital signs is fundamental in the assessment of the neurological patient. Many neurological disorders can present alterations of the respiratory pattern or frequency, indicating damage to the respiratory center or the nervous system. One of these abnormal breathing patterns, present in meningitis or cases of supratentorial injury, is Cheyne-Stokes respiration, characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Regular frequency and superficial character.", "B": "Absence of clearly observable breathing.", "C": "A series of breaths that increase in amplitude / intensity to a maximum point in which they begin to decrease, followed by an apnea pause.", "D": "Slow and regular breaths with a frequency less than 10 per minute.", "E": "It is an abnormal and sustained increase in both depth and respiratory rate." }, "Correct Answer": "A series of breaths that increase in amplitude / intensity to a maximum point in which they begin to decrease, followed by an apnea pause.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f0ca6ae7-2c49-4110-b149-7dc1259cff36", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following positions should a patient be placed to perform a gastroscopy?", "Options": { "A": "Right lateral decubitus.", "B": "Left lateral decubitus.", "C": "Supine decubitus", "D": "Trendelemburg.", "E": "Sims position." }, "Correct Answer": "Left lateral decubitus.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "869ac0fa-6eac-4c2b-9155-8bdde65b894e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. A. P. has been discharged after being operated on for a gastric resection. What recommendations should you give to avoid the rapid evacuation syndrome?", "Options": { "A": "Drink liquids during the meal.", "B": "Take a diet high in carbohydrates.", "C": "After ingestion, the decubitus position is the most beneficial if the patient tolerates it.", "D": "You should plan rest periods of 15 minutes after meals.", "E": "Take a diet low in protein and fat, to avoid abdominal distension." }, "Correct Answer": "After ingestion, the decubitus position is the most beneficial if the patient tolerates it.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a883f454-116b-45d4-8190-118d912662ab", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The diet of a person with intestinal diverticulosis should be:", "Options": { "A": "Hyperproteic.", "B": "Hypercaloric.", "C": "Hyposodic.", "D": "Rich in fiber.", "E": "Hypocaloric." }, "Correct Answer": "Rich in fiber.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "50976ca3-93b3-4623-8642-8595fb52ccf5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following clinical manifestations is predominant in a patient with acute pancreatitis?", "Options": { "A": "Abdomen rigid or on board.", "B": "Ecchymosis on the flank or around the navel.", "C": "Fever.", "D": "Jaundice.", "E": "Abdominal pain." }, "Correct Answer": "Abdominal pain.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "62407309-f56a-4fdb-88b5-c30fc2cabea5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about personal care after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is INCORRECT?", "Options": { "A": "Start light exercise (walking) one week after the intervention.", "B": "Shower or bathe after 1 or 2 days.", "C": "Return to sexual activity when desired.", "D": "If you had fat intolerance before the operation, gradually add fat to your usual diet in small increments.", "E": "Resume the normal diet." }, "Correct Answer": "Start light exercise (walking) one week after the intervention.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a5a49184-5f57-4338-9de3-4863613c8b07", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with dyspepsia will undergo a screening test for Helicobacter pylori. Before carrying out the test, the patient should know that:", "Options": { "A": "Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least one week before the test.", "B": "Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least two weeks before the test.", "C": "The use of antacids also modifies the results of the test.", "D": "The use of antibiotics does not modify the diagnostic tests for H. pylori.", "E": "Antibiotic treatments negativize the diagnostic tests for H. pylori, so these drugs should be avoided for one week before any diagnostic test." }, "Correct Answer": "Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least two weeks before the test.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6396c2b8-ec21-44aa-98a2-433aea7830fa", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In general, water intake should be increased in patients undergoing chemotherapy with the aim of:", "Options": { "A": "Prevent kidney damage.", "B": "Fluidify bronchial secretions.", "C": "Relieve post-chemotherapy nausea.", "D": "Increase the volume.", "E": "Decrease the risk of infection." }, "Correct Answer": "Prevent kidney damage.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cd90a9ba-e1d2-4fe9-a461-40576ef15bb6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following safety precautions used in the care of the patient receiving brachytherapy is NOT true:", "Options": { "A": "Single room.", "B": "Prohibition of visits of children.", "C": "Radiation meters for health personnel.", "D": "Reverse isolation.", "E": "Limitation of the time of the visits." }, "Correct Answer": "Reverse isolation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e870404d-1f0a-45cc-81ae-60b36aaad19e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following chemicals is considered the most lethal individual carcinogen?", "Options": { "A": "Alcohol.", "B": "Smoke of the tabacco.", "C": "Tar.", "D": "Benzene.", "E": "Nickel." }, "Correct Answer": "Smoke of the tabacco.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5100ee0c-c5e3-4c9d-be06-152bbddf0d13", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The gradation of a tumor refers to:", "Options": { "A": "Determine the extent of the disease by considering tumor size and spread.", "B": "Measure the abnormal cell growth with respect to the size, shape and disposition of the tumor.", "C": "Obtain a sample of tissue to analyze it under a microscope and detect malignant cells.", "D": "Identify the type of tissue that caused the tumor and the degree to which the tumor cells retain the characteristics of the tissue of origin.", "E": "Select specific therapies to destroy tumor cells by interfering with their cellular functions." }, "Correct Answer": "Identify the type of tissue that caused the tumor and the degree to which the tumor cells retain the characteristics of the tissue of origin.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7ac95b9c-267e-48bd-94b2-cc7c9f0f80bc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "You are informing P. T. of hair loss that will occur about the second or third week of beginning chemotherapy treatment. It suggests you start using the wig before hair loss in order to:", "Options": { "A": "Hide alopecia.", "B": "Decrease depersonalization.", "C": "Provide alternatives to the patient.", "D": "Prepare for the loss and facilitate adjustment.", "E": "Facilitate the choice of the color wig and similar style before alopecia." }, "Correct Answer": "Prepare for the loss and facilitate adjustment.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b57620e7-a822-4b54-b50f-fda66b033f73", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 55-year-old woman with adrenal insufficiency has been prescribed corticosteroid treatment. Which of the following instructions would you provide in relation to this treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Take the drug first thing in the morning.", "B": "Take the drug before bedtime.", "C": "Exclude foods rich in calcium and vitamin D from the diet.", "D": "Eat a diet low in calories and protein.", "E": "Monitor the decrease in blood pressure." }, "Correct Answer": "Take the drug first thing in the morning.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "252139f4-3f31-4ad0-9d4b-94640e8500bb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The nursing diagnosis \"Body image disorder\" can be presented by people with tegumentary changes and redistribution of fat deposits, associated with:", "Options": { "A": "Pregnancy.", "B": "Hyperaldosteronism.", "C": "Diabetes insipidus", "D": "Addison's disease", "E": "Cushing's syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Cushing's syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2ae952a2-0cb6-4805-bc1d-f6657c9fa494", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. P. L., 59, has type 2 diabetes and his Body Mass Index is 27. He asks you if you can have a glass of wine with meals. Your answer is:", "Options": { "A": "You should refrain from drinking alcoholic beverages because of the risk of developing ketoacidosis.", "B": "You can do it, but you must incorporate the calories of alcohol into the meal plan.", "C": "You can consume it before meals to reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia.", "D": "It should be avoided, because the consumption of alcohol even in moderate amounts increases coronary morbidity.", "E": "No answer is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "You can do it, but you must incorporate the calories of alcohol into the meal plan.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bf160b84-f023-4e42-8722-a40d6247e76b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following insulins is used for the basal dose in a diabetic patient?", "Options": { "A": "Lispro.", "B": "Aspart.", "C": "Metformin.", "D": "Glargine", "E": "Regular." }, "Correct Answer": "Glargine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "20ab29d9-626d-4e78-8119-89c92017e65c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A.C. is hospitalized for presenting a picture of thyrotoxicosis. Which of these measures would you carry out?", "Options": { "A": "Shelter the patient with blankets.", "B": "Provide hypocaloric diet.", "C": "Encourage aerobic exercise.", "D": "Control the frequency and characteristics of the pulse.", "E": "Administer stool softeners regularly." }, "Correct Answer": "Control the frequency and characteristics of the pulse.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3cbef6f2-7f7e-4b50-8d50-d6a47a12471a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Peritoneal dialysis is a depurative technique that is characterized because:", "Options": { "A": "It is necessary to always administer heparin through the peritoneal catheter.", "B": "It is indicated in patients with respiratory problems of a restrictive type.", "C": "Does not produce significant hemodynamic alterations.", "D": "Requires daily and nightly solution exchanges every four hours.", "E": "Water and toxic substances are eliminated by ultrafiltration." }, "Correct Answer": "Does not produce significant hemodynamic alterations.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "97467d89-d12c-45cd-8985-18e97a0491c2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "P. L. is a patient with frequent urinary infections. When explaining the possible causes of the same will comment that a risk factor is:", "Options": { "A": "The presence of urinary stones.", "B": "The intake of substances that acidify the urine.", "C": "The increase of leukocytes in urine.", "D": "The saturation of urine by calcium salts.", "E": "The emission of urine every 2 or 3 hours." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of urinary stones.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "73dfbf72-28cb-4c87-acb2-66ceb9642e8a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "To detect the occurrence of prerenal acute renal failure in a patient, the nurse should monitor the presence of:", "Options": { "A": "Signs of low cardiac output.", "B": "Hematuria", "C": "Urine cloudy and smelly.", "D": "Colic pain", "E": "Elevation of creatinine clearance." }, "Correct Answer": "Signs of low cardiac output.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e9bab08e-6c8f-4d8b-9ec8-3a23e557cf49", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with an internal arteriovenous fistula in the left arm will recommend:", "Options": { "A": "Put on a compressive bandage for protection.", "B": "Perform elbow flexion and extension exercises to activate their maturation.", "C": "Feel the fistula daily to check that it works.", "D": "Clean the surrounding skin with an antiseptic every day.", "E": "Lift weight with that hand to achieve vascular remodeling." }, "Correct Answer": "Feel the fistula daily to check that it works.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "17494863-7b04-4f20-a8e4-119e08becac8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient diagnosed with chronic renal failure has tingling and paresthesias in the legs. This is due to:", "Options": { "A": "Vascular alterations produced by hyperlipidemia.", "B": "Peripheral neuropathy associated with uremia.", "C": "Hyperphosphatemia secondary to renal osteodystrophy.", "D": "Decreased peripheral perfusion as a result of anemia.", "E": "Hypercalcemia produced by decreased glomerular filtration." }, "Correct Answer": "Peripheral neuropathy associated with uremia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d29906e5-ad3f-485a-a1e2-813f3a6c58fe", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A distension is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Soft tissue injury.", "B": "Forced movement of abrupt production.", "C": "Injury by stretching a muscle.", "D": "Injury of the joint capsule.", "E": "Interruption in the continuity of a bone." }, "Correct Answer": "Injury by stretching a muscle.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8cb99116-5925-4cd7-b0ef-2c8cb31eb4ed", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "For a patient with an acute episode of gout, the nurse should recommend:", "Options": { "A": "Avoid foods rich in fat and calories.", "B": "Apply ice packs to reduce joint pain.", "C": "Perform daily exercise.", "D": "Avoid the intake of foods rich in purines.", "E": "Periodically check the blood count and the white blood cell count." }, "Correct Answer": "Avoid the intake of foods rich in purines.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fac8a7fa-b154-45d7-976b-7cff127a7938", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "An adequate recommendation for a patient with a recent diagnosis of osteoporosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Perform isometric exercises.", "B": "Give up smoking.", "C": "Take a diet rich in fiber.", "D": "Limit physical activity", "E": "Avoid the ingestion of bisphosphonates." }, "Correct Answer": "Give up smoking.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b998c7bc-7233-4a62-a160-501cb8287ee2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During your working day in the Surgery Unit, you receive a patient surgically removed from the Post-Anesthetic Recovery Unit. When evaluating it, observe that it carries a Penrose drain. Which of the following statements about this type of drainage is correct?", "Options": { "A": "It is an active drainage that acts by gravity.", "B": "It must be connected to a closed circuit collection bag.", "C": "It works by aspiration.", "D": "It is a passive drainage whose mechanism of action is by capillarity.", "E": "It is placed in the bile ducts." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a passive drainage whose mechanism of action is by capillarity.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "144239ab-1878-4b94-8932-1790bbfa05c3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "For wound care and depending on their evolution, there is a wide variety of dressings on the market. From the following statements, point out the correct one:", "Options": { "A": "The gauzes always keep the wound in humid conditions.", "B": "The hydrogel dressing is used to maintain a dry wound.", "C": "Transparent films are used for infected wounds.", "D": "Hydrocolloid dressings are used in moist environment cures.", "E": "The foam dressing is used to maintain a dry wound environment." }, "Correct Answer": "Hydrocolloid dressings are used in moist environment cures.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d2244095-0e74-45bd-9aa7-845e7a675a89", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When you assess the nutritional status of the patient in the preoperative period, you should know that if he suffers from a deficit of Vitamin C, he may present in the postoperative period:", "Options": { "A": "Problems in the synthesis of prothrombin.", "B": "Tachycardia.", "C": "Leukopenia", "D": "Healing problems in the wound.", "E": "Alteration in the metabolism of carbohydrates." }, "Correct Answer": "Healing problems in the wound.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5f81db5c-e5c5-49e8-b3b7-756dc358d050", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "To measure the pulmonary wedge pressure (PEP) by means of a pulmonary artery catheter, it is advisable to take into account that:", "Options": { "A": "It is not necessary to inflate the ball.", "B": "The catheter should always be inserted with the balloon inflated, but at half the recommended volume.", "C": "The volume of balloon inflation is usually 1.5 ml of air.", "D": "The volume of inflation of the balloon is usually 3 ml of air.", "E": "You have to leave the balloon always inflated after making the determinations of PEP." }, "Correct Answer": "The volume of balloon inflation is usually 1.5 ml of air.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d10957a9-a7f0-42b9-9998-e3e2d5ee730a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Central Venous Pressure (PVC) monitoring is a procedure performed frequently by nurses in the Critical Care Unit. Indicate the correct option regarding the performance of this hemodynamic measurement:", "Options": { "A": "It is only possible to perform it using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in cmH2O.", "B": "It is only possible to carry it out by using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in mmHg.", "C": "It can only be done through the distal lumen of a pulmonary artery catheter.", "D": "It can be done by using electronic pressure transducers and pressure gauges with a water column.", "E": "It is a good reflection of the functioning of the left ventricle." }, "Correct Answer": "It can be done by using electronic pressure transducers and pressure gauges with a water column.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cb444c15-70c0-4aa3-93b3-2d2544366272", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient connected to invasive mechanical ventilation, when all movements are generated by the ventilator, supplying a certain volume with a constant flow during a preset time, without allowing the synchronization with spontaneous or additional respirations of the patient, we refer to:", "Options": { "A": "Assisted ventilation", "B": "Controlled mechanical ventilation.", "C": "Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation.", "D": "Spontaneous ventilation with continuous positive pressure.", "E": "Positive pressure at the end of expiration." }, "Correct Answer": "Controlled mechanical ventilation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e583a5c-58a0-4806-8144-71d2c9720cdd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 65-year-old man has advanced terminal cancer. What data would indicate that it is near the end of his life? Point out the best option:", "Options": { "A": "Abdominal distension.", "B": "Temperature of 38º C.", "C": "Urinary incontinence", "D": "Stertorous respiration.", "E": "Drowsiness." }, "Correct Answer": "Stertorous respiration.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e9e0ce8d-ac73-4a5c-a316-6159a07a6533", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "P. C. is a terminally ill patient with oral mucositis and pain, although he retains the ability to eat a solid diet. Which of the following actions would be indicated?", "Options": { "A": "Encourage him to suck pineapple chips.", "B": "Rinse the mouth with ¾ parts of 0.9% saline and ¼ part of oxygenated water.", "C": "Make gargles with nystatin alternating with chlorhexidine.", "D": "Administer viscous lidocaine 2% before meals.", "E": "Provide a tremix diet." }, "Correct Answer": "Administer viscous lidocaine 2% before meals.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6dbb0505-a5ca-4fb9-ad31-a2eebb78c168", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following pollutants, which has a greater affinity for hemoglobin producing alterations in brain, myocardial and muscular tissue?", "Options": { "A": "Carbon monoxide.", "B": "Carbon dioxide.", "C": "Nitric monoxide", "D": "Sulfur dioxide.", "E": "Ozone." }, "Correct Answer": "Carbon monoxide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c70bf7b3-6dab-4f41-90e0-167941c87783", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 18-year-old male with a dog bite wound on the lateral face of the right lower limb comes to a nursing consultation. The wound occurred 30 hours ago and affects the subcutaneous tissue, is shaped like a moon (about 5 cm long) and is deep. Considering that you have the complete childhood immunization schedule, what intervention would be indicated in relation to tetanus vaccination?", "Options": { "A": "It does not require any intervention.", "B": "Put a booster dose of the tetanus vaccine (dTe).", "C": "Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin (GGAT).", "D": "Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and booster dose of tetanus vaccine.", "E": "Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and reinitiate tetanus vaccination." }, "Correct Answer": "It does not require any intervention.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f269de4d-956c-4cd1-bbe0-86e92fb950fe", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The goal of \"Health for All in the Year 2000\" was proposed for the first time in:", "Options": { "A": "The International Compendium of Health Indicators (1999).", "B": "The Ottawa Charter (1986).", "C": "The Second Adelaide Conference on Health Promotion (1988).", "D": "The Declaration of Jakarta (1997).", "E": "The Alma-Ata Conference (1978)." }, "Correct Answer": "The Alma-Ata Conference (1978).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cf07b7eb-c5ae-48aa-a0d3-1084239e7b72", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the secondary prevention measure that has been shown to be effective in colon cancer:", "Options": { "A": "Facilitate the realization of fecal occult blood test every year or biennially and / or sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy every 5 years in people with high risk.", "B": "Encourage the consumption of milk and other dairy products, fish and fruits.", "C": "Avoid the consumption of cooked meat very made or in direct contact with the fire.", "D": "Avoid the consumption of tobacco and the ingestion of alcohol.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Facilitate the realization of fecal occult blood test every year or biennially and / or sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy every 5 years in people with high risk.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fd1e08d8-a638-4c17-a481-93a60ca67dca", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 32-year-old pregnant woman of 16 weeks, a habitual consumer of cocaine and heroin with a history of failure in outpatient detoxification, goes to the comprehensive care center for drug addicts. He has no family support and says he wants to stop using drugs, but he needs support to do so. Which resource would be indicated?", "Options": { "A": "Detoxification hospital unit.", "B": "Therapeutic communities", "C": "Day centers.", "D": "Re-entry floors.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Detoxification hospital unit.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b3d9f539-70f0-420c-8b0a-bc5154691cb5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 57-year-old woman with a history of HTA grade 1, controlled with a low-sodium diet, a BMI 23 and an ex-smoker, attended the nursing consultation. Data from the last analysis: Total cholesterol 225 mg / dl; LDL cholesterol: 123 mg / dl and glucose 129 mg / dl. Of the following recommendations, which would be indicated for the control of cardiovascular risk?", "Options": { "A": "Regular anaerobic exercise with a minimum duration of 30 minutes per session.", "B": "Hypocaloric diet of 1500 kcal.", "C": "Encourage coconut consumption due to its hypocholesterolemic effect.", "D": "Promote the consumption of natural sterols, as well as mono and polyunsaturated fats and dietary fiber.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Promote the consumption of natural sterols, as well as mono and polyunsaturated fats and dietary fiber.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "52a506e2-d8ec-4d55-aa96-1ee7d6482144", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The functional organizational structure formed by health and non-health professionals, who is responsible for health care in a comprehensive, shared and continuous manner in the basic health area, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Autonomic Health Service.", "B": "National system of health.", "C": "Clinic.", "D": "Primary Care Team.", "E": "Portfolio of Services." }, "Correct Answer": "Primary Care Team.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d03bd042-5f8e-453f-9f21-58d29da5495d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The probability that a person free of a disease develops it during a period of time, corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "Chance.", "B": "Prevalence", "C": "Specificity", "D": "Forecast.", "E": "Risk." }, "Correct Answer": "Risk.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a8bb9d5a-1de8-45d9-9e02-b26653043356", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the General Health Law 14/1986 of April 25, the territorial framework of Primary Health Care is:", "Options": { "A": "The Health District.", "B": "The Health Area.", "C": "The Basic Health Zone.", "D": "The First Level of Assistance.", "E": "The Primary Care Center." }, "Correct Answer": "The Basic Health Zone.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "194df24d-6c61-4f68-bf99-8d75714044da", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Berman et al., From the sanitary point of view, to the basic social group constituted by persons of feminine or masculine gender, young or adult, united by legal, friendship, related or not genetically and that others consider close friends, he calls you:", "Options": { "A": "Collective.", "B": "Informal system", "C": "Control group.", "D": "Citizenship.", "E": "Family." }, "Correct Answer": "Family.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0cb93cfd-d18d-41da-9fe7-a17fb815c8a5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The set of means and systems that facilitate the contact of the infectious agent with the recipient subject corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "Source of infection.", "B": "Habitat.", "C": "Transmission mechanism.", "D": "Biotope", "E": "Reservoir." }, "Correct Answer": "Transmission mechanism.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "12937396-8a19-4195-a5be-5f3ce704197f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Those avoidable inequalities, considered unfair in the access to health services between regions or between subgroups of population in the same country, corresponds to the term of:", "Options": { "A": "Social inequality in health.", "B": "Equity in health.", "C": "Social determinants.", "D": "Inequity in health.", "E": "Poverty." }, "Correct Answer": "Equity in health.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f7bbb1b2-5cbb-4acf-a377-347d580de6de", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a program whose objective is to train adolescents so that they can choose health-oriented behaviors and help parents to promote the healthy adaptation of their children, the target population will be formed by:", "Options": { "A": "Parents of adolescents of both sexes residing in the basic health area.", "B": "Adolescents of both sexes and their parents residing in the basic health area.", "C": "Parents, teachers and caregivers of adolescents living in the basic health area.", "D": "The friends and teenage friends of the basic health area.", "E": "Adolescents of both sexes who reside in the basic health area." }, "Correct Answer": "Adolescents of both sexes and their parents residing in the basic health area.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f4010b20-f0f4-45b7-8161-245106f68553", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the activities listed below, select the nursing care activity integrated in a primary care team:", "Options": { "A": "Indicate to a resident of Family and Community Nursing the usefulness of the questionnaires to establish the dependence of people aged 65 and over.", "B": "To know the prevalence of the functional capacity of the population of people aged 65 and over, residents of the basic health area.", "C": "Present the session \"Functional assessment in people of 65 years and over, in residents in the area of ​​health according to gender and residents in the health area\" to the team.", "D": "Determine the level of independence of F. P. and her husband, both 78 years of age, in visiting the couple's home.", "E": "To base the method used to determine the functional capacity of C. V. of 77 years of age, to a student of Nursing." }, "Correct Answer": "Determine the level of independence of F. P. and her husband, both 78 years of age, in visiting the couple's home.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6ad4108a-a74e-4942-91f2-5d658d34c4a4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In 1984, the process of healthcare reform began in Spain with the publication of:", "Options": { "A": "The General Law of Health.", "B": "The General Law of Social Security.", "C": "The Law of Cohesion and Quality of the National Health System.", "D": "The Royal Decree of Basic Health Structures.", "E": "The Royal Decree of National Health." }, "Correct Answer": "The Royal Decree of Basic Health Structures.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7892d9eb-1c15-4a83-adc2-47829ff6b5ba", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ms. M. D., 88 years old, is dependent for the activities of daily life. The nurse who visits her receives the following information: \"My daughter takes care of me all day, she washes me, dresses me and gives me food, she also looks for time to take me to the air. I do not understand how he can handle it, so he has his back. The poor thing does not even have time to go out with that boyfriend who has thrown out. \" The nurse verifies the information with her 47-year-old daughter, divorced and with three daughters between 16 and 22 years old. She says \"being exhausted of caring for her mother and very concerned about the growing involvement of her eldest daughter in the care of her grandmother and also frustrated because she does not know if all this will do any good. Sometimes it feels like being fed up, with no time at all or even to get bored. \" It seems that the main problem of the daughter of M. D. is:", "Options": { "A": "Tiredness of the role of the caregiver.", "B": "Risk of parental deterioration.", "C": "Deficit of recreational activities.", "D": "Risk of intolerance to activity.", "E": "Despair" }, "Correct Answer": "Tiredness of the role of the caregiver.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "90321168-77c0-402b-b857-00e4e82b8f22", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the specific objectives that have been developed in order to make a health education intervention, aimed at providing people 65 years and older with the incorporation of preventive activities for heat stroke in daily self-care, identify the one that is INCORRECTLY formulated:", "Options": { "A": "Teach people of 65 and older the signs and symptoms of heat stroke, during the first two sessions, of the total 10.", "B": "Select the relevant footwear-dress to use during the hot season in the place of residence, at the end of the 3rd session.", "C": "Enunciate the activities that are most done every day and that are influenced by excess heat, at the end of all sessions.", "D": "Point to a list of 15 foods, which facilitate body hydration, at the end of the 2nd session and with a maximum of 3 errors.", "E": "Argue each of the actions that must be done when a heat stroke occurs, one week after the end of the intervention." }, "Correct Answer": "Teach people of 65 and older the signs and symptoms of heat stroke, during the first two sessions, of the total 10.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "775ec68e-a9af-42bb-a3b6-9481ab28beb5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A procedure to identify health problems is through the agreement of people who have qualified information about the community. Two of the most frequently used techniques are:", "Options": { "A": "The questionnaire and the programs.", "B": "The techniques by indicators and by criteria.", "C": "The Delphi technique and the Nominal Group technique.", "D": "The questionnaire and the community forum.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The Delphi technique and the Nominal Group technique.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "13bbf81b-0b4c-42e9-b15b-47376259c0fe", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "While Mr. LK, 52, a native of a Central European country and resident in Spain for 4 months and 20 days, informs him of the integration difficulties in Spanish society that he has because those who \"speak Spanish do not do any effort to understand him and he speaks very little the Spanish language and, in addition, has a lot of language barriers to understand each other at work and make friends \", you are evaluating the functional health pattern:", "Options": { "A": "Adaptation - Tolerance to stress.", "B": "Cognitive - Perceptual.", "C": "Role - Relations.", "D": "Communication - Membership of Groups.", "E": "Perception - Health Management." }, "Correct Answer": "Role - Relations.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "00f00159-5b03-47f7-87a6-293e0f63b9da", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a basic health area, 10 cases of influenza were detected in the month of June. This form of presentation of the communicable disease is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Epidemic.", "B": "Hypoendemia", "C": "Mesoendemia", "D": "Sporadic", "E": "Pandemic." }, "Correct Answer": "Sporadic", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c7d547a6-d3d1-4589-b8f7-a3775009135c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Primary prevention:", "Options": { "A": "It consists of avoiding the appearance or diminishing the probability of suffering from a certain disease.", "B": "It deals with the diagnosis and early treatment of the disease.", "C": "It acts when the disease has already been established but trying to delay its course.", "D": "It is aimed at identifying patients at risk of suffering unnecessary, unethical and unnecessarily invasive interventions.", "E": "The correct answers are 2 and 3." }, "Correct Answer": "It consists of avoiding the appearance or diminishing the probability of suffering from a certain disease.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e3950a9e-f95d-4480-bc5c-42fdc540dfe7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "You are evaluating the site where 100 abandoned dogs are collected. Of the data coming from the observation they emphasize the situation of overcrowding of the animals, the environment full of dust and the state of excitation of the animals. While interviewing one of the workers, he informs her that he has been working for 6 years from 7:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m., feeding and drinking the animals and cleaning the living quarters where they live. He has never felt bad, believes that no dog is going to bite him and that he knows nothing of the precautions and cares that must be maintained while he works. With the data you have, determines that there is a situation of:", "Options": { "A": "Personal oversight", "B": "Infective role performance.", "C": "Provision to improve self-care.", "D": "Risk of infection", "E": "Risk of contamination." }, "Correct Answer": "Risk of infection", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6ade21c7-aa8a-44e6-b1c7-5658024587a6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Epidemiology allows early detection of changes in the incidence of a certain disease in the population. For this, the most correct thing is to use:", "Options": { "A": "The etiological investigation.", "B": "The description of the natural history of the disease.", "C": "Epidemiological surveillance.", "D": "The evaluation of the functioning of the services.", "E": "None of the previous answers is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Epidemiological surveillance.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b0752f74-3897-4602-b3f2-a3f4e46e7ca8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the World Health Organization, the action taken on individuals to change their behavior is called:", "Options": { "A": "Health Impact Evaluation.", "B": "Education for health.", "C": "Participatory intervention in Health.", "D": "Empowerment", "E": "Educational Transition in Health." }, "Correct Answer": "Education for health.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bdae0780-1e20-422c-88ce-2fc455e01d17", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The system that integrates the assistance and care provided by the family, neighbors or relatives without any contractual relationship and based on close personal relationships, corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "Social care.", "B": "Comprehensive care system.", "C": "Informal care system.", "D": "Geriatric care.", "E": "Social benefit" }, "Correct Answer": "Informal care system.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c12cda5f-20ee-4ff9-ae55-522aa7d9aca9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The primary prevention measures of sexually transmitted infections do NOT include:", "Options": { "A": "Perform anamnesis from age 12 to identify risky sexual behaviors and practices.", "B": "Encourage the correct and regular use of the male or female condom from the first sexual relationship.", "C": "Develop HBV vaccination campaigns in risk groups such as injecting drug users.", "D": "Performing frequent cytologies in sexually active women.", "E": "Redirect school sexual education programs towards a healthy and responsible sexuality." }, "Correct Answer": "Performing frequent cytologies in sexually active women.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5f16c4e0-f91c-4356-808e-8ac3bc8987c3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Is the implantation of the fertilized egg in a place other than the uterine endometrium called?", "Options": { "A": "Mola hidatiforme.", "B": "Septic abortion.", "C": "Previous placenta.", "D": "Ectopic pregnancy.", "E": "Abruptio placentae." }, "Correct Answer": "Ectopic pregnancy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9fffb635-bb5f-4860-bd10-da6163a9d9b3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Reva Rubin identifies maternal behavior after delivery in three stages:", "Options": { "A": "Acceptance, Support and Abandonment.", "B": "Acceptance, Denial and Encounter.", "C": "Denial, Affirmation and Dependency.", "D": "Affirmation, Affirmation and Support.", "E": "Coping, Dependence and Help." }, "Correct Answer": "Acceptance, Support and Abandonment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a2fc2c72-2270-48c9-8095-adbfa4f0d4b1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cardiac output (CG) increases between 40 and 50% during pregnancy. When does it return to normal values?", "Options": { "A": "One week before delivery", "B": "During labor", "C": "Seven to ten days after delivery.", "D": "At the end of the puerperium.", "E": "At the end of breastfeeding." }, "Correct Answer": "Seven to ten days after delivery.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "78736d13-36c9-4e37-8417-5aa5016e72eb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When assessing the position held by the baby suckling, which of the following signs indicate that the position and grip of the baby is NOT correct?", "Options": { "A": "The chin touches the chest.", "B": "The mouth is very open.", "C": "Everted lips", "D": "Nose very close to the chest.", "E": "More areola visible above the mouth." }, "Correct Answer": "Nose very close to the chest.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4e5eecd4-49f8-4341-90aa-588f828aa9a9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A fetal heartbeat is heard in a 32-week pregnant woman. What Leopold maneuver should be done to know where the fetal dorsum is located ?:", "Options": { "A": "The first.", "B": "The second.", "C": "Third.", "D": "The fourth.", "E": "The fifth." }, "Correct Answer": "The second.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "61c8ecc9-eba5-42ea-9d28-57478889cd55", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "After a normal low-level vaginal delivery, in a healthy woman with a healthy newborn, what is the best time to start breastfeeding?", "Options": { "A": "After birth, it is the moment of mother-child recognition.", "B": "After the first immediate care of the newborn of hygiene, identification and prevention, if this is stable.", "C": "After the birth and the end of the delivery care, because before the woman is unable to care for your child.", "D": "After the first two leaves of labor that require extreme surveillance of the woman because of the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.", "E": "After arriving at the plant, it coincides with the second period of reactivity of the baby and the best conditions for the woman to be able to interact with her child." }, "Correct Answer": "After birth, it is the moment of mother-child recognition.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f2e20d71-6326-4331-8f9b-fdb73a74ed40", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When assessing the most appropriate contraceptive method for a person, the following should be taken into account:", "Options": { "A": "The Pearl index that reflects the percentage of non-pregnancies of a contraceptive method in relation to the number of cycles of use of this method.", "B": "The acceptability of the method that is determined by the absence of collateral defects.", "C": "The innocuousness of the method that is determined by the absence of health risks that its use may entail.", "D": "The motivation or sociocultural conditions such as the level of education.", "E": "The reversibility or surgical possibilities of recovering fertility after using the method." }, "Correct Answer": "The innocuousness of the method that is determined by the absence of health risks that its use may entail.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5ec84160-3590-4fdc-b3b2-4327b732c5b8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What care should be planned when a woman reaches menopause?", "Options": { "A": "None, menopause is a normal period of the woman's reproductive cycle.", "B": "None, but it must be sent to gynecology so that hormone replacement therapy begins as soon as possible and does not suffer from climacteric symptoms.", "C": "You have to assess your general condition and plan preventive care for climacteric depression.", "D": "You have to plan prevention care for vasomotor symptoms, osteoporosis and obesity.", "E": "It is necessary to plan a detailed study of the hormonal levels that allow us to determine the medication and the most appropriate care for your hormonal deficit." }, "Correct Answer": "You have to plan prevention care for vasomotor symptoms, osteoporosis and obesity.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0262ce6a-7801-41bb-bd62-518bc483e07d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the following suggestions to the family about the school feeding for the prevention of obesity, indicate which is NOT recommended:", "Options": { "A": "Avoid chewing gum (chewing gum), even without sugar, because it is customary to have a full mouth between meals.", "B": "Increase the intake of fresh foods, vegetables and fruits.", "C": "Eat as a family, accompanied, at least some main meal of the 5 recommended daily.", "D": "Chop between meals to avoid being hungry at main meals. Enriched juices are recommended.", "E": "Try not to eat watching television, because distraction prevents enjoy the food and know what you eat." }, "Correct Answer": "Chop between meals to avoid being hungry at main meals. Enriched juices are recommended.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "476bae8b-10cd-4fab-a6fb-bf52db48147d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following alterations does NOT correspond to the clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes in children:", "Options": { "A": "Weight gain.", "B": "Polydipsia", "C": "Constipation.", "D": "Polyphagy", "E": "Sweating" }, "Correct Answer": "Weight gain.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c3a6f56f-5cf7-49eb-919e-a1fbf26c82d1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the FALSE response regarding bronchiolitis:", "Options": { "A": "It is clinically manifested by cough, nasal discharge and respiratory distress.", "B": "It is the most frequent disease of the lower respiratory tract in the first two years of life.", "C": "Prolonged breastfeeding can act as a protective factor.", "D": "The bacterial etiology produces more severe symptoms than the viral etiology.", "E": "General measures are required such as respiratory isolation, oxygen therapy, fluid therapy and humidification of the environment." }, "Correct Answer": "The bacterial etiology produces more severe symptoms than the viral etiology.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7caaa622-f5cd-41fa-bec6-07f01d28a511", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "After a normal term delivery it is observed that the baby has a heartbeat of 130 beats per minute, breathes with harmony and tranquility, has spontaneous movements, rosy color and good response to the stimulation of suction. What value will result in the completion of the Apgar Test?", "Options": { "A": "Apgar 7. Moderately depressed.", "B": "Apgar 8. Depressed.", "C": "Apgar 9. Satisfactory state.", "D": "Apgar 9. Moderately depressed.", "E": "Apgar 12. Satisfactory state." }, "Correct Answer": "Apgar 9. Satisfactory state.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "da9152a9-1ccf-4141-be6c-34a6ecfbaf1a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following options does NOT suppose a normal response of the child's motor development in its first year of life:", "Options": { "A": "By 3 months, he is able to hold his head when he is incorporated.", "B": "By 4 months, the trunk begins to straighten up although the balance is still immature.", "C": "By 8 months, he dominates the sitting position and frees his hands to hold objects while maintaining balance.", "D": "Towards 10 months, start some steps.", "E": "By 12 months, the act of running appears." }, "Correct Answer": "By 12 months, the act of running appears.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f1dd0b22-dbe1-438a-bdce-dfb57f812787", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The game is one of the strategies used by the nurse in caring for children aged 2 years. Point out which of the following is favorable to the understanding of the disease process and therapy:", "Options": { "A": "Ride", "B": "Variations of cu-cu or hiding place.", "C": "Body silhouettes to paint or dolls to point.", "D": "Consoles of electronic games.", "E": "Cell phone." }, "Correct Answer": "Body silhouettes to paint or dolls to point.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "448da034-4f2b-413e-8e82-23099b1b14d2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to vaccines, indicate the correct option:", "Options": { "A": "The immunization schedule should be suspended during the summer months.", "B": "The vaccination calendar is fixed and immovable.", "C": "The appropriate storage temperature is between 2 and 8C.", "D": "Influenza vaccine should only be given to people older than 14 years.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The appropriate storage temperature is between 2 and 8C.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7e61ab18-0942-4cd0-8b1d-12a17cbebd6e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding childhood pain:", "Options": { "A": "The \"face scale\" can be used after three years.", "B": "Preterm infants born between weeks 28 and 38 of gestation are unable to feel pain.", "C": "Acetylsalicylic acid is the pharmacological treatment of choice for treating pain in children under 1 year of age.", "D": "The \"NIPS scale\" is used to measure pain in adolescents.", "E": "Before 5 years, no scale is recommended to assess pain." }, "Correct Answer": "The \"face scale\" can be used after three years.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d9a5dbd0-48b9-4ea4-9f07-218c53c25fbf", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following clinical manifestations are NOT specific to dehydration in the infant:", "Options": { "A": "Weightloss.", "B": "Fontanelle sunk.", "C": "Dry mucous membranes", "D": "Hypotension", "E": "Bradycardia" }, "Correct Answer": "Bradycardia", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "77173966-d6ee-4379-9d63-5b1e539a0cad", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the scheme of the stages of Tanner's pubertal development, the stage or level 5 in women corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "Light bulge of the breast button and increase of the areolar size.", "B": "Growth of the breast, presence of light pubic hair and roundness of the hips.", "C": "Slight mammary protrusion and beginning of roundness of the hips.", "D": "Full development of the breast and triangle of full pubic hair as in adult women.", "E": "The beginning of the thelarchy." }, "Correct Answer": "Full development of the breast and triangle of full pubic hair as in adult women.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2b410220-dc68-4e9d-8762-8357d474eb40", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the draft Law on Dependency 2006, in Spain, it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "Dependency is understood as a state of permanent character.", "B": "Dependence is always linked to physical disability.", "C": "Dependence is classified into three grades: mild, medium and severe.", "D": "In all the degrees of dependency contemplated in the law, the permanent presence of a caregiver is required.", "E": "The \"need for help\" is defined as the indispensable and continuous support of another person throughout the day." }, "Correct Answer": "Dependency is understood as a state of permanent character.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3d0800ad-e32c-4e0b-a5e9-bc2cd6af41cb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the nursing consultation the Pfeiffer test is being applied to F. P. of 80 years. From this instrument it has been described that:", "Options": { "A": "Unlike other cognitive assessment scales, it only values ​​memory and orientation.", "B": "It is very sensitive to detect small changes in the evolution of cognitive deterioration.", "C": "The alteration of the test is sufficient to establish the diagnosis of dementia.", "D": "It is the most comprehensive and complete of all cognitive assessment scales.", "E": "It does not detect very mild cognitive impairments." }, "Correct Answer": "It does not detect very mild cognitive impairments.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5eb55ff2-f593-4a44-a6be-eaa6b582d8ca", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The 80-year-old family of F. G., who has very advanced dementia, wants to request legal incapacitation. It is known that legal incapacitation:", "Options": { "A": "It supposes the negation of the legal capacity of the person.", "B": "It aims to protect the person from potential abuse.", "C": "It limits the capacity to act and the legal capacity of the person.", "D": "It can be decreed by the doctor responsible for the patient.", "E": "It can not be requested by the patient's relatives." }, "Correct Answer": "It aims to protect the person from potential abuse.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a01f03c1-b87d-4a56-9803-0937bccf3425", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the elderly the total body water:", "Options": { "A": "It is half that in the adult.", "B": "It decreases fundamentally at the expense of the intravascular compartment.", "C": "It decreases mainly due to the reduction of extracellular fluid.", "D": "It decreases greatly as a result of the loss of muscle mass.", "E": "It represents 30% of body weight." }, "Correct Answer": "It decreases greatly as a result of the loss of muscle mass.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bb386d8c-79cc-4bed-a15c-2c2e6871021f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most frequent cause of irreversible blindness in people over 60 is:", "Options": { "A": "Macular degeneration", "B": "Open angle glaucoma.", "C": "Diabetic retinopathy", "D": "Acute glaucoma.", "E": "Retinal detachment." }, "Correct Answer": "Macular degeneration", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2a2b93ff-5eb4-481e-924d-8a768d014999", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "T. R. of 89 years, presents instability and has suffered a fall. Regarding falls in older people, it is correct that:", "Options": { "A": "Most falls are produced by performing dangerous activities.", "B": "The factors that most influence the risk of falls are the intrinsic factors influenced by the underlying diseases.", "C": "The factors that most influence the risk of falls are those related to the changes of aging.", "D": "It assumes a higher risk of falling down stairs than down stairs.", "E": "The factors that most influence the genesis of falls in fragile elderly are the extrinsic ones." }, "Correct Answer": "The factors that most influence the risk of falls are the intrinsic factors influenced by the underlying diseases.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "756b2138-7400-4bd2-8d3e-d9b61194bf15", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characterizes the physiological aging process of the musculoskeletal system?", "Options": { "A": "Synovial thinning.", "B": "Lumbar kyphosis more pronounced.", "C": "Breakage of the articular surfaces.", "D": "Shortening of muscular latency and relaxation periods.", "E": "Decrease in bone connective tissue." }, "Correct Answer": "Decrease in bone connective tissue.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "56b8a072-9ac0-4f27-b849-275d48f7efc7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the main cause of functional urinary incontinence in the elderly?", "Options": { "A": "Detrusor instability.", "B": "Obstruction due to fecalomas.", "C": "Laxity of the muscles of the pelvic floor.", "D": "Environmental barriers.", "E": "Urinary retention induced by medication." }, "Correct Answer": "Environmental barriers.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "efa498f6-8543-477b-a0fc-cf13e6e71d67", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following complications may present a geriatric patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and in treatment with Levodopa:", "Options": { "A": "Hypoglycemia", "B": "Urinary retention.", "C": "Postural hypotension.", "D": "Dehydration", "E": "Anorexy." }, "Correct Answer": "Postural hypotension.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "df7b076c-0209-40c3-8257-602868654730", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why is the presence of lentigo in older people?", "Options": { "A": "Cell dehydration", "B": "Small hemorrhages due to capillary fragility.", "C": "Hyperplasia of intraepidermal melanocytes.", "D": "Deficiency of collagen and elastin.", "E": "Lipofuscin deposits." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyperplasia of intraepidermal melanocytes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b9de04d4-6122-4f54-bd7e-0b34d9a78993", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "With which of the following parameters is the concept of frailty identified in older people?", "Options": { "A": "Lower physiological reserve.", "B": "Dependence.", "C": "Advanced age.", "D": "Polypharmacy", "E": "Inability." }, "Correct Answer": "Lower physiological reserve.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5cd5a34d-88a7-44b2-9e82-c79ceadf36c9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA):", "Options": { "A": "It is indicated for older people who live in the community but not for hospitalized patients.", "B": "It is validated specifically for older people.", "C": "It consists of anthropometric, biochemical and dietary items.", "D": "It is a reliable but complex nutritional screening tool.", "E": "It is formulated around 10 items exclusively referring to dietary and anthropometric parameters." }, "Correct Answer": "It is validated specifically for older people.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f58c46a3-7396-4088-83b0-85c6252ec63d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "J. C, 85 years old, has a history of osteoporosis. A potential complication is fragility fracture, highlighting that:", "Options": { "A": "A significant proportion of vertebral fractures are asymptomatic.", "B": "The Colles fracture is rare in people older than 65 years.", "C": "Fractures of the proximal third of the pertrochanteric femur are the less frequent fractures of the hip.", "D": "Half of the elderly who have a fall suffer a hip fracture.", "E": "The treatment of a proximal fracture of the femur will always be the prosthetic replacement." }, "Correct Answer": "A significant proportion of vertebral fractures are asymptomatic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ae342e43-ec1c-401b-912f-66fac1ecb4e7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder that consists of:", "Options": { "A": "An anxiety crisis or panic attacks that usually occur in an unexpected way.", "B": "An intense and persistent fear of performing public performances.", "C": "The presence of obsessions or compulsions of a recurring nature that cause great losses of time.", "D": "An acute mental disorder with a low socioeconomic and health burden.", "E": "The fear and avoidance of crowded places or situations from which it is difficult to escape." }, "Correct Answer": "The fear and avoidance of crowded places or situations from which it is difficult to escape.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2a79b536-ac5e-4f66-99a0-4d1000c985e2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The General Law of Health (Law 14/1986, of April 25) favored the psychiatric reform in Spain because:", "Options": { "A": "It gave a letter of nature to the model of the asylum.", "B": "Defined the biomedical model of assistance to the psychiatric patient.", "C": "Institutionalized the community structure formed by interdisciplinary teams.", "D": "Regulated the factors and elements of the quality of care.", "E": "He adopted a paternalistic model of protection for the mentally ill." }, "Correct Answer": "Institutionalized the community structure formed by interdisciplinary teams.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4e2c7360-bf91-47cd-bdd9-ef08c5876923", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia that:", "Options": { "A": "They include alterations in sensoperception.", "B": "They involve psychomotor hallucinations.", "C": "They represent a false belief based on a mistaken interpretation of reality by the patient.", "D": "They consist of an inability of the individual to adapt to social norms.", "E": "They are equated with illusions." }, "Correct Answer": "They represent a false belief based on a mistaken interpretation of reality by the patient.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8a5dfc4d-ef33-4e69-92f2-2273b842b3eb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the DSM-IV classification, bipolar disorder is included within mood disorders. Is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Syndrome that involves a set of symptoms such as sadness, guilt or loss of vital impulse.", "B": "Decrease in the ability to obtain pleasure, which leads the person to isolation and unproductivity.", "C": "Disorder characterized by the presence of episodes of euphoria or depression alternating with eutimia phase.", "D": "Alteration induced by substances that produce an expansive or irritable mood.", "E": "Affective state of a relatively autonomous and lasting character over time." }, "Correct Answer": "Disorder characterized by the presence of episodes of euphoria or depression alternating with eutimia phase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a2340b82-18c2-4169-92e6-2b3409bee64c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In disorders related to substance use, what is physical dependence?", "Options": { "A": "In a physical process of short duration.", "B": "In an intense sense of dissatisfaction for not being able to consume the substances.", "C": "In the action of consuming drugs producing a state of intoxication with psychoactive effect.", "D": "In a series of physical and psychic changes that take place after the administration of a substance.", "E": "In a state of physical adaptation manifested by intense physical disturbances when the administration of the drug is interrupted." }, "Correct Answer": "In a state of physical adaptation manifested by intense physical disturbances when the administration of the drug is interrupted.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "bb1e9e15-9901-4921-92e4-6353b97531c4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the competences to be developed by the mental health nurse within the multidisciplinary team is:", "Options": { "A": "Collaborate in the formulation of the medical diagnosis of the mental disorder.", "B": "Perform, exceptionally, research and innovation activities.", "C": "Promote, in the shortest possible time, the institutionalization of the patient.", "D": "Intervene in the promotion and prevention of mental health.", "E": "Practice an experiential nursing based on the observation of the signs and symptoms of mental illness." }, "Correct Answer": "Intervene in the promotion and prevention of mental health.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f7ea7cfe-20f8-477d-a884-70004ade67e8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hallucinations are clinical manifestations of schizophrenia that:", "Options": { "A": "They occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ involved.", "B": "They are included within the negative symptoms of the disease.", "C": "They are characterized by the aggrandizement of oneself in a non-realistic way.", "D": "They need to take into account the cultural context of the person.", "E": "They are associated with the Minor Neurological Symptoms (NMS)." }, "Correct Answer": "They occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ involved.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3a442e76-8615-40ac-8c59-9b7e3cd78b49", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The set of social mechanisms whose function is the transformation of specialized products in the form of health services for society, is called system:", "Options": { "A": "Sanitary.", "B": "Social.", "C": "Social insurance.", "D": "Liberal.", "E": "From the market" }, "Correct Answer": "Sanitary.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d5632e98-7698-468a-bddb-119fc3c8ec32", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The assistance model consisting in the systematic coordination of the attention given to specific groups of patients, during an episode of care, to reach the expected clinical results, trying to achieve the lowest cost and the improvement of the quality of care, is called :", "Options": { "A": "Case Management", "B": "Complex Care", "C": "Advanced Practice", "D": "Portfolio of Services.", "E": "Health Needs" }, "Correct Answer": "Case Management", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fc6934c3-c09c-4a32-8dd1-ebb191d543ec", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the field of management, the productive capacity of people that is manifested and measured by their performance, reflecting the knowledge, skills, attitudes and skills to perform an efficient and effective work, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Competition.", "B": "Leadership.", "C": "Competitiveness", "D": "Qualification", "E": "Motivation." }, "Correct Answer": "Competition.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8420477c-f2dc-4ed4-aeed-aeb2c5d56e1f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A fundamental breakthrough in management took place through the creation, by a Yale University team, of a classification system for hospitalization episodes, which were called:", "Options": { "A": "International Classification of Diseases (CIE).", "B": "Minimum Basic Data Set (CMDB).", "C": "Record of Medical and Surgical Times (RTMQ).", "D": "Group of Related Diagnostics (GDR).", "E": "Functional Surgical-Medical Structure (EFQM)." }, "Correct Answer": "Group of Related Diagnostics (GDR).", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9698b953-3211-4f1b-bedb-a8cca3a4f416", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The quality that is established to the extent that patients experience a cure or improvement in their health process and that is clinically verifiable is called \"quality\":", "Options": { "A": "Direct", "B": "Hint.", "C": "Crusade.", "D": "Perceived", "E": "Demonstrated" }, "Correct Answer": "Direct", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ea333708-74b0-49f1-aaa1-346faf1cd3db", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the recommendations of the 2010 Guide of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, when applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation maneuvers in an infant, the following should be done:", "Options": { "A": "Perform cardiac massage with both hands.", "B": "Achieve that the thorax descend between 5 and 8 cm in each compression.", "C": "Blow out as much air as possible when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation.", "D": "Maintain a cardiac massage frequency around 200 beats per minute.", "E": "Use a 15: 2 compression and ventilation ratio." }, "Correct Answer": "Use a 15: 2 compression and ventilation ratio.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b327ee96-562a-400f-8340-17a51db11db5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the Interaction Thinking School, the model developed by:", "Options": { "A": "Faye Abdellah", "B": "Callista Roy.", "C": "Dorothy Johnson.", "D": "Rosmarie Parse", "E": "Hildegard Peplau." }, "Correct Answer": "Hildegard Peplau.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "576ab477-23f8-4e26-9ad0-154c9c92e98f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about aging corresponds to the psychosocial approach known as Theory of Continuity?", "Options": { "A": "Well-being in old age depends on newly acquired roles.", "B": "Aging successfully is related to the number of activities that are carried out.", "C": "As you get older it is necessary to voluntarily abandon certain activities.", "D": "Aging in a healthy way implies not dissociating from social roles.", "E": "The level of activity in old age is a function of the person's life trajectory." }, "Correct Answer": "The level of activity in old age is a function of the person's life trajectory.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5bc5bb51-ea0a-4942-b882-069f30d5b0e1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The evaluation of a health program must consider:", "Options": { "A": "The need of the program.", "B": "The results achieved.", "C": "The performance of resources.", "D": "The fulfillment of the anticipated times.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All the previous answers are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1f151ea9-cafb-4eea-92c1-d43cfc06dc3b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During the puerperium, there is a uterus-vaginal discharge called \"lochia\" that varies throughout the process. How are they named?", "Options": { "A": "Red loquios, yellow loquios and white loquios.", "B": "Red loquios, loquios seosos and loquios blancos.", "C": "Loquios hematic, serous lochia and yellow lochia.", "D": "Red loquios, white loquios and hematic lochia.", "E": "Bloody lochia, watery lochia and white lochia." }, "Correct Answer": "Red loquios, loquios seosos and loquios blancos.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "981853c3-d1be-454e-9ea8-89904f06cae2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the rules of administration of Parenteral Nutrition, which is true:", "Options": { "A": "The route of administration of NP can be used to perform blood extractions.", "B": "The NP bag can be kept out of the refrigerator until it is administered.", "C": "The administration of other intravenous medications can be done through the same route as the NP.", "D": "The nutrient solution may be exposed to light.", "E": "The infusion will be done at a constant rate during the 24 hours." }, "Correct Answer": "The infusion will be done at a constant rate during the 24 hours.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "55f7bca6-388e-4599-a470-7738b546e6e5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The prodromal phase of a psychotic episode is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "A deviation from emotional, cognitive, behavioral or social functioning and the presence of nonspecific symptoms.", "B": "Being a critical period during which the person should be treated.", "C": "The appearance of the first psychotic episode.", "D": "Be comparable to what is called the duration of untreated psychosis.", "E": "The functional recovery of the patient, which causes that it can be incorporated into working life gradually." }, "Correct Answer": "A deviation from emotional, cognitive, behavioral or social functioning and the presence of nonspecific symptoms.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cf62809a-7a9e-4754-9f17-693195cf9cc1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the newborn, point out the correct statement:", "Options": { "A": "Premature immature is one whose birth weight varies between 2,000 and 2,500 gr. and has a gestational age of less than 37 weeks.", "B": "Newborn of low weight is the one that weighs at birth less than 2,500 gr. and his gestational age is between 37 and 42 weeks.", "C": "Newborn pseudotérmino is the one that weighs less than 2,500 gr. and her gestational age is greater than 37 weeks.", "D": "Premature babies are newborns weighing less than 2,500 gr.", "E": "Post-term newborn is the one with a gestational age greater than 40 weeks." }, "Correct Answer": "Newborn of low weight is the one that weighs at birth less than 2,500 gr. and his gestational age is between 37 and 42 weeks.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9df3d04c-fac3-4d9e-b3a9-363774e9ae19", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The document that sets out the principles of Bioethics regarding the autonomy of people, beneficence and justice, and sets the basic requirements of informed consent, the assessment of risks and benefits and the selection of subjects is:", "Options": { "A": "The Declaration of Helsinki of 1964.", "B": "The Belmont Report of 1978.", "C": "The principles of the Biomedical Ethics of 1979.", "D": "The Oviedo Convention of 1997.", "E": "The Code of Ethics." }, "Correct Answer": "The Belmont Report of 1978.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e546e3a-879d-4e3f-86cf-a4de066d20fe", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the name of the set of activities consisting of creating and maintaining an adequate environment in which individuals, working in groups, can carry out pre-established functions and objectives?", "Options": { "A": "Operationalize", "B": "Manage.", "C": "Objectify", "D": "To plan.", "E": "Assess." }, "Correct Answer": "Manage.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c90530a4-9aea-471a-ae17-77ff055f7dc2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the point of view of the metabolism of xenobiotics, what is the cause of the hepatotoxicity and the carcinogenic action of aflatoxins?", "Options": { "A": "Its hydrolysis releases aromatic amines.", "B": "Its metabolism of phase II generates a nitrenium cation, which is cytotoxic by reacting with DNA.", "C": "Its hepatic metabolism originates an epoxide, which forms a covalent bond with DNA guanine.", "D": "Your metabolism leads to a reactive species through a process of reductive bioactivation.", "E": "They facilitate the information of reactive oxygen species through a radical mechanism." }, "Correct Answer": "Its hepatic metabolism originates an epoxide, which forms a covalent bond with DNA guanine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a87ecf7c-9eaf-4740-9806-edf77add0268", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The infrared spectrum of procaine hydrochloride shows an intense band about 1700 cm-1. What information does this data provide about its structure?", "Options": { "A": "It has an aromatic ring.", "B": "It has a carbonyl group.", "C": "It is a tertiary amine.", "D": "It is an aromatic amine.", "E": "It is a salt." }, "Correct Answer": "It has a carbonyl group.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "525bb96b-1628-4096-9bb8-dbc4ede8f6eb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The eudismic index is a parameter with pharmacological interest that expresses the relationship between:", "Options": { "A": "Two diastereomer drugs.", "B": "Two bioisostero drugs.", "C": "Two enantiomers", "D": "A drug and a prodrug, structural analog.", "E": "Two structural modifications, one hydrophilic and one lipophilic, of a certain drug." }, "Correct Answer": "Two enantiomers", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "45055b76-5a05-45a3-8da2-430084b412ce", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The local anesthetic procaine is a drug designed by pharmacodynamics of the:", "Options": { "A": "Morphine.", "B": "Melatonin", "C": "Tetracycline", "D": "Cocaine.", "E": "Noradrenaline" }, "Correct Answer": "Cocaine.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aac653e5-cd15-4e04-978b-2f52168f58a9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethanesulfonate) is used together with cyclophosphamide in antitumor therapy because:", "Options": { "A": "They form a ternary complex with DNA that prevents replication.", "B": "Mesna inactivates a toxic metabolite that results from the activation of cyclophosphamide.", "C": "Both are DNA alkylating agents.", "D": "The oxidizing properties of mesna increase the cytotoxicity of cyclophosphamide.", "E": "Mesna inhibits cytochrome P-450 that oxidizes and degrades cyclophosphamide." }, "Correct Answer": "Mesna inactivates a toxic metabolite that results from the activation of cyclophosphamide.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6127a676-b1bc-444a-9f22-13dd8d9d9977", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following structural families of drugs act as neuroleptic agents?", "Options": { "A": "Benzothiazepines (diltiazem).", "B": "Butyrophenones (haloperidol).", "C": "Phenylpiperidines (pethidine).", "D": "Aryloxypropanolamines (atenolol).", "E": "1,4-dihydropyridines (nifedipine)." }, "Correct Answer": "Butyrophenones (haloperidol).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7c7276a4-a46c-483d-aac7-14685cfc7df6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following antitumor agents acts forming a covalent and irreversible complex with the thymidylate synthase and its cofactor, previous activation to the corresponding deoxynucleotide?", "Options": { "A": "Methotrexate", "B": "Bortezomib.", "C": "Cyclophosphamide", "D": "5-Fluorouracil.", "E": "Taxol." }, "Correct Answer": "5-Fluorouracil.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "82026867-bf27-45dd-bd58-5307393be755", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The antiulcer drug called omeprazole has in its structure:", "Options": { "A": "A benzimidazole heterocycle.", "B": "A thiol group.", "C": "A pyrazole heterocycle.", "D": "A dimethylamino group.", "E": "A thiozolic heterocycle." }, "Correct Answer": "A benzimidazole heterocycle.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d389eba4-0794-4a43-a4e0-51577d98afe3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Statins are used to reduce cholesterol levels and act as analogs of the transition state of an enzyme involved in its biosynthesis. What enzyme is it?", "Options": { "A": "14-Alpha-demethylase.", "B": "Hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMGCoA) reductase.", "C": "Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2).", "D": "Squalene epoxidase.", "E": "Aromatase" }, "Correct Answer": "Hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMGCoA) reductase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ddb6754c-32eb-41fe-9717-b3ab3f3a6a89", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ciprofloxacin is an example of an antibacterial quinolone. What substituent does it carry over the nitrogen in position 1?", "Options": { "A": "Cyclopropyl.", "B": "Acetyl.", "C": "Phenyl.", "D": "It is unsubstituted.", "E": "Hydroxyl" }, "Correct Answer": "Cyclopropyl.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7c00c807-e934-4622-a07d-805c158ea67e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The muscle relaxant suxetonium (succinylcholine), which was designed from decamethonium by substitution of two ethylene groups by two ester functions, susceptible to a hydrolytic metabolism, is a:", "Options": { "A": "Prodrug", "B": "Hard drug.", "C": "Apolar drug.", "D": "Chiral drug.", "E": "Soft drug" }, "Correct Answer": "Soft drug", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "50d72efe-fad0-4960-8410-a307c3c2c518", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indinavir is a selective inhibitor of HIV protease because:", "Options": { "A": "By hydrolysis, the active drug is generated.", "B": "Rents irreversibly the active center of the enzyme.", "C": "Its structure mimics the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme.", "D": "It is a suicide inhibitor.", "E": "Its symmetric structure interacts effectively with the active center of the enzyme." }, "Correct Answer": "Its structure mimics the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "78fe616f-550e-44b3-8036-4cd604c1f884", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The use of microorganisms to transform contaminants present in the environment into non-toxic products is called:", "Options": { "A": "Biodeterioration.", "B": "Bioremediation.", "C": "Bioleaching.", "D": "Bioconversion", "E": "Biosensor" }, "Correct Answer": "Bioremediation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "722ebea1-3ffd-482d-ac43-907b28eeaaf9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Transpeptidation is the step in the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan in which:", "Options": { "A": "The union of N-acetylmuramic acid with N-acetyl glucosamine occurs inside the bacterial cell.", "B": "The exit of the precursors from the cytoplasm to the outside takes place.", "C": "The binding of the precursor to the peptidoglycan occurs outside, by glycosidic bonds.", "D": "The binding, by means of interpeptide bridges, between peptidoglycan chains.", "E": "The autolisinas act forming pores in its structure." }, "Correct Answer": "The binding, by means of interpeptide bridges, between peptidoglycan chains.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "851ea775-7749-4828-85a1-1db099df70e4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the systematic examination of a pregnant woman at term (37 weeks of gestation), beta-hemolytic colonies are isolated from a vaginal smear, which are identified as Streptococcus agalactiae. What assessment would you make of this finding and what would be the most advisable therapeutic attitude to follow? ?", "Options": { "A": "It does not matter because it is part of the commensal microbiota of the vagina.", "B": "Birth by caesarean section is recommended.", "C": "The search for Streptococcus agalactiae in pregnant women is not indicated.", "D": "Immediate antibiotic treatment to the newborn.", "E": "Administer intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery to the pregnant woman." }, "Correct Answer": "Administer intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery to the pregnant woman.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ec969021-e7c8-4a90-834d-f9d91d45eae0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Quinolones are antibacterial compounds that target:", "Options": { "A": "The 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.", "B": "The plasma membrane.", "C": "The enzyme DNA polymerase.", "D": "The enzyme RNA polymerase.", "E": "The enzyme DNA gyrase." }, "Correct Answer": "The enzyme DNA gyrase.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fd83ef3f-9295-4620-bb93-43474aef81b0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 4-year-old boy with no history of vaccination against rabies is attacked spontaneously by a dog, causing numerous injuries to the neck and limbs that were unprotected. The animal flees and it is not possible to locate it. What is the initial attitude to follow with the patient to prevent a possible transmission of rabies?", "Options": { "A": "Administer specific antivirals against the rabies virus.", "B": "Administer the rabies vaccine.", "C": "Administer the vaccine plus anti-rabies immunoglobulin.", "D": "Administer anti-rabies immunoglobulin.", "E": "Administer the vaccine, more immunoglobulin, more antivirals." }, "Correct Answer": "Administer the vaccine plus anti-rabies immunoglobulin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cc1cae4a-84dd-4d69-b48e-94b40d4ae9df", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following staining techniques is important in the diagnosis of infections caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?", "Options": { "A": "The capsule staining.", "B": "Staining of metachromatic granules.", "C": "The acid-alcohol resistance stain.", "D": "Negative staining", "E": "The staining of endospores." }, "Correct Answer": "Staining of metachromatic granules.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1c46c35-1035-449b-8231-48023ad4b51f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The septic shock that can occur in the course of systemic infections due to Gram-negative bacteria is due to:", "Options": { "A": "Lipopolysaccharide.", "B": "Peptide-glucan.", "C": "Teicoic acids.", "D": "Flagellin", "E": "K. Antigen" }, "Correct Answer": "Lipopolysaccharide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "381f7840-f107-497b-b01f-ed155736441f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following vertebrate viruses does it require during its multiplication cycle of a polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity?", "Options": { "A": "Herpes simplex virus type 1.", "B": "Smallpox virus", "C": "Varicella-zoster virus.", "D": "Hepatitis B virus", "E": "Epstein-Barr virus." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepatitis B virus", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "812ad18e-3801-47a6-a999-7fc3a3718b81", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Clostridium perfringens can cause various infections, including:", "Options": { "A": "The anthrax.", "B": "Pseudomembranous colitis.", "C": "The gas gangrene.", "D": "Tetanus", "E": "The syndrome of scalded skin." }, "Correct Answer": "The gas gangrene.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "122859cd-add9-405d-9b0c-486c35c1a8fc", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The medium that is used to detect the production of acetoin (butylene glycol) from pyruvic acid in the fermentation of glucose is called:", "Options": { "A": "Kligler.", "B": "Methyl red.", "C": "Voges Proskauer.", "D": "ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-galactopyranoside)", "E": "Beta-glucuronidase." }, "Correct Answer": "Voges Proskauer.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fbc2b409-fc0e-4fa6-80d8-45c79dc607b5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the point of view of microbial growth, which of the following statements is true in relation to the term colony?", "Options": { "A": "It is a formation that is not visible macroscopically.", "B": "Corresponds to a single cell.", "C": "It derives from a single cell.", "D": "It is usually formed in liquid culture medium.", "E": "It is always formed by the aggregation of different microbial species." }, "Correct Answer": "It derives from a single cell.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "29388366-20e1-4eef-9dc3-6a57052e0a18", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Thermolabile (LT) and thermostable (ST) enterotoxins are responsible for diarrhea caused by some strains of:", "Options": { "A": "Salmonella enterica", "B": "Vibrio cholerae", "C": "Campylobacter jejuni.", "D": "Yersinia enterocolitica.", "E": "Escherichia coli" }, "Correct Answer": "Escherichia coli", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "22421483-b7ba-4c6b-97b6-0b81d46f8f59", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the bacterial growth in liquid medium not renewed, which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The generation time is a constant parameter.", "B": "The phase of exponential growth is perpetual.", "C": "There is a direct relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time.", "D": "There is an inverse relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time.", "E": "The generation time and the specific growth rate are not related." }, "Correct Answer": "There is an inverse relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1bcae49b-0dfc-4e73-8529-a52f70c91af9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about leishmaniasis in Spain is correct?", "Options": { "A": "It is eradicated.", "B": "It is anthroponotic.", "C": "It is associated with HIV.", "D": "It is transmitted by Lutzomyia.", "E": "It is exclusively visceral." }, "Correct Answer": "It is associated with HIV.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8c5719e9-d80e-4f70-8a32-a19003a9a4dc", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of Chagas disease?", "Options": { "A": "Amphotericin B.", "B": "Cotrimoxazole.", "C": "Ivermectin", "D": "Albendazole", "E": "Benznidazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Benznidazole", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "631df6b9-5215-443d-aeab-4a398f41edd9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following nematodes is a large intestine parasite?", "Options": { "A": "Trichuris trichiura.", "B": "Ancylostoma duodenale.", "C": "Trichinella spiralis.", "D": "Necator americanus.", "E": "Ascaris lumbricoides." }, "Correct Answer": "Trichuris trichiura.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8ce98bf0-a739-42f4-b550-4a1c195b4bf5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a larval stage in the biological cycle of trematodes:", "Options": { "A": "Procercoid", "B": "Plerocercoide.", "C": "Cercaria", "D": "Cisticerco", "E": "Cysticercoid" }, "Correct Answer": "Cercaria", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "73f16b17-4e08-4bca-b416-d683cb6f7f38", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is the etiological agent of cutaneous myiasis:", "Options": { "A": "Glossina palpalis.", "B": "Dermatobia hominis.", "C": "Simulimum damnosum.", "D": "Pulex irritans.", "E": "Tunga penetrans." }, "Correct Answer": "Dermatobia hominis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "956d7ac2-2dbd-4b5d-bf88-8054b2d5c6e5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With regard to pyrogens and biotechnological medicines, it is possible to say:", "Options": { "A": "They have no tendency to aggregate or form large units with high molecular weight.", "B": "Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their positive charge) can reduce endotoxin levels.", "C": "Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their negative charge) can reduce endotoxin levels.", "D": "Ion exchange chromatography procedures (regardless of their charge) can reduce endotoxin levels.", "E": "They are unstable under standard autoclaving conditions." }, "Correct Answer": "Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their negative charge) can reduce endotoxin levels.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b7c9d59e-c4f4-492d-bcef-5a5364f03c64", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to those known as solubility enhancers in biotechnological drugs we can say:", "Options": { "A": "Which are not necessary given the good solubility of the active ingredients.", "B": "Which are necessary given the low solubility of the excipients.", "C": "They are not necessary in proteins, especially in non-glycosylated ones.", "D": "The use of lysine or arginine is often resorted to as exalting agents.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "The use of lysine or arginine is often resorted to as exalting agents.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bac4614e-255e-4e24-880a-8041cbe787d2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following substances we will not find in a biotechnological medicine:", "Options": { "A": "Solubility solubility.", "B": "Adsorbing and aggregating agents.", "C": "Components of \"buffer\".", "D": "Preservatives and antioxidants.", "E": "Osmotic agents." }, "Correct Answer": "Adsorbing and aggregating agents.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8fa7ccc6-1f35-4097-8c40-24fc8ef7d582", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the equipment used for the mixing of powders are the rotary mixers, which are usually used when the powder:", "Options": { "A": "It has poor flow.", "B": "It flows freely.", "C": "It has an angle of repose> 90º.", "D": "It is high intensity.", "E": "It contains moisture." }, "Correct Answer": "It flows freely.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2c4923c2-d1e8-41df-b4fc-a212237afe3c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the stability of the drugs of a proteinaceous nature of biotechnological drugs, we can say:", "Options": { "A": "Which is strongly dependent on pH.", "B": "That is little affected by ionic strength.", "C": "That being generally so high does not usually give problems in the formulation.", "D": "That its maximum value occurs at the pH value of lower solubility.", "E": "That has a slight dependence on the temperature." }, "Correct Answer": "Which is strongly dependent on pH.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "81595e21-2124-4588-82d4-0e380b1ea181", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following tests aims to determine the loss of mass of the tablets by abrasion processes?", "Options": { "A": "Hardness.", "B": "Disintegration", "C": "Friability.", "D": "Dissolution.", "E": "Uniformity of mass." }, "Correct Answer": "Friability.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8e42fe2e-6a04-4052-9256-234edf1c6130", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When formulating tablets with active ingredients that are used at relatively low doses, it is necessary to add excipients whose primary function is to obtain a tablet of a reasonable size. What are these excipients called?", "Options": { "A": "Adsorbents", "B": "Binders", "C": "Disintegrators", "D": "Thinners", "E": "Lubricants" }, "Correct Answer": "Thinners", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "86ae5e14-36fd-4b60-bdcb-8778f8564b96", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The protection of a functional group, susceptible to hydrolysis, by the formation of a complex constitutes a procedure for stabilization of drugs in solution. Among the excipients used for this purpose are those that are made up of different glucose monomers with a cyclic arrangement and are called:", "Options": { "A": "Cyclodextrins.", "B": "Sorbitol", "C": "Citrates", "D": "Glucuronates", "E": "Propylene glycols" }, "Correct Answer": "Cyclodextrins.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "50db1d07-b282-4bcc-97c5-5fc591d56d08", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following excipients acts as a plasticizer in hard gelatine capsules?", "Options": { "A": "Jelly.", "B": "Titanium dioxide.", "C": "Glycerin.", "D": "Sodium bisulfite.", "E": "For methyl aminobenzoate." }, "Correct Answer": "Glycerin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4ab5a6e1-3b27-4a3b-9224-052387781538", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The limit of bacterial endotoxins established by the European Pharmacopoeia for water for injection is:", "Options": { "A": "0.25 IU / ml.", "B": "0.10 IU / ml.", "C": "0 IU / ml.", "D": "0.22 IU / ml.", "E": "0.15 IU / ml." }, "Correct Answer": "0.25 IU / ml.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7b66d078-2ea0-4c7b-b712-2ee06895a4a0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The method of choice for the sterilization of products stable to heat but sensitive to moisture is:", "Options": { "A": "Sterilization by dry heat.", "B": "Filtration.", "C": "UV radiation.", "D": "Autoclaved.", "E": "Sterilization by humid heat." }, "Correct Answer": "Sterilization by dry heat.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c811b872-df2c-42d4-9d73-7d317df6ab5d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cellulose acetate filter membranes are compatible with:", "Options": { "A": "Organic solvents.", "B": "Aqueous solutions", "C": "All solvents", "D": "Organic solvents, except nitrogen.", "E": "Nitrogen solvents." }, "Correct Answer": "Aqueous solutions", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a30f6fc3-6f6a-4170-ab6b-154b992ba3dc", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the compression process occurs:", "Options": { "A": "An aggregation of the powder to be compressed.", "B": "A decrease in porosity.", "C": "A decrease in interparticular contact.", "D": "An increase in porosity.", "E": "An unpacking of the particles." }, "Correct Answer": "A decrease in porosity.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bd032695-cb8e-40ee-81b9-43209b5e0783", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To proceed to the elaboration of suppositories by the method of discharge it is necessary to calculate the displacement factor that indicates:", "Options": { "A": "The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by one gram of excipient.", "B": "The volume of excipient that is displaced by 100 mL of drug.", "C": "The weight, in grams, of excipient that is displaced by 1mL of drug.", "D": "The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by 1 mL of excipient.", "E": "The weight, in grams, of excipient displaced by one gram of drug." }, "Correct Answer": "The weight, in grams, of excipient displaced by one gram of drug.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5fdd1721-1da0-44e4-91f2-7a950371370b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Counter Coulter® particle counter uses an electrolytic solution of:", "Options": { "A": "0.9% lithium chloride in water.", "B": "Ammonium thiocyanate in hydrophilic solvent.", "C": "15% lithium chloride in hydrophobic solvent.", "D": "0.9% sodium chloride in water.", "E": "0.9% sodium chloride in methanol." }, "Correct Answer": "0.9% sodium chloride in water.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ee04461d-c120-4e53-bc69-9afb58889ab9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following changes is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion?", "Options": { "A": "Gastric filling", "B": "Hyperglycemia", "C": "Hypernatremia", "D": "Pass from chyme to duodenum.", "E": "Hypoglycemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Hypoglycemia", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e19e7e47-b811-43c2-8f02-3477fa844c06", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following actions does insulin exert on liver tissue?", "Options": { "A": "It inhibits the uptake of glucose.", "B": "Activates lipolysis.", "C": "Inhibits the synthesis of fatty acids.", "D": "Activates glycogen synthesis.", "E": "Activates glycogenolysis." }, "Correct Answer": "Activates glycogen synthesis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d4a6ba3d-0e29-4e24-9833-cfb5f0b9ea87", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What proportion of insulin and C-peptide synthesize the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans?", "Options": { "A": "One molecule of insulin per C peptide", "B": "Two molecules of insulin for each peptide C.", "C": "One molecule of insulin for every two peptides C.", "D": "Peptide C is synthesized in C cells", "E": "There is a variable proportion between the synthesis of insulin and that of peptide C." }, "Correct Answer": "One molecule of insulin per C peptide", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c2b52304-a361-4abe-b4d2-aec9cfa466a7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following actions is NOT specific to prolactin?", "Options": { "A": "It favors the renal retention of water and salt.", "B": "It favors the corpus luteum.", "C": "Stimulates milk production", "D": "Stimulates the hypothalamic secretion of the gonadotrophin releasing hormone.", "E": "Participates in the control of spermatogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "Stimulates the hypothalamic secretion of the gonadotrophin releasing hormone.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "182a5cce-c583-46fb-9fce-78a76a50f9f4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements related to growth hormone is false?", "Options": { "A": "Its secretion is increased during sleep.", "B": "It is secreted by the adenohypophysis.", "C": "It is a cyclic peptide of 8 amino acids.", "D": "It is hyperglycemic.", "E": "Stimulates the production of somatomedins." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a cyclic peptide of 8 amino acids.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "48415575-0212-44e0-b31b-67b7b88b0e5a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following functions is not typical of the stomach?", "Options": { "A": "Food storage.", "B": "Protein digestion.", "C": "Secretion of intrinsic factor.", "D": "Secretion of hormones", "E": "Amylase secretion." }, "Correct Answer": "Amylase secretion.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "39a47c83-342a-4c0b-8975-a469c8134706", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Where are baroreceptors located that play a more important role in regulating blood pressure?", "Options": { "A": "Vessels of the medulla oblongata.", "B": "Coronary arteries", "C": "Vena cava", "D": "Carotid arteries.", "E": "Renal arteries" }, "Correct Answer": "Carotid arteries.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a7c09154-1255-4fae-8e8d-e69a17288481", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What element plays a physiological role in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux?", "Options": { "A": "Upper esophageal sphincter", "B": "Angle of His.", "C": "Hernia of Hiato.", "D": "Purkinje angle.", "E": "Pyloric sphincter" }, "Correct Answer": "Angle of His.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f39da93e-ef46-41a5-8757-61d8676e4a59", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following types of receptors is found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia of the vegetative nervous system?", "Options": { "A": "Nicotinics", "B": "Muscarinic", "C": "Beta1-adrenergic.", "D": "Alpha1-adrenergic.", "E": "Gabaérgicos." }, "Correct Answer": "Nicotinics", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "40880e28-16db-492c-944b-4d6302e5b529", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following structures are in direct contact with the oval window on each of its sides?", "Options": { "A": "The eardrum and the tympanic scale.", "B": "The stirrup and tympanic scale.", "C": "The hammer and the vestibular scale", "D": "The anvil and the tympanic scale.", "E": "The abutment and the vestibular scale." }, "Correct Answer": "The abutment and the vestibular scale.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "dd39a39a-6763-418b-bef4-d833ea662fd3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the alveolar air?", "Options": { "A": "Oxygen.", "B": "Carbon dioxide", "C": "Water vapor.", "D": "Carbon monoxide.", "E": "Nitrogen." }, "Correct Answer": "Nitrogen.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0182fdf5-8709-4caf-bde0-ba00291cbb15", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following layers must pass through the sperm to reach the egg during fertilization?", "Options": { "A": "Endometrial zone", "B": "Pellucid zone.", "C": "Striated area.", "D": "Sticky zone", "E": "Myometrial zone." }, "Correct Answer": "Pellucid zone.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ac8b5c1b-81e7-4b6b-a0b6-8d19f7231da0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following agents has a vasoconstrictor effect?", "Options": { "A": "Endothelin", "B": "Nitric oxide.", "C": "Nitrogen.", "D": "Blastoestimulin.", "E": "Glycine" }, "Correct Answer": "Endothelin", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a037548d-5f0f-43f1-aae8-3c418c10b912", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following hormones inhibits lipolysis:", "Options": { "A": "Growth hormone (HGH).", "B": "Insulin.", "C": "Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).", "D": "Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).", "E": "Glucagon." }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6773b542-89a7-4b2a-b53f-1be34a0a0fa2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The loss of 3 genes of the alpha chain of globin is the main cause of:", "Options": { "A": "Fetal drooping", "B": "Alpha-thalassemic trait.", "C": "Cooley's disease", "D": "Hemoglobin disease H.", "E": "Silent alpha-thalassemia." }, "Correct Answer": "Hemoglobin disease H.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a084b1b9-93b0-4d14-ba2c-03d3bc713a07", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 25-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with pale skin, fatigue and malaise. It has slightly decreased values ​​of mean corpuscular volume and hemoglobin, 70 μg / dl, 50 μg / dl ferritin, and a significant increase in the HbA2 fraction with normal HbF in hemoglobin electrophoresis. With these data it can be:", "Options": { "A": "Iron-deficiency anemia", "B": "Anemia of chronic processes.", "C": "Polycythemia Vera.", "D": "Beta Thalassemia Minor.", "E": "Chronic myeloid leukemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Beta Thalassemia Minor.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "892ac8b0-0652-4402-a26b-49ceebcbc4f2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following tests is more important for the diagnosis of acute leukemia?", "Options": { "A": "Karyotype", "B": "Medulogram", "C": "Hemogram", "D": "PET.", "E": "Lumbar puncture." }, "Correct Answer": "Medulogram", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2c74cc82-89da-49c1-bccd-0d773afd8d36", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 5-year-old child presents with a purpuric rash with petechiae, ecchymosis that appeared brutally along with epistaxis and gingivorrhagia. The data of the coagulation study were: Bleeding time (Duke)> 10 min; PLT 20,000 / mm3; null clot netraction; TP 13 sec (normal: 122 sec); APTT 61 sec (normal: 602 sec); TT 18 sec (normal: 182 sec); Fibrinogen 3.2 g / l (normal: 2-4 g / l); Positive platelet autoantibodies. With these data it can be:", "Options": { "A": "Hemophilia.", "B": "Werlhof disease.", "C": "Bernard Soulier syndrome.", "D": "Von Willebrand disease.", "E": "Thrombosis of Glanzmann." }, "Correct Answer": "Werlhof disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "887be1df-fdeb-4d66-ae3b-c9a6213da4bc", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What thrombophilia study would be of interest to a woman with repeat abortions?", "Options": { "A": "Determination of fibrinogen.", "B": "C-reactive protein.", "C": "PAI-1.", "D": "Lupus anticoagulant.", "E": "Reptile time." }, "Correct Answer": "Lupus anticoagulant.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "34294268-ab21-4f30-872b-ac0f6e7ddb18", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A woman attended a consultation with bruises, mucosal hemorrhages, marked thrombocytopenia (20,000 / mm3), with a normal coagulation study, no history of drug ingestion, and an increase in megakaryocytes in bone marrow without morphological abnormalities. What is the diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Primary immune thrombocytopenia.", "B": "Acute leukemia.", "C": "Hemophilia.", "D": "Trombasthenia of Glanzmann.", "E": "Purple of Schönlein-Henoch." }, "Correct Answer": "Primary immune thrombocytopenia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ca0c534f-aca7-4ac6-a70a-b6f6bda3ca3e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What would be the pathophysiological mechanism that would explain the jaundice that can be observed in choledocholithiasis?", "Options": { "A": "Increase in bilirubin production.", "B": "Defect in the uptake of bilirubin by the hepatocyte.", "C": "Disorder in bilirubin conjugation.", "D": "Defect in the elimination of bilirubin by the hepatocyte.", "E": "Disorder in the conduction of bilirubin to the duodenum." }, "Correct Answer": "Disorder in the conduction of bilirubin to the duodenum.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d632f122-f6c0-451c-a6f4-3abca4cb9be2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lesion at the level of the posterior roots of the spinal cord produces:", "Options": { "A": "Affectation of all forms of sensitivity in metameric and ipsilateral distribution.", "B": "Homolateral involvement of all forms of sensitivity below the point of injury.", "C": "Thermoanalgesia of metameric and bilateral distribution.", "D": "Thermoanalgesia below the lesion and contralateral.", "E": "Deep anesthesia below the lesion and contralateral." }, "Correct Answer": "Affectation of all forms of sensitivity in metameric and ipsilateral distribution.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "daf9c02c-092a-476d-b4fa-acf280d58ec0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the arrhythmia that most often triggers sudden death in a context of acute ischemic heart disease?", "Options": { "A": "Extrasist.", "B": "Ventricular tachycardia", "C": "Ventricular fibrillation.", "D": "Atrial fibrillation", "E": "Autrioventricular block." }, "Correct Answer": "Ventricular fibrillation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7d7e38c7-458e-4db2-8f22-ffb1250386d6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The valvulopathy that triggers an overload of volume in both the left atrium and ventricle is:", "Options": { "A": "Mitral stenosis.", "B": "Mitral insufficiency", "C": "Aortic stenosis.", "D": "Aortic insufficiency", "E": "Tricuspid insufficiency." }, "Correct Answer": "Mitral insufficiency", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "354f4478-a3ce-48ac-965b-7a9a489aa43e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hyponatremia is part of the clinical picture of:", "Options": { "A": "Addison's disease", "B": "Central diabetes insipidus.", "C": "Nephrogenic insipid diabetes.", "D": "Mellitus diabetes.", "E": "Febrile states." }, "Correct Answer": "Addison's disease", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7ac947d9-186b-4abe-9133-8b7dc6f029e4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The glomerulonephritis syndrome occurs with:", "Options": { "A": "Oliguria and hematuria.", "B": "Polyuria and dehydration.", "C": "Loss of sodium in the urine.", "D": "Thrombosis and infections.", "E": "Loss of glucose in the urine." }, "Correct Answer": "Oliguria and hematuria.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "95a6bbef-8755-42a9-8a06-f025b1e8db31", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pulmonary hypertension occurs as a consequence of:", "Options": { "A": "Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the upper respiratory tract.", "B": "Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the lower respiratory tract.", "C": "Bronchiectasis and pulmonary collapse.", "D": "Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the systemic circulation.", "E": "Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the pulmonary circulation." }, "Correct Answer": "Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the pulmonary circulation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4325cb2a-1798-4ec7-a278-5390c936625e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Tamoxifen:", "Options": { "A": "It is used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes.", "B": "It is an inhibitor of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.", "C": "It is a progesterone receptor agonist.", "D": "It is an estrogen receptor antagonist.", "E": "Decreases cellular sensitivity to insulin." }, "Correct Answer": "It is an estrogen receptor antagonist.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3f355745-ec0a-4950-b890-f09c1a7d5c46", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The -thalassemia can have its origin in:", "Options": { "A": "The deficit of ferroquetalase.", "B": "The deficit of HbA2.", "C": "The presence of HBH.", "D": "The presence of HbS.", "E": "The presence of methemoglobin." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of HBH.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8b5a81a1-8c06-4fa6-9d32-838985e8b784", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease:", "Options": { "A": "GLUT2 deficiency.", "B": "HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase).", "C": "Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase).", "D": "Basic amino acid transporter deficits.", "E": "Mucopolysaccharidosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Mucopolysaccharidosis", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "89f0199e-119a-4e08-8cda-2a9867b77f6e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following disorders will occur with jaundice:", "Options": { "A": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome.", "B": "Zellweger syndrome.", "C": "Hashimoto's thyroiditis.", "D": "Cushing's disease", "E": "Alcaptonuria." }, "Correct Answer": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c42a3543-4a48-4209-a064-2c7d2addbc79", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria:", "Options": { "A": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase.", "B": "21-hydroxylase.", "C": "ALA dehydratase.", "D": "Glucokinase.", "E": "Tyrosine hydroxylase." }, "Correct Answer": "ALA dehydratase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7f98db29-91d2-41f5-ab94-6607d9226017", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements of metamizol is FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "The relative risk of agranulocytosis is higher than with other NSAIDs.", "B": "The risk of producing aplastic anemia is low.", "C": "It presents a greater risk of producing gastric lesions than other NSAIDs.", "D": "They can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants.", "E": "If administered rapidly, intravenous can cause hypotension." }, "Correct Answer": "It presents a greater risk of producing gastric lesions than other NSAIDs.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "02e09ffb-ec2b-4fee-ab37-7962db0a8d78", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following medications is an anti CD20 monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?", "Options": { "A": "Alemtuzumab", "B": "Muromunab.", "C": "Abalizumab", "D": "Rituximab", "E": "Visilizumab." }, "Correct Answer": "Rituximab", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d321c80a-5cb8-4880-8f7f-e3f450f58c0e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following anti-infectives can produce increased CPK associated with muscle pain and rhabdomyolysis?", "Options": { "A": "Amikacin", "B": "Daptomycin", "C": "Vancomycin", "D": "Linezolid.", "E": "Aztreonam" }, "Correct Answer": "Daptomycin", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "33a0e3c3-0574-4896-ad2f-61ad378e39f2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following anti-infectives is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase that can lead to interactions with antidepressants that increase serotonin?", "Options": { "A": "Neomycin.", "B": "Teicoplanin", "C": "Linezolid.", "D": "Clindamycin", "E": "Meropenem." }, "Correct Answer": "Linezolid.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "442a1958-f88d-4b4d-b8ef-211603529959", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about colchicine is not true?", "Options": { "A": "Depolymerizes tubulin.", "B": "It can cause nausea and vomiting.", "C": "It is an uricosuric.", "D": "It is used in prophylaxis of recurrent attacks of gout.", "E": "It is an alkaloid." }, "Correct Answer": "It is an uricosuric.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "09082d55-5721-4c5e-8b85-58d1095eed66", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "As is known, estrogenic treatment can give rise to various adverse effects. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect due to this pharmacological action?", "Options": { "A": "Edema.", "B": "Breast pain", "C": "Ovarian cancer.", "D": "Sickness.", "E": "Headaches" }, "Correct Answer": "Ovarian cancer.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "35f14ce6-4a75-473a-b502-3b6cc371d742", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of osteoporosis acts by binding to the RANK ligand?", "Options": { "A": "Alendronate.", "B": "Denosumab.", "C": "Calcitonin", "D": "Raloxifene.", "E": "Teriparatida." }, "Correct Answer": "Denosumab.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3efb5542-831c-4c76-8d4e-8871ff69db7b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following antimalarials is the one of choice for the treatment of a patient diagnosed with severe and multidrug-resistant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum?", "Options": { "A": "Sodium stibogluconate.", "B": "Primaquine", "C": "Chloroquine", "D": "Artemisinin", "E": "Quinine." }, "Correct Answer": "Artemisinin", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bb566830-882f-4e5f-9f61-b63384460b65", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following monoclonal antibodies presents as one of its main indications the treatment of chronic lymphoid leukemia?", "Options": { "A": "Trastuzumab.", "B": "Bevacizumab.", "C": "Denosumab.", "D": "Cetuximab", "E": "Rituximab" }, "Correct Answer": "Rituximab", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "67f6f8d3-7dc6-482e-b8d9-396d0550a3a7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient suffers an infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following penicillins would be of your choice?", "Options": { "A": "Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid.", "B": "Cloxacillin", "C": "Penicillin V.", "D": "Piperacillin-tazobactam", "E": "Ampicillin" }, "Correct Answer": "Piperacillin-tazobactam", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c2bc7df6-1eff-4780-847f-57a2010f6ed4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Male, 68 years old, presented with muscle cramps, hypotension, fasciculations and bronchoconstriction. He has been using organophosphorus pesticides in the garden. He has not used a mask or gloves. What would be the drug of choice for its treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Carbidopa.", "B": "Acetylcholine", "C": "Nicotine.", "D": "Flumazenil", "E": "Pralidoxime" }, "Correct Answer": "Pralidoxime", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "27118ef3-7e1f-4bd7-8e45-65b985704414", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 63-year-old man, who has been receiving an antidepressant for 3 years. He comes to the emergency room due to an intense hypertensive crisis, with tachycardia and headache. The patient reports that the day before he was watching the football game in a bar, and that he has taken a sandwich of cheese and sausages, and over 3 glasses of beers. What antidepressant could it be?", "Options": { "A": "Tranylcypromine", "B": "Fluoxetine.", "C": "Venlafaxine", "D": "Imipramine", "E": "Duloxetine" }, "Correct Answer": "Tranylcypromine", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "537efa7d-db02-41ef-873d-18ff87a2be01", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which drug, of which they are related, produces mydriasis and cycloplegia:", "Options": { "A": "Bethanechol", "B": "Timolol", "C": "Tropicamide", "D": "Edrophonium.", "E": "Pralidoxime" }, "Correct Answer": "Tropicamide", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "791e7281-bf6b-4acb-8c3f-542f09b1690e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following effects is characteristic of morphine consumption:", "Options": { "A": "Mydriasis.", "B": "Eye flushed.", "C": "Excessive tearing.", "D": "Miosis", "E": "Increased intraocular pressure." }, "Correct Answer": "Miosis", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1248b4f6-45d0-46d9-95b4-b5b0cd99ce84", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following statements is false in relation to the pharmacological effects of growth hormone:", "Options": { "A": "Acts directly on adipocytes to increase lipogenesis.", "B": "Stimulates the longitudinal growth of the bones.", "C": "It has anti-insulin actions in the liver.", "D": "Increase muscle mass", "E": "Many effects of growth hormone are due to insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)." }, "Correct Answer": "Acts directly on adipocytes to increase lipogenesis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fd1842bd-2f6b-4c8f-b684-9aa4a3122c88", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Iron deficiency anemia is treated with oral or parenteral preparations:", "Options": { "A": "Only ferrous salts should be used orally.", "B": "Only ferric salts should be used orally.", "C": "Orally, the most appropriate form is the iron-dextran complex.", "D": "Orally, the treatment should last a maximum of fifteen days.", "E": "Only ferrous salts should be used parenterally." }, "Correct Answer": "Only ferrous salts should be used orally.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a00f4f77-70a9-4e64-8f10-db6847ce3ab6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acetylsalicylic acid is a compound whose pKa is 3.5. What percentage of a dose of this product can be absorbed in the stomach fasting (pH 1.5)?", "Options": { "A": "Less than 10%", "B": "Between 10% and 20%.", "C": "More than 90%", "D": "Between 20% and 40%.", "E": "50%" }, "Correct Answer": "More than 90%", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0aa2fd28-5792-4580-a694-26d106450c30", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking drugs:", "Options": { "A": "They cause hypotension in individuals with normal blood pressure.", "B": "They increase the atrio-ventricular conduction velocity.", "C": "They cause negative inotropism.", "D": "They provoke a positive chronotropic effect.", "E": "They increase the secretion of renin." }, "Correct Answer": "They cause negative inotropism.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f8720ae3-5a36-4337-a8ae-05d41e1bd139", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The access of drugs to the central Nervous System is conditioned by the existence of the blood-brain barrier (BHE) barrier:", "Options": { "A": "Increases its permeability in case of inflammation.", "B": "It is homogeneous throughout the encephalon.", "C": "It is traversed freely by fat-soluble drugs.", "D": "It is maximum in the chemoreceptor area of ​​the trigger.", "E": "Decreases its permeability in case of inflammation." }, "Correct Answer": "Increases its permeability in case of inflammation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b10e80d3-c0ad-4d5d-b055-824af487af67", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Woman, 63 years old, in treatment for bone cancer. He has intense pains so he uses morphine daily. Faced with complaints of constipation, it is proposed as a laxative of choice:", "Options": { "A": "Methylcellulose", "B": "Glycerin.", "C": "Loperamide.", "D": "Methylnaltrexone", "E": "Racecadotril." }, "Correct Answer": "Methylnaltrexone", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2a82bdbe-f0f9-4c6d-adbd-402a072c4c50", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to clopidogrel, it is false that:", "Options": { "A": "It is structurally related to thienopyridines.", "B": "It inhibits adenyl cyclase, and therefore increases cAMP levels.", "C": "It has a low index of myelotoxicity in relation to ticlopidine.", "D": "It has a longer action in relation to ticlopidine.", "E": "In case of surgical intervention, it is recommended to interrupt the treatment at least one week in advance." }, "Correct Answer": "It inhibits adenyl cyclase, and therefore increases cAMP levels.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "787a7a56-fee7-4632-adec-38652adb8a65", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the indicated indications, which of them is authorized for the ACEI?", "Options": { "A": "Angioedema", "B": "Pulmonary hypertension in neonates.", "C": "Diabetic nephropathy", "D": "Benign prostatic hyperplasia.", "E": "Narrow angle glaucoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Diabetic nephropathy", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6dfbd3d0-2dc0-419c-9a54-94ea3e20161f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In patients with digitalized congestive heart failure, when administering a diuretic, it must necessarily be:", "Options": { "A": "A loop diuretic or high ceiling.", "B": "A thiazide.", "C": "An osmotic diuretic.", "D": "A potassium-sparing diuretic.", "E": "A diuretic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor." }, "Correct Answer": "A potassium-sparing diuretic.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5850b8b8-aa28-4ce2-ad30-d39ae2c9236a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The sedation and drowsiness that mirtazapine produces are directly related to its interaction with the receptors:", "Options": { "A": "5-HT1.", "B": "Adrenergic 1 and 2.", "C": "Histaminergic H1.", "D": "GABA", "E": "Muscarinic cholinergic" }, "Correct Answer": "Histaminergic H1.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2116307d-e2e2-4d0f-9a9a-17548ff7ba32", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With regard to the alkaloids derived from ergoline:", "Options": { "A": "They can be obtained by fermentation of pure Claviceps purpurea cultures and derived from phenylalanine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid route (MVA).", "B": "They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route.", "C": "They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the route of mevalonic acid (MVA).", "D": "They can be obtained by rye infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route.", "E": "They can be obtained by wheat infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid (MVA) route." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the route of mevalonic acid (MVA).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dd143f44-f2ab-43db-85ee-de35b1a70535", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Vinblastine and vincristine are:", "Options": { "A": "Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antiarrhythmic activity.", "B": "Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, monomeric with arrhythmic activity.", "C": "Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antitumor activity.", "D": "Indolemonoterpenic, monomeric alkaloids with antitumor activity.", "E": "Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, dimeric and with antitumor activity." }, "Correct Answer": "Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antitumor activity.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4ed7a309-0f4b-4d91-ab22-f05a64dd90a1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An important factor to be taken into account in drugs with a high degree of binding to plasma albumin is the concentration of this protein. Indicate which of the following assumptions the concentration of plasma albumin is reduced:", "Options": { "A": "Hypothyroidism", "B": "Neurosis.", "C": "Psychosis.", "D": "Multiple myeloma.", "E": "Schizophrenia." }, "Correct Answer": "Multiple myeloma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "da521312-0c4c-45ec-b50d-3920d89542a7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the two-compartment model, the hybrid constant \"alpha\", which governs the decrease in the plasmatic levels of the drug in the rapid disposition phase, encompasses the processes of:", "Options": { "A": "Absorption and elimination.", "B": "Distribution-return and elimination.", "C": "Absorption and distribution-return.", "D": "Metabolism and excretion.", "E": "Distribution-return." }, "Correct Answer": "Distribution-return and elimination.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8dbeaf7f-cfac-4cb7-b5f3-6fe8df44d426", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term \"Absolute bioavailability\" refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The fraction or percentage of drug dose that after being administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unchanged access to the biophase compared to an intravenous preparation thereof.", "B": "The fraction or percentage of drug dose that after being administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unaltered access to the systemic circulation compared to a standard preparation thereof.", "C": "The fraction or percentage of drug dose that after being administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unaltered access to the systemic circulation compared to an intravenous preparation thereof.", "D": "That 100% of the dose of drug administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unaltered access to the general circulation.", "E": "The fraction or percentage of drug dose that after being administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unaltered access to the place of absorption in comparison with a standard preparation thereof." }, "Correct Answer": "The fraction or percentage of drug dose that after being administered in a certain pharmaceutical form has unaltered access to the systemic circulation compared to an intravenous preparation thereof.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "08940078-f9d7-4fd4-84fb-61f43186b609", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The third generation cephalosporins:", "Options": { "A": "Your representative is cefepima.", "B": "They should be avoided in Enterobacter infections.", "C": "They are not useful in meningitis secondary to pneumococcus.", "D": "They are of choice in meningitis due to Listeria.", "E": "They should never be associated with an aminoglycoside." }, "Correct Answer": "They should be avoided in Enterobacter infections.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ac1bb858-8adb-4792-a4e0-3880ee9ca5ff", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The formation of the complex called Aminophylline improves the solubility of one of the following drugs:", "Options": { "A": "Theophylline", "B": "Digoxin", "C": "Ampicillin", "D": "Thioridazine.", "E": "Ciclosporin" }, "Correct Answer": "Theophylline", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e9748a8c-ce3f-45ab-86d4-60964ee362aa", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the monocompartmental model, the shock dose for a drug that follows linear kinetics is administered in multiple doses orally and absorbed extraordinarily quickly; It can be calculated as:", "Options": { "A": "The ratio between the maintenance dose and the dosage interval.", "B": "The product of the maintenance dose by the rate constant of absorption.", "C": "The quotient between the dosing interval and the absorption rate constant.", "D": "The product of the maintenance dose by the accumulation factor.", "E": "The product of the dosing rate by the absorption rate constant." }, "Correct Answer": "The product of the maintenance dose by the accumulation factor.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b64721c0-cd2f-4181-a2ce-c2accd782899", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For bi-component drugs it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "The apparent volume of the distribution decreases with time from a maximum value to a value that becomes constant.", "B": "The apparent volume of distribution as a function of the area is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state of equilibrium.", "C": "The apparent volume of distribution is constant over time.", "D": "The so-called initial distribution volume is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in phase .", "E": "The apparent volume of distribution calculated by extrapolation is less than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state equilibrium." }, "Correct Answer": "The apparent volume of distribution as a function of the area is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state of equilibrium.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e4d9fc9-2eba-4248-adb6-07b8e4282b2c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has been proved that the dissolution speed of the solvate that is formed when the griseofulvin and the chloroform are associated, is:", "Options": { "A": "Less than the unsolvated form of the drug.", "B": "Limiting step of the disintegration of the tablets in which the drug is formulated.", "C": "Greater than the unsolvated form of the drug.", "D": "Limiting factor of the distribution of the drug to the aqueous sectors of the organism.", "E": "Same as the unsolvated form of the drug." }, "Correct Answer": "Greater than the unsolvated form of the drug.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "da74f00f-cf09-4ee1-bc4c-b5ed111e4ac1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct units of a zero order rate constant:", "Options": { "A": "mg-1.", "B": "h-1.", "C": "mg / h.", "D": "g X h / mL.", "E": "mL / h." }, "Correct Answer": "mg / h.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "aa827656-a12e-480e-9a6a-fe90d81bc103", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following hepatic biotransformation reactions of drugs are type II, except for:", "Options": { "A": "Glucuronidation.", "B": "Desamination", "C": "Methylation", "D": "Conjugation with glycine.", "E": "Acetylation" }, "Correct Answer": "Desamination", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "706847db-d9c1-4e38-9723-138fa0566ca6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about the steady-state infusion of a drug is true?", "Options": { "A": "The concentration reached in steady state of equilibrium depends exclusively on the clearance.", "B": "The time necessary to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the volume of distribution.", "C": "The concentration reached in a steady state depends exclusively on the elimination half-life.", "D": "The concentration achieved in the steady state equilibrium depends on the clearance and the infusion rate.", "E": "The time required to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the clearance." }, "Correct Answer": "The concentration achieved in the steady state equilibrium depends on the clearance and the infusion rate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "571f4c7b-4870-4f41-b2d4-3fdbeea68b6a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To estimate the plasma clearance of a drug (CLIR) that presents a linear kinetic behavior and is excreted significantly in the urine, in a patient with renal failure (RI), it is necessary to know:", "Options": { "A": "Clearance of creatinine in the uremic patient (CLcrIR) and in individuals with normal renal function (CLcrFRN).", "B": "The renal clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function (CLrFRN), CLcrIR and CLcrFRN.", "C": "The fraction of drug excreted in unaltered form in the urine (fr), the dose administered (D), CLrFRN, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN.", "D": "fr, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN and the plasma clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function", "E": "fr, CLrFRN, CLcrIR, CLcrFRN and D." }, "Correct Answer": "fr, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN and the plasma clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3a8069f5-6e89-4a64-9bb9-79a5b7d9e1b9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What would be the coefficient of hepatic extraction of a drug and its hepatic clearance if it is known that in a situation of equilibrium the concentration in arterial blood, from the entrance to the liver is 8 g / mL and that of venous blood, from discharge to the same organ, is 4 g / mL? Consider a hepatic flow of 90 L / h:", "Options": { "A": "4.0 and 360 L / h.", "B": "0.5 and 45 L / h.", "C": "1.0 and 90 L / h.", "D": "0.25 and 20 L / h.", "E": "2.0 and 180 L / h." }, "Correct Answer": "0.5 and 45 L / h.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "48980b5c-673f-4219-850f-147910ab76d3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Grapefruit juice is:", "Options": { "A": "A potent enzyme inducer of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4).", "B": "A potent enzyme inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4).", "C": "A promoter of the absorption of drugs administered orally.", "D": "An advisable food to increase the bioavailability of drugs of acidic nature.", "E": "A food without consequence in the kinetics of disposal of drugs eliminated by metabolism in which cytochrome P450 is involved." }, "Correct Answer": "A potent enzyme inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2ee88048-b442-4a8a-af3e-4a670ad486e7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hepatic clearance of a drug, mainly eliminated by metabolism, which has a high degree of hepatic extraction and a high binding to plasma proteins:", "Options": { "A": "It is significantly influenced by the hepatic blood flow.", "B": "It is significantly influenced by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding.", "C": "It is significantly influenced both by hepatic blood flow and by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding.", "D": "It will not be influenced by the hepatic blood flow or by changes in the degree of binding to plasma proteins.", "E": "It will depend on the absolute bioavailability of the drug." }, "Correct Answer": "It is significantly influenced by the hepatic blood flow.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b404a55a-e380-47e5-a116-b064c1e6bd66", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following compounds is a fibrous protein:", "Options": { "A": "Chymotrypsin", "B": "Cytochrome c.", "C": "Alpha-keratin", "D": "Lysozyme", "E": "Ribonuclease." }, "Correct Answer": "Alpha-keratin", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7a159f61-16ea-43c5-9b1f-959d1a1cd484", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Thiamine pyrophosphate (PPT) is not coenzyme of:", "Options": { "A": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase (synthesis of acetyl CoA).", "B": "Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (citric acid cycle).", "C": "Transketolase (pentose phosphate pathway).", "D": "Transaldolase (pentose phosphate route).", "E": "Pyruvate decarboxylase (ethanolic fermentation)." }, "Correct Answer": "Transaldolase (pentose phosphate route).", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9ec69f79-4966-4498-b68a-7c2e9c84ecf6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Relating components of human milk and immune system, it is FALSE that:", "Options": { "A": "Lactoferrin protects against infections due to its ability to bind iron.", "B": "The casein peptides have antimicrobial and immunostimulant activity.", "C": "Cytokines modulate the immune system in childhood.", "D": "Complex oligosaccharides can be false receptors for bacteria in the intestine.", "E": "Lysozyme degrades the cell walls of gram-negative organisms." }, "Correct Answer": "Lysozyme degrades the cell walls of gram-negative organisms.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "92b2b20a-0843-4005-90e3-c02302c4228f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which enzyme uses FAD as a coenzyme?", "Options": { "A": "Isocitrate dehydrogenase.", "B": "Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "C": "Succinate dehydrogenase.", "D": "Malate dehydrogenase.", "E": "Lactate dehydrogenase." }, "Correct Answer": "Succinate dehydrogenase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e7f5bae2-ee57-425e-a857-074bb2b49a25", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the consumption of dietary fiber, it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "It must be balanced (25% soluble and 75% insoluble, approximately).", "B": "The higher the consumption of fiber, the lower the water intake.", "C": "The products made with refined seeds have a high fiber content.", "D": "Legumes are a poor source of fiber.", "E": "In the adult, 10-15 g of fiber are recommended daily." }, "Correct Answer": "It must be balanced (25% soluble and 75% insoluble, approximately).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4bc36595-9dc7-4879-897c-59ac5d212528", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a heteropolysaccharide:", "Options": { "A": "Hyaluronan", "B": "Cellulose.", "C": "Chitin", "D": "Dextran", "E": "Glycogen" }, "Correct Answer": "Hyaluronan", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ebf64024-8846-4652-8a4f-99ff312fa9e0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The interaction between the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle is carried out at the level of:", "Options": { "A": "Uric acid.", "B": "Succinate", "C": "Ammonia.", "D": "Urea.", "E": "Fumarate" }, "Correct Answer": "Fumarate", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "76c2ba5a-0c4c-4321-bec6-8a37107cabd5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Inhibitors of hydroxymethyl-glutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA reductase), such as statins:", "Options": { "A": "They increase intracellular cholesterol synthesis.", "B": "They cause a decrease in the number of LDL receptors present on the surface of hepatocytes.", "C": "They decrease the intracellular synthesis of triacylglycerides.", "D": "They diminish intracellular cholesterol synthesis and induce the expression of LDL receptors.", "E": "They increase the synthesis of steroid hormones." }, "Correct Answer": "They diminish intracellular cholesterol synthesis and induce the expression of LDL receptors.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aa8a93ae-631d-4965-95c1-51e77ad69745", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH):", "Options": { "A": "It catalyzes the reversible transformation of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA and vice versa.", "B": "It catalyzes the irreversible carboxylation of pyruvate into citrate, and with it, its entry into the citric acid cycle.", "C": "It connects the degradation of carbohydrates, with the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and its entry into the citric acid cycle.", "D": "It allows the use of acetyl-CoA derived from the degradation of fatty acids for the synthesis of glucose.", "E": "It is activated in the presence of high concentrations of acetyl-CoA and NADH + H +." }, "Correct Answer": "It connects the degradation of carbohydrates, with the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and its entry into the citric acid cycle.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2acbdf32-d1ba-4743-9261-3eb84b9ada4e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Aspirin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of:", "Options": { "A": "Sterols", "B": "Prostaglandins", "C": "Phosphoacylglycerides.", "D": "Arachidonic acid.", "E": "Glycerophospholipids." }, "Correct Answer": "Prostaglandins", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8ac3358d-1d86-49fe-8384-948d2cfa0964", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In response to an increase in the concentration of adrenaline and circulating glucagon:", "Options": { "A": "It activates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and the degradation of glycogen.", "B": "It increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP, and therefore, the synthesis of glycogen.", "C": "It decreases the intracellular concentration of cAMP and the degradation of glycogen.", "D": "The phosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen synthesis is activated.", "E": "Increases the intracellular concentration of ATP and glycogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "It activates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and the degradation of glycogen.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "41e88195-fe1d-440a-8c73-5ff71f3e5131", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following metabolites is a gluconeogenic substrate:", "Options": { "A": "Ethanol.", "B": "Oleic acid.", "C": "Acetyl-CoA.", "D": "NADPH + H +.", "E": "Glycerol." }, "Correct Answer": "Glycerol.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b1b8c476-e8b8-427e-abe1-51dd49877034", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A carnitine deficiency is associated with:", "Options": { "A": "The inhibition of the mitochondrial respiratory chain.", "B": "The inhibition of protein catabolism.", "C": "An increase in renal protein catabolism.", "D": "A failure in the entry of muscle fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidation.", "E": "A decrease in hepatic lipogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "A failure in the entry of muscle fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bdcc1ce4-9df7-4cd4-870f-63d02ff91a2e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The binding of O2 to hemoglobin:", "Options": { "A": "Follow a hyperbolic kinetics.", "B": "It favors the transition from Fe2 + to Fe3 + in the heme group of the protein.", "C": "Induces the deprotonation of the protein.", "D": "It is facilitated in the presence of 2,3bisphosphoglycerate.", "E": "It is carried out through a covalent interaction with Fe3 +." }, "Correct Answer": "Induces the deprotonation of the protein.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "720f9534-9762-4aa8-821c-18933373725b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The toxic effect of antimycin and cyanide is due to its interaction with:", "Options": { "A": "The systems of transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria.", "B": "The cytochromes of the mitochondrial electronic transport chain.", "C": "The enzymes of glycolysis.", "D": "The dehydrogenase enzymes of the citric acid cycle.", "E": "The enzymes that catalyze the replication of DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "The cytochromes of the mitochondrial electronic transport chain.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3d8adc6c-a3e1-43c8-87c9-fc276d6d1d64", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A coenzyme is:", "Options": { "A": "A molecule of an organic nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme.", "B": "The inorganic part of an enzyme.", "C": "A molecule of a protein nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme.", "D": "Any molecule of a non-vitamin nature that contributes to increase the activity of an enzyme.", "E": "An allosteric effect that modifies the spatial configuration of enzymes." }, "Correct Answer": "A molecule of an organic nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d4527c3f-3718-46ba-84ca-e4089a272a0b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To analyze the binding sites of proteins to DNA, the technique of:", "Options": { "A": "Western blot.", "B": "Immunoprecipitation of chromatin.", "C": "Matrix-assisted laser desorption (MALDI).", "D": "Fingerprint.", "E": "Denaturing gel electrophoresis." }, "Correct Answer": "Immunoprecipitation of chromatin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e0a68490-5c1f-486d-9bfc-66335edf51cb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The sequencing of an oligosaccharide is done by:", "Options": { "A": "Degradation Edman.", "B": "Chromatography Whatman.", "C": "Patch-Clamp.", "D": "Mass spectrometry.", "E": "Capillary electrophoresis." }, "Correct Answer": "Mass spectrometry.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "57c1bad5-5597-420f-ac93-305231a951e3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What would happen if the DNA carried OH in carbon 2 'of the pentose?", "Options": { "A": "That instead of thymine should carry uracil.", "B": "That would be more sensitive to hydrolysis.", "C": "That instead of in the nucleus it would be in the cytoplasm.", "D": "That it could not form double helices.", "E": "That would give a higher absorbance value at 260 mm." }, "Correct Answer": "That would be more sensitive to hydrolysis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9acdd971-212b-4b68-a22b-dda4209f5828", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the PCNA or nuclear cell proliferation antigen?", "Options": { "A": "It is a protein that prevents the double helix from forming in the replication bubble.", "B": "It is a protein that increases the ability to replicate long fragments of eukaryotic DNA polymerase.", "C": "It is the protein responsible for the elimination of positive superhelices.", "D": "It is the typical conformation of the DNA double helix in eukaryotes.", "E": "It is the enzyme responsible for copying the DNA of the telomeres." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a protein that increases the ability to replicate long fragments of eukaryotic DNA polymerase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "282c94be-2d82-4420-9552-d6665ec41234", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following situations would noticeably decrease the transcription of a gene?", "Options": { "A": "The presence of a repressor and an inducing molecule.", "B": "The binding of RNA polymerase to DNA.", "C": "The presence of a repressor and a correpressor molecule.", "D": "The presence of an activator and its signal molecule.", "E": "The presence of a mutated repressor that could not bind to DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of a repressor and a correpressor molecule.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e164f587-84fc-4b3d-8578-8494beaafc2c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How is the correction of an erroneous amino acid incorporated in the process of translation in the ribosome carried out?", "Options": { "A": "There is no possibility of elimination of an amino acid in the synthesis of proteins.", "B": "Through the aminoacyl peptidase activity of the ribosome.", "C": "A dipeptidase removes the wrong amino acid, before proceeding with the synthesis.", "D": "Thanks to the fact that amino acids are energy-rich molecules.", "E": "There is a post-translational sequence review system." }, "Correct Answer": "There is no possibility of elimination of an amino acid in the synthesis of proteins.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fac2eb9c-7200-431c-b690-4727978b7363", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The acetylation of the stories affects the transcription:", "Options": { "A": "Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery.", "B": "Preventing the remodeling of chromatin.", "C": "Facilitating the action of helicases.", "D": "Decreasing the sensitivity of nuclear receptors.", "E": "Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5b01d625-e16a-43f5-9d02-ba026dcd6ede", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "During DNA replication:", "Options": { "A": "The two strands are synthesized continuously.", "B": "Ribozymes intervene.", "C": "The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates are oxidized.", "D": "A primasa intervenes.", "E": "The two strands remain joined by hydrogen bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "A primasa intervenes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9383f30e-dcb6-4c43-ad56-f203b610d2ee", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The unwinding and supercoiling of DNA are controlled by the:", "Options": { "A": "Helicasas", "B": "Topoisomerases", "C": "DNA ligases.", "D": "Telomerases", "E": "DNA polymerase" }, "Correct Answer": "Topoisomerases", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "783a55b0-9231-42b7-b424-84020a1d6296", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The antibiotic tetracycline:", "Options": { "A": "It binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA.", "B": "Inhibits the peptidyltransferase activity of the 50S ribosomal subunit.", "C": "It binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits translocation.", "D": "It inhibits the initiation and originates an erroneous reading of the mRNA.", "E": "It causes premature termination by acting as an analog of the aminoacyl-tRNA." }, "Correct Answer": "It binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "08556b69-ee79-46ef-bb86-a8d6bd47d2ba", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The 2-microglobulin:", "Options": { "A": "It is a low molecular weight immunoglobulin.", "B": "It is found in high concentration in platelets.", "C": "It filters freely through the glomerulus and is secreted by the tubule.", "D": "It is absent in urine.", "E": "It is found on the surface of all nucleated cells." }, "Correct Answer": "It is found on the surface of all nucleated cells.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "bbd9a9aa-24fd-4088-9345-f2ca600570f6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The diagnostic sensitivity of an analytical magnitude for a certain disease is:", "Options": { "A": "1 / specificity.", "B": "It depends on the prevalence of the disease.", "C": "It is the number of patients that give positive results among all possible individuals.", "D": "It is the quotient between the number of patients who give positive results for this magnitude and the total number of patients considered.", "E": "It is deducted directly from the minimum detectable value of this magnitude." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the quotient between the number of patients who give positive results for this magnitude and the total number of patients considered.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f3c34a48-2a1b-4bc8-a414-379a13790eef", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a plasma protein electrophoresis pattern, in what region will haptoglobin migrate?", "Options": { "A": "In the region 1.", "B": "In the region .", "C": "In the region 2.", "D": "In the region 1 2.", "E": "In no position that it is not a protein." }, "Correct Answer": "In the region 2.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3853e775-904e-4868-b34e-561f905057fb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hemolysis in a serum sample interferes with the determination of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) due to:", "Options": { "A": "The release of adenylate cyclase (catalyst enzyme of the reaction).", "B": "The interference produced by hemoglobin.", "C": "The high concentration of said enzyme in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes.", "D": "Hemolysis does not interfere in the determination of LDH.", "E": "The amount of lactate that is produced." }, "Correct Answer": "The high concentration of said enzyme in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8b162a05-0acd-4a9c-8154-19fbe2db9599", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A dyslipidemia with phenotype IIa of Fredrickson may have its origin in mutations in the gene of:", "Options": { "A": "The LDL receptor.", "B": "Lipoprotein lipase (LPL).", "C": "The Apo CII.", "D": "The Apo A-II.", "E": "The Apo B-48." }, "Correct Answer": "The LDL receptor.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c2893ac5-2bb7-4947-981d-eceb068cce92", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes due to increased levels of bilirubin) may be of cholestatic origin (pathway obstruction) or hepatocellular damage. Indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "In cholestatic jaundice we observed: persistent alanine aminotransferase (ALT) increase without elevation of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT).", "B": "In hepatocellular jaundice there is a slight increase in GGT (<5 times the upper limit of reference) and a large increase in ALT (> 10 times the upper limit of reference).", "C": "In cholestatic jaundice, a decrease in direct bilirubin and prothrombin time is observed.", "D": "In hepatocellular jaundice, a decrease in alkaline phosphatase and activated partial thromboplastin time is observed.", "E": "In both jaundices we can observe a clear decrease in aspartate aminotransferase (AST)." }, "Correct Answer": "In hepatocellular jaundice there is a slight increase in GGT (<5 times the upper limit of reference) and a large increase in ALT (> 10 times the upper limit of reference).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b75b37d0-4e50-4405-b708-ab6b0c35a61a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determination of fecal occult blood is useful when there is a suspicion of:", "Options": { "A": "Anemia due to iron deficiency.", "B": "Biliary cholestasis.", "C": "Helicobacter pylori infection.", "D": "Colon carcinoma", "E": "Celiac Disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Colon carcinoma", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "df2afb47-4719-4c61-9451-e5029debb055", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 58-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. The most indicated treatment would be:", "Options": { "A": "Interferon.", "B": "Hydroxyurea", "C": "Imatinib.", "D": "Rituximab", "E": "Busulfan." }, "Correct Answer": "Imatinib.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "023905d8-7254-4206-a076-6907bd25cf52", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When in a laboratory report we observed that the patient presents an increase in the concentration of transferrin with a decrease in its saturation, we can think of:", "Options": { "A": "Pernicious anemia.", "B": "Sickle-cell anaemia.", "C": "Thalassemia major.", "D": "Hereditary spherocytosis.", "E": "Anemia due to iron deficiency." }, "Correct Answer": "Anemia due to iron deficiency.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "071424be-e99f-4ee6-8b1d-d05a4d9669d6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Base peak in a mass spectrum is called a:", "Options": { "A": "The largest or most intense peak.", "B": "The heaviest pair peak.", "C": "The lightest isotopic peak.", "D": "The peak that corresponds to its nominal mass.", "E": "The odd peak heavier." }, "Correct Answer": "The largest or most intense peak.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3c6cd88d-670d-4fd9-8ef8-2c4d7e466d84", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In ion exchange chromatography, the carboxylic acid functional group is used as:", "Options": { "A": "As a strong anion exchanger in ion exchange resins.", "B": "As a strong cation exchanger in ion exchange resins.", "C": "As a weak anion exchanger in ion exchange resins.", "D": "As a weak cation exchanger in ion exchange resins.", "E": "It is never used in ion exchange." }, "Correct Answer": "As a weak cation exchanger in ion exchange resins.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ba686911-3c71-4211-8d9f-2ea35646325c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a flight time analyzer in mass spectrometry:", "Options": { "A": "Ions with low m / z or lighter values ​​arrive more quickly at the detector.", "B": "Ions with high m / z or heavier values ​​arrive more quickly at the detector.", "C": "The ions do not reach the detector.", "D": "Ions with odd m / z ratio arrive more quickly at the detector.", "E": "The analysis time that is usually required is seconds." }, "Correct Answer": "Ions with low m / z or lighter values ​​arrive more quickly at the detector.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7ccb3ce9-bf87-4c88-84b7-448d02fe9cc3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alkaline error in the glass electrode is due to", "Options": { "A": "The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydroxyl ion.", "B": "The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydrogen ion.", "C": "The membrane responds to other cations in addition to the hydrogen ion.", "D": "That the pH is higher than it really is.", "E": "This error is not described for the glass electrode." }, "Correct Answer": "The membrane responds to other cations in addition to the hydrogen ion.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "06462436-c5bc-4a57-9be5-ad4a9408cf71", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In capillary electrophoresis, in relation to the electroosmotic flow, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "The flow profile is parabolic.", "B": "The flow profile is practically flat and / or uniform.", "C": "You can not know its form and direction.", "D": "The profile of the flow is always inverted.", "E": "The profile of the flow is never reversed." }, "Correct Answer": "The flow profile is practically flat and / or uniform.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1a8bb6e-2a7f-4903-a809-bf6256a11eb9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "HPLC (High Efficiency Liquid Chromatography) uses packings with a range of size or particle diameter typical of:", "Options": { "A": "3-10 Armstrong.", "B": "3-10 Nanometers.", "C": "3-10 Millimeters.", "D": "3-10 Micrometers.", "E": "3-10 Centimeters" }, "Correct Answer": "3-10 Micrometers.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e1002134-3773-4085-a0e3-980f2e169a29", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The calibration curves used in chemical analysis:", "Options": { "A": "They represent the response of an analytical method to unknown concentrations of analyte.", "B": "They use standard samples that contain the solvent used in the analytical method, but without analyte.", "C": "They use a standard solution that allows knowing the response of the analytical method to the interfering species that exist in the reagents.", "D": "They are constructed by preparing samples of known analyte concentration (standards) and determining the response of the analytical procedure to these standards.", "E": "They are constructed using samples of unknown analyte concentration and measuring the response of the analytical procedure to them." }, "Correct Answer": "They are constructed by preparing samples of known analyte concentration (standards) and determining the response of the analytical procedure to these standards.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4fb7263a-a085-4c11-8209-ea5a8bc3dceb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determined (or systematic) errors that can be committed in an analytical method:", "Options": { "A": "They cause the data to spread more or less symmetrically with respect to a mean value.", "B": "They have a definite value and an assignable cause, giving rise to a bias in the results of a series of measures.", "C": "They come reflected in the precision of a measurement.", "D": "They are never attributable to instrumental measuring devices.", "E": "They result in outliers, which differ greatly from the others in a set of duplicate measures data." }, "Correct Answer": "They have a definite value and an assignable cause, giving rise to a bias in the results of a series of measures.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1a424e11-b6c8-4191-9e87-369c0cd4d0c7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What does the amperometric detector measure in high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)?", "Options": { "A": "Potential difference.", "B": "Electric conductivity.", "C": "Thermal conductivity.", "D": "Electric resistance.", "E": "Intensity of electric current." }, "Correct Answer": "Intensity of electric current.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a171c745-9ccd-420a-90da-b3d7ae3ad36f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The deviation of Beer's law by the use of non-monochromatic radiation can lead to deviations from linearity when representing absorbance versus concentration due to:", "Options": { "A": "Different molar absorptivities of the absorbent species.", "B": "Very similar molar absorptivities of the radiations of the polychromatic beam.", "C": "That the radiant power of the incident beam is modified.", "D": "That the use of a polychromatic beam always implies significant differences with respect to a monochromatic one.", "E": "That the relation of incident and transmitted powers is different." }, "Correct Answer": "Different molar absorptivities of the absorbent species.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ed14e790-a808-4fd2-a404-1f849d32af6a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following chemical equilibria is heterogeneous?", "Options": { "A": "Acid-base balance.", "B": "Balance of complex formation.", "C": "Precipitation balance", "D": "Oxidation-reduction balance.", "E": "All those balances that take place in a single phase, usually liquid." }, "Correct Answer": "Precipitation balance", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2554a96c-57cb-4067-9671-74edffc6d9d0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the assessment of a strong base with a strong acid (at 25ºC):", "Options": { "A": "Before the equivalence point, the pH is determined by the excess H + of the solution.", "B": "After the equivalence point, the excess of hydroxyl ions OH- in the solution determines the pH.", "C": "At the equivalence point the pH is always 7, since it is determined by the dissociation of the water.", "D": "At the equivalence point the pH is always acidic.", "E": "The equilibrium constant of the titration reaction is very low, and it can be said that the reaction \"is not complete\"." }, "Correct Answer": "At the equivalence point the pH is always 7, since it is determined by the dissociation of the water.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9e8264e4-d11c-4997-924c-950ddcfd2a97", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is a chelating agent widely used as a titrator in complexometric assessments that are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "To make possible the EDTA titration of many metals in alkaline solutions an auxiliary complexing agent is used which prevents the metal ion from precipitating as hydroxide.", "B": "EDTA forms complexes of 1: 2 stoichiometry with some metal ions and therefore has a poor application in quantitative analysis.", "C": "It is important to choose an adequate pH to carry out the titration because metal-EDTA complexes are more stable at low pH than at high pH.", "D": "When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of EDTA at the equivalence point.", "E": "When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of metallic ion at the equivalence point." }, "Correct Answer": "To make possible the EDTA titration of many metals in alkaline solutions an auxiliary complexing agent is used which prevents the metal ion from precipitating as hydroxide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "da2b2761-96b5-4f59-89e0-41665cf1cdcf", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Starch is a specific indicator used to indicate the endpoint in redox titrations with:", "Options": { "A": "Cerium.", "B": "Iodo.", "C": "Bromine.", "D": "Permanganate.", "E": "Dichromate" }, "Correct Answer": "Iodo.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b3e8cde0-f90f-4945-aa5d-5b3a6d49bfdf", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term A of the Van Deemter equation, known as \"multiple paths\", \"swirl diffusion\" or \"Eddy diffusion\":", "Options": { "A": "It increases as the particle size of the stationary phase increases.", "B": "It decreases with increasing particle size of the stationary phase.", "C": "It is greater in the open capillary columns than in the filling columns.", "D": "Increases with increasing the speed of the mobile phase.", "E": "It decreases as the speed of the mobile phase increases." }, "Correct Answer": "It increases as the particle size of the stationary phase increases.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "822a637c-68b4-41b8-8af0-c956f25d777a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In consecutive reactions of first order, the global kinetic constant:", "Options": { "A": "Presents units of concentration-1 time-1.", "B": "Presents units of time-1.", "C": "Equivalent to the ratio of the kinetic constants of each stage.", "D": "Corresponds to the sum of the kinetic constants of each stage.", "E": "Equivalent to the product of the kinetic constants of each stage." }, "Correct Answer": "Presents units of time-1.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5677b684-4385-4009-b4a3-29fa82b6310d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An ideal diluted solution is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "All components comply with Raoult's law.", "B": "Only the solute complies with Raoult's law.", "C": "The solvent complies with Henry's law.", "D": "All components comply with Henry's law.", "E": "Only the solute complies with Henry's law." }, "Correct Answer": "All components comply with Raoult's law.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d508afb3-a738-4f88-b274-c7f5e3946421", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The triple point of a phase diagram of a component:", "Options": { "A": "Presents 3 degrees of freedom, according to the rule of the phases.", "B": "Presents 1 degree of freedom, according to the rule of the phases.", "C": "It is characterized because the liquid and gas phases are indistinguishable.", "D": "It is characterized because there are three phases in equilibrium.", "E": "It is characterized because there are four phases in equilibrium." }, "Correct Answer": "It is characterized because there are three phases in equilibrium.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "380d9e7c-f47e-499c-bc20-4b2a1e9038a8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The entropy of a system:", "Options": { "A": "It is a state function.", "B": "It is an intensive variable.", "C": "Indicates the spontaneity of any process.", "D": "It is defined in the First Principle of Thermodynamics.", "E": "It varies according to the route traveled between the initial and final conditions." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a state function.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ada7b8ac-3f27-449f-9f78-fbd6b70fa21d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The difference in solute concentration inside and outside the cell gives rise to an osmotic pressure:", "Options": { "A": "Whose measurement allows to determine molar masses of small molecules.", "B": "Due to the passage of solute through the cell membrane.", "C": "That corresponds to the pressure that must be applied to interrupt the passage of solvent through the membrane.", "D": "That causes a difference of chemical potential of the solvent on both sides of the membrane.", "E": "Whose effect is minimal and complicated to measure." }, "Correct Answer": "That corresponds to the pressure that must be applied to interrupt the passage of solvent through the membrane.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e3e551c7-10dc-4153-9d1e-1a9bd96de384", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Arrhenius equation (k = A e-Ea / RT):", "Options": { "A": "The speed of a reaction is directly proportional to the temperature.", "B": "A high activation energy implies that the speed constant depends markedly on the temperature.", "C": "The pre-exponential factor or frequency factor (A) is dimensionless.", "D": "The activation energy depends on the temperature.", "E": "The activation energy is always negative." }, "Correct Answer": "A high activation energy implies that the speed constant depends markedly on the temperature.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c7ae1109-20be-4d8f-999d-134d6933598f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The molecularity of an elementary reaction corresponds:", "Options": { "A": "At the initial concentration of reagent.", "B": "To the number of molecules that are found to react.", "C": "To the number of collisions of the reactants per unit of time.", "D": "At the final concentration of the product.", "E": "To the reaction between the reaction rate and the reagent concentration." }, "Correct Answer": "To the number of molecules that are found to react.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9c57c044-ebe6-4af9-8be7-76411691135d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "He has been considered the father of modern Toxicology for his clinical, pathological and forensic contributions to this science:", "Options": { "A": "Paracelsus", "B": "Claudio Bernard.", "C": "Richard Alzheimer.", "D": "Mateo Orfila.", "E": "Hippocrates" }, "Correct Answer": "Mateo Orfila.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aacf8248-8e6b-487a-9918-108c4df24227", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The FAB (antibody fragments that bind antigens) are used as antidotes to poisoning by:", "Options": { "A": "Digoxin", "B": "Barbiturates", "C": "Derived amphetamines.", "D": "Salicylates.", "E": "Antihistamines" }, "Correct Answer": "Digoxin", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ee266a35-ab01-4991-97d7-bc649e354b4f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following compounds produces liver damage as the main toxic effect:", "Options": { "A": "Diethylene glycol.", "B": "Methanol", "C": "Acetone.", "D": "Benzene.", "E": "Carbon tetrachloride." }, "Correct Answer": "Carbon tetrachloride.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "02e9aaba-e1b8-4ad8-a259-f692f7ccc3a8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Naloxone is used in the treatment of poisoning with:", "Options": { "A": "Opiates", "B": "Benzodiazepines.", "C": "Barbiturates", "D": "Tricyclic antidepressants.", "E": "Digitálicos." }, "Correct Answer": "Opiates", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "735cae3d-787a-4bdf-8bc3-a928ca27291e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The paraquat herbicide produces mainly:", "Options": { "A": "Lung damage", "B": "Hematological abnormalities.", "C": "Neurotoxicity", "D": "Ocular toxicity.", "E": "Ototoxicity" }, "Correct Answer": "Lung damage", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "32cd4b33-4c29-469c-9ba4-cad9a2d337a0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When performing the Ames test, what result would reveal that the compound is a mutagen?", "Options": { "A": "Abnormal division in mouse uterus cells.", "B": "Abnormal growth in mouse.", "C": "Proliferation of a hamster ovary cell culture.", "D": "Reversal in the growth characteristics of Salmonella.", "E": "No option is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Reversal in the growth characteristics of Salmonella.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3fcddc3a-ca0a-4de5-a6cd-fb3e43c634e8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most reactive oxygen radical species and, therefore, most dangerous is:", "Options": { "A": "Superoxide anion", "B": "Hydrogen peroxide.", "C": "Ion superoxide", "D": "Radical hydroxyl.", "E": "It depends on the tissue." }, "Correct Answer": "Radical hydroxyl.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "72f8a9dd-4b18-40e4-91bb-1e1c8536fc3c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From among the following, indicate the most toxic substance according to the 50 lethal dose value:", "Options": { "A": "Strychnine.", "B": "Nicotine.", "C": "Morphine.", "D": "Botulinum toxin.", "E": "Curare." }, "Correct Answer": "Botulinum toxin.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2f4b9199-62f7-4e46-ad3f-b61c55960fe7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cinnamaldehyde is an aldehyde present in:", "Options": { "A": "Camphor.", "B": "Vanilla.", "C": "Almond oil.", "D": "Jasmine oil", "E": "Cinnamon." }, "Correct Answer": "Cinnamon.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "36d5e3ea-e7ae-4863-847d-ddfac2fbd799", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of ketones and aldehydes by the presence of their carbonyl group preferably gives:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleophilic substitution reactions.", "B": "Oxidation reactions to alcohols.", "C": "Nucleophilic addition reactions.", "D": "Reduction reactions to carboxylic acids.", "E": "They are not reactive towards nucleophiles." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleophilic addition reactions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "83bef7ec-f86a-46b7-94b8-20aa18b77a6c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of benzene with tertbutyl chloride, in the presence of aluminum trichloride, is an example of:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction.", "B": "Electrophilic aromatic substitution.", "C": "Addition of halogens.", "D": "Acid catalyzed hydrolysis.", "E": "Obtaining alkyl halides." }, "Correct Answer": "Electrophilic aromatic substitution.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0fa9d9e8-a3c9-413c-b7d6-2644433bfc55", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acid chlorides can be transformed into carboxylic acids:", "Options": { "A": "Through a hydrolysis catalyzed by an acid or a base.", "B": "Through a reduction reaction with lithium aluminum hydride.", "C": "Through a reduction reaction with sodium borohydride.", "D": "Through a reduction reaction with diborane.", "E": "It is not possible due to the lack of reactivity that characterizes acyl halides." }, "Correct Answer": "Through a hydrolysis catalyzed by an acid or a base.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9d5585e2-8a5c-4bdb-9b7e-f370127daad4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The organometallic compounds are derivatives:", "Options": { "A": "With a radical nature.", "B": "With covalent bonds between carbon atoms and metal atoms.", "C": "With electronic deficit and electrophilic character.", "D": "Practically not reactive.", "E": "With essentially reducing character." }, "Correct Answer": "With covalent bonds between carbon atoms and metal atoms.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6baeda55-bd7c-452f-8112-8555e73706b9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An amine, due to the pair of non-bonding electrons that nitrogen possesses:", "Options": { "A": "It can be considered as an electrophile.", "B": "It can be considered as a Lewis acid.", "C": "It can act as a nucleophilic reagent attack center.", "D": "It can be considered as a nucleophile.", "E": "It is an example of apolar product." }, "Correct Answer": "It can be considered as a nucleophile.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e4cfcb60-352a-44a5-8173-100221348608", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following hydrides has the highest normal boiling point?", "Options": { "A": "SiH4.", "B": "CH4", "C": "HCl.", "D": "PH3.", "E": "HF" }, "Correct Answer": "HF", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d9a053b3-c5af-416d-b6c7-8f3da716f58b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following atoms provides the strongest hydrogen bond in the corresponding hydrides?", "Options": { "A": "F.", "B": "Cl.", "C": "OR.", "D": "S.", "E": "P." }, "Correct Answer": "F.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "904688af-f840-4af1-b3cd-fc0b72253c45", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Rhombic sulfur, the most stable form of sulfur, is made up of molecules of the following type:", "Options": { "A": "S 2.", "B": "S 8.", "C": "S 4.", "D": "S 6", "E": "Sn (n = 10-14)." }, "Correct Answer": "S 8.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7ed88939-aefc-4cc7-8f46-4e89e3ed98a9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has triangular plane geometry?", "Options": { "A": "BF3.", "B": "NH3.", "C": "AsH3.", "D": "XeO3.", "E": "ClF3." }, "Correct Answer": "BF3.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f378703c-4940-4f76-bae2-4edd8f7e938f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has a simple covalent bond?", "Options": { "A": "C2.", "B": "N 2", "C": "O 2", "D": "O 3.", "E": "F 2" }, "Correct Answer": "F 2", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cf09095f-9c3a-44a1-84c7-b8d5912eda3c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has the highest number of antibonding electrons?", "Options": { "A": "B2.", "B": "N 2", "C": "Li2.", "D": "F 2", "E": "O 2" }, "Correct Answer": "F 2", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8ea5c19d-47f0-4fc4-8eff-81fd607d7d7d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The covers of connective tissue that surround, protect and maintain the brain and spinal cord within the cranial cavity and the spinal canal are called meninges. Which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The meninges are not made up of connective tissue.", "B": "The pia mater adheres to the brain and spinal cord.", "C": "The arachnoid is the thickest and most external.", "D": "The dura adheres to the inner surface of the arachnoid.", "E": "The meninges only cover the brain." }, "Correct Answer": "The pia mater adheres to the brain and spinal cord.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4c44ca3d-098f-474b-839f-7ecf0270af81", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How is the pigmented and highly vascularized layer of the posterior wall of the eyeball called?", "Options": { "A": "Iris.", "B": "Choroid", "C": "Ciliary body.", "D": "Sclera", "E": "Retina." }, "Correct Answer": "Choroid", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ea832a3a-e992-465d-8b39-2cf45bc24901", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which glands are located between the skin and the masseter muscle, in front and under the outer ear?", "Options": { "A": "Parotid glands", "B": "Submandibular glands", "C": "Sublingual glands", "D": "Mouth glands", "E": "Lieberkühn's glands." }, "Correct Answer": "Parotid glands", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b0dc7805-8434-46e2-ab42-67995e10a855", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tube of very small diameter and about 6 meters in length that runs along the posterolateral side of the testicle and connects with the vas deferens, is it called?", "Options": { "A": "Prostate.", "B": "Epididymis", "C": "Urethra.", "D": "Epéndimo.", "E": "Seminiferous tubule." }, "Correct Answer": "Epididymis", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8f17a59f-45cd-4d37-a089-693206ad4f75", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicates which bone is the lesser trochanter:", "Options": { "A": "Fibula.", "B": "Tibia.", "C": "Humerus.", "D": "Femur.", "E": "Radio." }, "Correct Answer": "Femur.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fef56199-4912-4e29-b246-f3aba8fd221a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following muscles is an example of abductor?", "Options": { "A": "Pectoral major.", "B": "Trapeze.", "C": "Dorsal width.", "D": "Anterior rectus of the abdomen.", "E": "Deltoid." }, "Correct Answer": "Deltoid.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "10f3298d-cfbf-4538-ab14-57ff9713d2f2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We took a simple random sample of 1000 people, and for each one we checked whether or not he got the flu in 2012 and whether or not he got the flu in 2012. We obtained two responses for each of the 1000 people. To evaluate if there is an association between these two qualitative variables (having flu or not) and (having been vaccinated or not) from the data of our sample:", "Options": { "A": "We draw a quantile-quantile graph.", "B": "We perform a t test for the difference of means.", "C": "We calculate the Pearson correlation coefficient.", "D": "We make a contrast of the signs for the difference of medians.", "E": "We make a contingency table and an independence test." }, "Correct Answer": "We make a contingency table and an independence test.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "95658d2f-57ca-413c-902b-a38d29e16beb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The square of Pearson's correlation coefficient is:", "Options": { "A": "The coefficient of variation.", "B": "The coefficient of determination.", "C": "The slope of the regression line.", "D": "The regression coefficient.", "E": "The covariance." }, "Correct Answer": "The coefficient of determination.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d3e8c8b0-a7a4-481a-b2e4-b52fd041d187", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a population 60% of the inhabitants are men. The random variable \"number of men in a group of 10 people\" follows a distribution of type:", "Options": { "A": "Binomial.", "B": "Chi squared.", "C": "Poisson", "D": "Normal.", "E": "Student's t" }, "Correct Answer": "Binomial.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d27bd986-7741-4237-996c-ed249ea1fe8a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The second quartile is the same as the:", "Options": { "A": "Arithmetic average.", "B": "Geometric mean.", "C": "Harmonic half", "D": "Fashion.", "E": "Median." }, "Correct Answer": "Median.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a63df995-94f6-4c76-ae7e-6d302c4ab3bf", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct option regarding the quality of life of a patient who goes through three consecutive health conditions with utility values ​​of 0.45 the first, 0.68 the second and 0.95 the third:", "Options": { "A": "The best quality of life corresponds to the third state of health through which it passes.", "B": "The best quality of life corresponds to the first state of health through which it passes.", "C": "The quality of life depends on the time you are in each state of health.", "D": "The utility does not serve to assess the quality of life.", "E": "In all three states the quality of life is very bad because they are values ​​less than 1." }, "Correct Answer": "The best quality of life corresponds to the third state of health through which it passes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "119d2741-f2a1-40c4-bcce-176c95bdcdde", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is NOT a complete economic evaluation?", "Options": { "A": "Cost minimization analysis.", "B": "Analysis of direct and indirect costs.", "C": "Cost-effectiveness analysis.", "D": "Cost-utility analysis.", "E": "Cost-benefit analysis." }, "Correct Answer": "Analysis of direct and indirect costs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6abd6b3b-6333-4e5d-a303-5c7ed48c59b5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In accounting, which of the following elements should be included in the LIABILITIES of an estate?", "Options": { "A": "Credits in favor of third parties.", "B": "Quantities that customers owe.", "C": "Money in banks.", "D": "Money in credit institutions.", "E": "The store." }, "Correct Answer": "Credits in favor of third parties.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "55833e32-f73c-4524-91d0-6d2f57360ed7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The acronym ECM, in the labeling of medicines, has the meaning of:", "Options": { "A": "European Competency Medication [acronym in English].", "B": "Marketing Container for Wholesalers.", "C": "Special Medical Control.", "D": "Mechanical Control Package.", "E": "Specialty of Massive Consumption." }, "Correct Answer": "Special Medical Control.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f6ee608e-b9f3-4b48-b6a2-de1808d6a478", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In general, and in accordance with the state legislation on pharmacy offices, the minimum population module for the opening of these establishments is:", "Options": { "A": "2,500 inhabitants per establishment.", "B": "1,000 inhabitants per establishment.", "C": "1,500 inhabitants per establishment.", "D": "2,000 inhabitants per establishment.", "E": "2,800 inhabitants per establishment." }, "Correct Answer": "2,800 inhabitants per establishment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4a826df0-551f-486e-b113-6047b60f72f3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The complementary drug protection certificate has a maximum duration of:", "Options": { "A": "Five years.", "B": "Seven years.", "C": "Ten years.", "D": "Fifteen years.", "E": "Twenty five years." }, "Correct Answer": "Five years.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "961a84dd-1d49-46a1-8a0d-15502d6f6dd9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of pathology corresponds to chronic granulomatous disease.", "Options": { "A": "Congenital agammaglobulinemia.", "B": "T cell deficit", "C": "Severe combined immunodeficiency.", "D": "Deficit in the microbicidal capacity of phagocytes.", "E": "Congenital neutropenia" }, "Correct Answer": "Deficit in the microbicidal capacity of phagocytes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c4675fa8-ed41-4146-b08a-420fc1c8a726", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "The activation of mast cells.", "B": "The deposit of immunocomplexes.", "C": "The activation of macrophages.", "D": "Appearance of a neutrophil infiltrate.", "E": "Cytotoxicity reactions." }, "Correct Answer": "The deposit of immunocomplexes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7bb3aa2d-adbe-4d7c-8682-e6c1878a72b1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following pairs of surface molecules, what is used by the virgin T lymphocytes to extravasate to the lymph node?", "Options": { "A": "CCR7 and L-selectin.", "B": "VCAM and L-selectin.", "C": "CCR7 and ICAM-1.", "D": "CCR9 and L-selectin.", "E": "CCR4 and VCAM-1." }, "Correct Answer": "CCR7 and L-selectin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "967018c6-c044-463b-8f17-fd3fa4bec13b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The primary function of interleukin 2 (IL-2) is:", "Options": { "A": "Induce activation of macrophages.", "B": "Promote isotype changes in immunoglobulins produced by activated B cells.", "C": "Induce the synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes.", "D": "Promote the proliferation of T lymphocytes", "E": "Promote the proliferation of B lymphocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Promote the proliferation of T lymphocytes", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4742a7f9-cc1c-4893-b3e0-ba6c7a6777d6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of pathology corresponds to type I insulin-dependent diabetes?", "Options": { "A": "Congenital immunodeficiency.", "B": "Autoimmune disease.", "C": "IgE-mediated hypersensitivity.", "D": "Hypersensitivity due to immunocomplexes.", "E": "Immunoproliferative syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Autoimmune disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c85ce552-921a-4c62-9149-03474a3686d1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD as membrane immunoglobulins occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "B cells that respond to thymoindependent antigens.", "B": "B cells that respond to thymus-dependent antigens.", "C": "Activated B cells stimulated by Interleukin 4 (IL-4).", "D": "Immature virgin B cells.", "E": "Mature virgin B cells." }, "Correct Answer": "Mature virgin B cells.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b3a009b3-7d19-49af-95dd-2d5fa2de7400", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Different cytokines induce the isotype change of the different classes of antibodies. Of the following cytokine / isotype pairs, choose the correct one:", "Options": { "A": "IL-4 / IgE.", "B": "IL-4 / IgM.", "C": "IL-5 / IgG.", "D": "IFN- / IgM.", "E": "TGF- / IgA." }, "Correct Answer": "IL-4 / IgE.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e288ae91-1e38-4dc9-ac35-78107fdb3c7b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Mantoux test (reaction to tuberculin) is:", "Options": { "A": "A delayed hypersensitivity reaction.", "B": "An immediate hypersensitivity reaction.", "C": "A hypersensitivity reaction by immunocomplexes.", "D": "A non-specific inflammation reaction.", "E": "A manifestation of autoimmunity." }, "Correct Answer": "A delayed hypersensitivity reaction.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fec19e7b-c943-4fcc-acfb-8229927b185e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the Th2-B cooperation process, what does the Th2 cell recognize on the surface of the B cell?", "Options": { "A": "The antigen bound to a surface immunoglobulin.", "B": "A fragment of antigen bound to the CD21 molecule.", "C": "Several cross-linked antigen fragments.", "D": "A fragment of antigen bound to a class II histocompatibility molecule.", "E": "A fragment of antigen bound to a class I histocompatibility molecule." }, "Correct Answer": "A fragment of antigen bound to a class II histocompatibility molecule.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e3366df6-dbc0-4454-b551-e5107596cd71", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the drugs with antiviral activity does the purine base called guanine appear?", "Options": { "A": "Lamivudine", "B": "Zidovudine", "C": "Ribavirin", "D": "Acyclovir", "E": "Didanosine" }, "Correct Answer": "Acyclovir", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3fbd0159-59ae-40d9-a16e-1f89a2148acb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli and Listeria monocytogenes are the microorganisms most commonly found in meningitis in:", "Options": { "A": "Neonates", "B": "Immunocompromised.", "C": "Women.", "D": "Hospitalized patients.", "E": "Elderly." }, "Correct Answer": "Neonates", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "78e5d27d-f4db-4b11-96b6-9166e676dd92", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following is an alteration of the pyrimidine metabolism:", "Options": { "A": "Thrombophilia", "B": "Phenylketonuria", "C": "Wilson's disease", "D": "Urine disease with the smell of maple syrup.", "E": "Orotic hereditary acidity." }, "Correct Answer": "Orotic hereditary acidity.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7a2b8a88-4d62-43a1-892f-b63eff59f4d6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The control of the acid-peptic disease is mainly achieved with PPIs (proton pump inhibitors). The PPIs:", "Options": { "A": "They induce the maximum inhibition of gastric secretion after 3-5 days.", "B": "They are less effective than H-2 antagonists.", "C": "They are used as monotherapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori.", "D": "They have a faster onset of action than H-2 antagonists.", "E": "They are not useful in the treatment of stress ulcers." }, "Correct Answer": "They induce the maximum inhibition of gastric secretion after 3-5 days.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ac015e63-2727-440a-8204-5b397d056677", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Transcription factors:", "Options": { "A": "They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A.", "B": "They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription.", "C": "They join the DNA.", "D": "They are organized into nucleosomes.", "E": "They regulate DNA methylation." }, "Correct Answer": "They join the DNA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ef23f1eb-41dd-41ec-a0a6-76afe175da14", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "As to the height of the plate (H) in a column chromatographic separation it can be said that:", "Options": { "A": "It is inversely proportional to the variance (standard deviation of the band).", "B": "It is directly proportional to the number of theoretical plates and inversely proportional to the length of the column.", "C": "It is directly proportional to the variance and inversely proportional to the distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L).", "D": "It is directly proportional to the variance and distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L).", "E": "It does not depend on the variance or the distance traveled by the center of the band." }, "Correct Answer": "It is directly proportional to the variance and inversely proportional to the distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7d5f7e30-de3e-4a3e-846c-faaee3b07e27", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The humerocubital joint is an example of:", "Options": { "A": "Saddle joint.", "B": "Condylar articulation.", "C": "Pivot joint (trochoid).", "D": "Hinge joint (trochlea)", "E": "Artrodia." }, "Correct Answer": "Hinge joint (trochlea)", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cb74b178-e30a-4c7a-9322-b1ed83208131", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In Spain, the body in charge of determining the special conditions of prescription and dispensing of medicines in the National Health System (S.N.S.) is:", "Options": { "A": "The Spanish Agency of Medicines and Health Products.", "B": "The National Institute of Consumption.", "C": "The General Directorate of the Basic Portfolio of Services of the S.N.S. and Pharmacy.", "D": "The General Technical Secretariat.", "E": "The General Directorate of Public Health, Quality and Innovation." }, "Correct Answer": "The General Directorate of the Basic Portfolio of Services of the S.N.S. and Pharmacy.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9481882c-a8c3-4093-80b6-0f278517bc15", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following surface markers, one of them is expressed only in the virgin T lymphocytes, while the rest are also found in the population of activated T lymphocytes. Which?", "Options": { "A": "The adhesion molecule L-selectin.", "B": "The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR).", "C": "The integrin LFA-1.", "D": "The CD4 co-receptor molecule.", "E": "The integrin VLA-4." }, "Correct Answer": "The adhesion molecule L-selectin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "816d2e09-23b1-406e-a202-e72c1b6aae5d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº1 40-year-old man with no relevant background. For 4 weeks, refers to diarrheic stools, associated with jaundice of skin and mucous membranes, coluria, hypocholia and pain in right hypochondrium, accompanied by weight loss (10 kg approx) and intense itching. In the analytical highlights: Total bilirubin: 15.3 mg / dl. Alanine aminotransferase: 70 U / l Aspartate aminotransferase: 85 U / l. Serology for negative hepatitis and elevation of CA 19-9. Abdominal CT is performed. 3 axial sections are shown. In relation to the findings of the radiological test, which of the following statements is true?", "Options": { "A": "A tumoral mass is observed in the head of the pancreas that causes biliary and ductal dilatation compatible with adenocarcinoma.", "B": "Presence of diffuse thickening of the pancreas with arcuate Wirsung compatible with lymphoplasmacytic pancreatitis.", "C": "A tumoral mass is identified in a vesicular infundibulum compatible with vesicular adenocarcinoma.", "D": "Voluminous tumor lymphadenopathies are observed in the hepatic hilum that produce dilation of the bile duct.", "E": "Presence of multiple solid focal liver lesions compatible with diffuse liver metastases." }, "Correct Answer": "A tumoral mass is observed in the head of the pancreas that causes biliary and ductal dilatation compatible with adenocarcinoma.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "043b89d4-f5d9-4f6d-a1b9-132ee8e62dfa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 1 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is indicated?", "Options": { "A": "Biliary drainage through retrograde endoscopic and systemic chemotherapy.", "B": "Duodenopancretectomy cephalic with vascular resection.", "C": "Hepatic embolization with charged spheres of chemotherapy.", "D": "Bilirubic-hepatic bile drainage and systemic chemotherapy.", "E": "Treatment with corticoids." }, "Correct Answer": "Duodenopancretectomy cephalic with vascular resection.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "54eeff6c-acc3-456c-8f45-f4a59684cf6d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº2 A 67-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, undergoing insulin treatment for diabetes mellitus and controlled by a hematology service for the study of myelodysplastic syndrome. Three weeks ago, a pustular lesion with necrotic borders began to grow, causing a large ulcer to appear with the appearance shown in the attached image. Intense pain. Which of the following diagnoses do you think is most likely?", "Options": { "A": "Specific cutaneous infiltration of its myeloproliferative process.", "B": "Necrobiois lipoidica.", "C": "Ulcer due to diabetic microangiopathy.", "D": "Pyoderma gangrenosum.", "E": "Hypertensive ulcer." }, "Correct Answer": "Pyoderma gangrenosum.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9ad00da8-f54b-4c41-86ea-3473eee1544d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº2 The same type of pathology can occur in other contexts. Point out which of them is more likely:", "Options": { "A": "Hypothyroidism", "B": "Hyperthyroidism.", "C": "Ulcerative colitis", "D": "Scleroderma", "E": "Glucagonoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Ulcerative colitis", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4e4f3c40-ff83-425d-9483-407339cde129", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº3 A 64-year-old woman with no history of interest, with progressive dyspnea of ​​several weeks of evolution, whose frontal chest radiograph suggests a practically definitive radiological diagnosis. What would this be?", "Options": { "A": "Pulmonary thromboembolism with infarcts.", "B": "Pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jiroveci.", "C": "Alveolar proteinosis.", "D": "Pulmonary edema.", "E": "Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia." }, "Correct Answer": "Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "76ffcc96-87e4-49f5-9bb8-9f72afd90abf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 3 In relation to the suspected diagnosis you have established, what would be the most appropriate confirmation test?", "Options": { "A": "Determination of pulmonary capillary pressure, using a Swan-Ganz catheter.", "B": "Bronchoalveolar lavage.", "C": "Thoracic computed tomography (pulmonary arteries).", "D": "Determination of eosinophils in peripheral blood.", "E": "Determination of anti-HIV antibodies." }, "Correct Answer": "Determination of eosinophils in peripheral blood.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6115f0f1-8e0e-473c-987b-8103a84cfe03", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº4 70-year-old man, active smoker, who underwent a chest radiological study as a preoperative protocol for prostatic hypertrophy. What would be the fundamental semiological finding of this radiological image?", "Options": { "A": "Encapsulated left pleural effusion.", "B": "Tumor of the anterior soft tissues of the thorax.", "C": "Collapse of the left upper lobe.", "D": "Anterior mediastinal mass.", "E": "Elevation of the left diaphragmatic dome." }, "Correct Answer": "Collapse of the left upper lobe.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ced4413d-9396-4d0a-925f-6f01c6d0a071", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 4 What would be the most likely radiological diagnosis to justify this finding?", "Options": { "A": "Central bronchogenic carcinoma.", "B": "Left phrenic paralysis.", "C": "Anterior thoracic wall abscess.", "D": "Left pleural mesothelioma.", "E": "Anterior mediastinal lymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Central bronchogenic carcinoma.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "28c092de-ebfe-49b9-a140-b8f2ee98c22c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image no. 5 A 41-year-old man referred for presenting for more than 5 years bilateral alternating gluteal pain predominantly nocturnal, which interferes with sleep and relieves with mobilization. It is accompanied by stiffness for more than 1 hour after inactivity. Denies pain, swelling or deformity to another level. It provides elementary analytics without alterations except PCR 11.5 mg / dl (N <5) and the attached radiograph. The objective radiological alteration and the most probable diagnosis would be:", "Options": { "A": "Fracture of Looser- Osteomalacia.", "B": "Bilateral sacroiliitis - Ankylosing spondylitis.", "C": "Coexistence of lytic and blastic lesions Paget's disease.", "D": "Blastic lesions - Prostatic adenocarcinoma with bone metastases.", "E": "Osteosclerosis - Lymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Bilateral sacroiliitis - Ankylosing spondylitis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3b67a1d6-c58f-45b0-b82f-b9fd6817df24", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 5 In relation to this patient, which of the following treatments would not be useful?", "Options": { "A": "Indomethacin", "B": "Etoricoxib.", "C": "Systemic corticosteroids", "D": "Physiotherapy.", "E": "Adalimumab." }, "Correct Answer": "Systemic corticosteroids", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b671a591-24de-46ad-8c8d-d8619b5d9298", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº6 A friend of his 37 years shows him the photograph of his own right hand that is shown in the image A. He had made a cold day in November and tells him that after a few minutes regained its normal color With a magnifying magnifying glass, look at the B image in the nail bed. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Systemic sclerosis", "B": "Acrocyanosis", "C": "Livedo reticularis.", "D": "Raynaud's disease.", "E": "Cold agglutinin disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Systemic sclerosis", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "97ee0537-0614-4332-876c-6c0c029055a7", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº6 Which of the following medications would you not recommend:", "Options": { "A": "Nifedipine", "B": "Sildenafil", "C": "Prazosin", "D": "Atenolol.", "E": "Losartan" }, "Correct Answer": "Atenolol.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "19de4dcb-cffb-4616-a2a7-8dd44db66787", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº7 A 31-year-old patient, with no previous history of interest, consulted due to muscle weakness of a few months of evolution that has progressively made it difficult for her to go up and down stairs. Physical examination is notable for the desquamative papuloerithematous lesions seen in the figure. To achieve the diagnosis, a muscle biopsy is performed, among other tests, which can be seen in the figure. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Vasculitis type panarteritis nodosa.", "B": "Systemic lupus erythematosus.", "C": "Dermatomyositis", "D": "Myositis with inclusion bodies.", "E": "Sarcoidosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Dermatomyositis", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e2b0ee29-d771-4419-97c9-e8f3cb520993", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 7 Among the complementary tests that could help us better define the clinical picture of the patient are all but one. Point it out", "Options": { "A": "Thoracoabdominal CT.", "B": "Gynecological exploration.", "C": "Autoantibodies that include ANA and antisintetase.", "D": "Electromyography", "E": "Arteriography of the renal arteries." }, "Correct Answer": "Arteriography of the renal arteries.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "78fc77e6-764f-4786-87ea-39f8a5e9bcd0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº8 A 75-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperuricemia. In treatment with ACE inhibitors and allopurinol 100 mg daily. He went to the emergency room for a picture of several days of evolution of inflammatory rhythm pain in the small joints of the hands of progressive course together with daily fever of up to 37.8ºC. It has raised yellowish lesions on the skin around the interphalangeal and metatarsophalangeal joints that in recent days have left a yellowish liquid through the skin. On examination, it presents inflammatory signs at the proximal and distal interphalangeal levels of both hands. A simple x-ray of both hands is performed (see image). Which of the following statements is true in relation to the diagnosis of this patient?", "Options": { "A": "The drainage of yellowish whitish material through the skin is synonymous with infection and requires the initiation of antibiotic treatment immediately.", "B": "If the analysis of the synovial fluid showed a cell count between 2000 and 60,000 / μl, it would be a septic polyarthritis and specific treatment should be started immediately.", "C": "To establish the diagnosis of tophaceous gout, it is essential that uric acid levels are well above the reference range in all determinations.", "D": "To confirm the diagnosis, a complete study of the fluid is recommended.", "E": "The diagnostic technique of choice is arthroscopy." }, "Correct Answer": "To confirm the diagnosis, a complete study of the fluid is recommended.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5ed42d51-674a-4bcf-bfb5-a37b461d5ee0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 8 In relation to the previous case, how would you approach the initial treatment of this patient?", "Options": { "A": "The treatment is the use of allopurinol at a minimum dose of 800 mg daily, so the dose used by the patient should be increased early.", "B": "During the acute phase, the treatment is NSAIDs, which can be associated with colchicine.", "C": "Given the severity of the lesions, intravenous colchicine should be used.", "D": "If synovial fluid has a cell count above 3000 cells / μl, treatment with parenteral antibiotics should be initiated with coverage against Staphylococcus Aureus and Streptococcus spp. And maintained at least 6 weeks.", "E": "In this disease, systemic or intraarticular steroids have not proven their efficacy." }, "Correct Answer": "During the acute phase, the treatment is NSAIDs, which can be associated with colchicine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c6ae25f9-8f6e-4bb9-a26e-0d260803d7f2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image no. 9 A 64-year-old patient complains of easy fatigability after a few months of evolution and loss of appetite, although she has not observed any weight loss. We are struck by the facies that it presents when we observe it (see image). Before proceeding with the interrogation and the clinical examination, we come up with a diagnostic hypothesis. Which of the following analytical tests do you think would guide us best in our diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "TSH", "B": "CK", "C": "Hemogram, iron, ferritin.", "D": "Proteinuria", "E": "ANA." }, "Correct Answer": "TSH", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "55029de8-664e-42a7-9344-d0377361595a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image no. 9 To rule out situations that may simulate the patient's manifestations and establish a differential diagnosis, we must continue with the interrogation. One of the following habits or antecedents would be difficult to relate to the facial alterations observed. Point out which one.", "Options": { "A": "Habit of stretching the hairs (trichotillomania).", "B": "A sexually transmitted disease", "C": "Contact with people or geographic areas with leprosy.", "D": "Drug intake.", "E": "History of hyperuricemia." }, "Correct Answer": "History of hyperuricemia.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "79845333-0d42-4583-9a6d-f1eca2ae62dd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº10 A 74-year-old man, asymptomatic, who in a routine laboratory test has leucocytes 37,000 / mL, hemoglobin 15,7 g / dL, platelets 190,000 / mL. In the examination, adenopathies and organomegalies are not appreciated. An extension of peripheral blood is made (image). What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Viriasis", "B": "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "C": "Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance.", "D": "Chronic lymphatic leukemia.", "E": "Myelodysplastic syndrome" }, "Correct Answer": "Chronic lymphatic leukemia.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1f71d456-8ec3-4248-aedf-bc4d358f4ca8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº10 Given this clinical picture, what would be the most appropriate treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Do not treat; wait and see.", "B": "Interferon.", "C": "Chlorambucil and prednisone.", "D": "Inhibitors of bcr / abl (imatinib).", "E": "Cyclophosphamide, vincristine and prednisone." }, "Correct Answer": "Do not treat; wait and see.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c71f20ad-740f-4ce0-95c4-6bc73c303d16", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº11 The ultrasound image presented to him corresponds to a 37-year-old woman who consulted for non-traumatic right back pain associated with fever. Based on that background and the sonographic findings, point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "An enlarged gallbladder with a double-walled sign is observed.", "B": "The findings suggest perinephric abscess with free perirenal fluid.", "C": "The image does not provide enough data to help the diagnosis.", "D": "The image suggests a large parapelic cyst; It is a minor find.", "E": "Ultrasound suggests obstruction of the urinary tract." }, "Correct Answer": "Ultrasound suggests obstruction of the urinary tract.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "54a976a8-1914-4b14-98a1-e41bdf393455", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº11 In relation to the treatment of this patient, indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It would be necessary to perform evacuation puncture guided by CT of the perinephritic collection and prescribe broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.", "B": "Urinary diversion is the key in the initial management of cases with hydronephrosis and deterioration of renal function or infection. The definitive treatment will depend on the etiology.", "C": "Before making therapeutic decisions we must continue the study by abdominal CT.", "D": "It is an acalculous cholecystitis and requires an urgent cholecystectomy.", "E": "At present, the level of evidence suggests that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) no longer represent the first analgesic step in the treatment of patients with nephritic colic who go to an emergency department." }, "Correct Answer": "Urinary diversion is the key in the initial management of cases with hydronephrosis and deterioration of renal function or infection. The definitive treatment will depend on the etiology.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f8564dae-6ad3-4f16-9bc5-fd2e5019f773", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº12 An 88-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's dementia, mitral insufficiency and persistent atrial fibrillation, enters a hospital due to a deterioration in her general condition that is attributed to a urinary tract infection. The peripheral venous routes are not accessible and it is decided to channel a central vein through a peripheral vein (cephalic vein) guided by ultrasound. Once the technique is done, it is verified that the blood flows back normally through the catheter. The patient did not present any complications during the maneuver and a catheter control X-ray was later performed. Where do you think the distal end of the catheter has been located?", "Options": { "A": "Right subclavian vein", "B": "Right jugular vein", "C": "Vena cava superior.", "D": "Right basilic vein.", "E": "Brachiocephalic trunk." }, "Correct Answer": "Right basilic vein.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6848663d-82ae-4bc6-bd97-f739b4149c01", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 12 What is the most reasonable attitude at this time ?:", "Options": { "A": "Remove the entire catheter and reinsert it.", "B": "Extract about 10 cm the catheter and install the appropriate treatment.", "C": "Channel another central venous line through the jugular vein.", "D": "Leave it as it is because it can be used to monitor central venous pressure.", "E": "We can not use the catheter because it has perforated the vein and it is located in the lung." }, "Correct Answer": "Extract about 10 cm the catheter and install the appropriate treatment.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4b89362a-7951-4012-b9b6-4f3637a54f20", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº13 A 12-year-old boy who goes to primary care Pediatrics for fever, vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhea. On cardiopulmonary auscultation, he presents with an ejection systolic murmur II / VI in a pulmonary focus with a fixed second unfolded noise, the remainder being the normal physical examination. For the evaluation of the murmur the pediatrician performs an ECG that is shown below. In relation to the interpretation of it, please indicate below the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It is a normal ECG.", "B": "He presents a first-degree atrioventricular block as the only alteration.", "C": "It presents a left extreme QRS axis.", "D": "It presents a QRS axis deviated to the right with an rsR' pattern.", "E": "There are clear signs of left ventricular hypertrophy." }, "Correct Answer": "It presents a QRS axis deviated to the right with an rsR' pattern.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5d0ecb51-5615-463f-904d-d06af35fa036", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 13 What would be the suspicion of the pediatrician and what other complementary tests would be done to confirm it?", "Options": { "A": "I would suspect an innocent murmur and I would not do any more tests.", "B": "Given that it presents a left anterior hemiblock, it could be a partial atrioventricular canal (CIA ostium primun and cleft mitral), so a chest radiograph and an echocardiogram were performed.", "C": "Given that it presents a right axis and a rsR' pattern, an ostium secundum atrial septal defect could be treated and a chest X-ray and an echocardiogram were performed to confirm it.", "D": "It would be necessary to consider the implantation of a pacemaker.", "E": "As there are data of left ventricular hypertrophy, he would perform a family study to rule out hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." }, "Correct Answer": "Given that it presents a right axis and a rsR' pattern, an ostium secundum atrial septal defect could be treated and a chest X-ray and an echocardiogram were performed to confirm it.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "68e0e532-610d-4370-bab6-a9097a381799", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº14 A 75-year-old woman consulted for abdominal pain and increased abdominal perimeter. It does not refer previous history of liver disease. On physical examination, the abdomen is bulging with central tympany and changing dullness in the flanks. There are no masses or visceromegalies. In the analysis, only a hemoglobin figure of 10.9 g / dL, VCM 92 fl, with normal leukocytes and platelets stands out. Biochemistry and normal hepatic profile. By means of paracentesis, amber ascitic fluid with an albumin gradient of 0.7 and cytology suspected of malignancy is extracted. TAC (image) is provided. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Peritoneal pseudomyxoma.", "B": "Krukenberg's tumor.", "C": "Peritoneal mesothelioma.", "D": "Ovarian adenocarcinoma.", "E": "Colon adenocarcinoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Ovarian adenocarcinoma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ee908e27-20a0-4896-a58a-d0218707b842", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº14 Once the diagnosis of suspicion has been confirmed. What is the most correct therapeutic behavior?", "Options": { "A": "Cytoreductive surgery and chemotherapy with taxol-carboplatin.", "B": "Gastrectomy with double adnexectomy.", "C": "Laparoscopy with peritoneal washes and infusion of mitomycin and 5-fluorouracil.", "D": "Systemic chemotherapy with cisplatin and pemetrexed.", "E": "Laparoscopic surgery and chemotherapy with oxaliplatin and 5-fluorouracil (FOLFOX)." }, "Correct Answer": "Cytoreductive surgery and chemotherapy with taxol-carboplatin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bd22b523-4a4f-4cba-a1a7-31b69dcd2918", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº15 A 67-year-old patient who reported a decrease in unilateral visual acuity and rapidly evolving metamorphopsia. The attached retinography presents the image of the affected eye. The most likely diagnosis would be:", "Options": { "A": "Macular degeneration associated with exudative age.", "B": "Retinal detachment.", "C": "Retinitis pigmentosa", "D": "Central vein thrombosis of the ischemic retina.", "E": "Equatorial choroidal melanoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Macular degeneration associated with exudative age.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fa713b4e-7beb-4ff8-a100-fadde9d4069d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº15 The following diagnostic test that is most appropriate to perform in this patient is:", "Options": { "A": "Angiofluoresceingraphy.", "B": "Visual evoked potentials.", "C": "Vitreous sampling using vitrectomy.", "D": "Nuclear magnetic resonance.", "E": "Computerized field." }, "Correct Answer": "Angiofluoresceingraphy.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dd6b876f-538f-42f5-b853-b7372e3d72b6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº16 Patient of 48 years smoker. Consultation due to symmetrical and bilateral reddening in both feet accompanied by burning pain (image). The general examination, the neurological examination and the peripheral pulses are normal. The analytical highlights: Hb 16.8 g / dl, leukocytes 12,400 / mm3, platelets 720,000 / mm3. Biochemistry: Glucose 87 mg / dl, Creatinine 0.7 mg / dl, Protein 7.5 g / dl, Calcium 9.4 mg / dl, GOT 40 U / L, GPT 35 U / L, GGT 64 U / L, FA 124 U / L, LDH 187 U / L, VSG 24 mm / h. Hemostasis and normal immunoglobulins. Serology against hepatitis B and C negative virus. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Livedo reticularis.", "B": "Erythromelalgia.", "C": "Buerger's disease", "D": "Systemic mastocytosis.", "E": "Mixed cryoglobulinemia." }, "Correct Answer": "Erythromelalgia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cfb63626-4ccc-4897-9d76-2d99bc75bac9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 16 Which of the following will support the diagnosis of the underlying disease?", "Options": { "A": "Cutaneous biopsy.", "B": "Microangiography", "C": "Determination of cryoglobulins.", "D": "Serum tryptase.", "E": "JAK 2 mutation study." }, "Correct Answer": "JAK 2 mutation study.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "250116f0-5259-49ec-bf36-3826cdde88d5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº17 The following figure describes the survival function of the variable progression free of disease (Progression-free Survival, PFS) by the Kaplan-Meier method of two groups of patients. Group A: patients treated with the best support treatment (Best Suportive Care, BSC). Group B: patients who in addition to BSC receive Panitumumab. Data complementary to the figure: patients with disease progression: Group A = 184/232 (79%), Group B = 161/231 (70%). Percentage of censures: Group A = 24/232 (10%), Group B = 38/231 (16%). Log-rank test p <0.0001. Hazard Ratio [95% CI]: 0.54 [0.44-0.66]. Which of the following statements is correct:", "Options": { "A": "The gain in terms of the median time to progression in Group B does not exceed two weeks in relation to Group A.", "B": "To interpret the results of these two survival curves, it is necessary and sufficient to evaluate and contrast the percentages of progression, that is, 79% in Group A versus 70% in Group B.", "C": "The ratio of medians in time to progression of the two treatment groups is 0.54.", "D": "The log-rank test evaluates the average difference in the follow-up time.", "E": "The results of the log-rank test and the Hazard Ratio estimate (95% confidence interval, 95% CI), are not compatible since the first one indicates that the differences are significant while the second indicates that they are not." }, "Correct Answer": "The gain in terms of the median time to progression in Group B does not exceed two weeks in relation to Group A.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "63fdbdac-75e0-4fb2-916c-08b8356006d6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº17 Which of the following statements is correct:", "Options": { "A": "All the patients in the study except one had progression of the disease at 50 weeks of follow-up.", "B": "Since the survival curves overlap at the end of the follow-up time, the results should not be described as statistically significant.", "C": "The reduction of the risk of progression of the disease in group B (BSC + panitumumab) is 46% with respect to group A (BSC alone).", "D": "The average time to progression is the best estimator of the effect of the treatments and the difference between groups should be indicated to evaluate its relevance.", "E": "The Hazard Ratio analysis is not acceptable since the percentage of censorships is different between groups, p <0.0001." }, "Correct Answer": "The average time to progression is the best estimator of the effect of the treatments and the difference between groups should be indicated to evaluate its relevance.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "62edc9eb-4374-42ed-978b-e53c2ed5cd2a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The placenta is a derivative of:", "Options": { "A": "The zona pellucida.", "B": "The trophoblast.", "C": "The ectoderm", "D": "The mesoderm", "E": "The primitive line." }, "Correct Answer": "The trophoblast.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e6f84b04-bd60-4de3-ad4e-bbffddf2284b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Juan is 60 years old, smokes 2 packs / day for years and has been talking about persistent cough for 6 months. Check that your left eyelid is more droopy and that the pupil of that eye is smaller. Juan says that the medial part of his left hand is numb and less powerful. Your doctor checks for palpebral ptosis and left miosis; check that you can close both eyelids with symmetry and that both pupils respond correctly to the light. He also checks that he does not sweat through the left side of the face, that he feels less the puncture on the inside surface of that hand and that he has less strength in the grip of that hand. Regarding the ocular symptomatology, where is the lesion located?", "Options": { "A": "The sympathetic fibers, at some level that would span from the hypothalamus to the Clark-intermediate column of the dorsal medulla.", "B": "The left common ocular motor nerve in the mesencephalon.", "C": "The nucleus of Edinger-Westphal, above the nucleus of the left ocular motor nerve.", "D": "The parasympathetic fibers, at some level that would extend from the EdingerWestphal nucleus to the constrictor muscle of the left pupil.", "E": "The tarsal muscle exclusively." }, "Correct Answer": "The sympathetic fibers, at some level that would span from the hypothalamus to the Clark-intermediate column of the dorsal medulla.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5116820d-e0f6-431d-bdf2-58ea44380bb0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What root predominantly depends on the sensory innervation of the first toe?", "Options": { "A": "L3.", "B": "L4.", "C": "L5", "D": "S1", "E": "L2." }, "Correct Answer": "L5", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3c4607e1-4660-4fde-a67a-5b1df642e122", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The human papilloma virus (HPV) is involved in the pathogenesis of:", "Options": { "A": "Cervical cancer", "B": "Endometrial cancer.", "C": "Ovarian cancer.", "D": "Breast cancer", "E": "Burkitt lymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Cervical cancer", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "aec33912-ebf7-4d22-87a8-217435f75402", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hepatocytes in ground glass are characteristic of:", "Options": { "A": "Chronic hepatitis by HBV.", "B": "Chronic HCV hepatitis.", "C": "Chronic hepatitis by VH delta.", "D": "Toxic hepatitis.", "E": "Hepatitis for alcohol." }, "Correct Answer": "Chronic hepatitis by HBV.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dcc9ea0f-d4e9-4ee5-9247-aaeb9976f579", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most common pancreatic cancer is:", "Options": { "A": "The intraductal mucinous papillary tumor.", "B": "Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma.", "C": "The pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma.", "D": "The malignant insulinoma.", "E": "Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas." }, "Correct Answer": "Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ed34007d-26c9-4162-9f7f-19cbab2c2634", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 20-year-old man, with symptoms of ataxia, headache and solid-cystic mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere, underwent surgery, resecting a lesion that histologically shows cells with long and fine cytoplasmic processes, a fascicular and microcystic pattern, and numerous vessels and fibers. Rosenthal. The most likely antimopathological diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Pilocytic astrocytoma.", "B": "Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma.", "C": "Central neurocytoma.", "D": "Liponeurocytoma", "E": "Prion disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Pilocytic astrocytoma.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "052fb448-b922-456a-9b17-40266d06d3c1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and moderate heart failure attended the clinic due to a persistent and dry cough that started as a sensation of itching in the throat. In the analytical hyperkalemia is observed. What is the drug suspected of causing the clinical and analytical alteration of the patient?", "Options": { "A": "Hydrochlorothiazide.", "B": "Bisoprolol.", "C": "Furosemide.", "D": "Enalapril", "E": "Hydralazine" }, "Correct Answer": "Enalapril", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cd8aadc9-73f9-4681-9427-19c8c8df39c6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What factors depends on the apparent volume of distribution of a drug ?:", "Options": { "A": "Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and its elimination half-life.", "B": "Of its distribution coefficient and its elimination half-life.", "C": "Of its elimination half-life and its elimination constant.", "D": "Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and their distribution coefficient.", "E": "Of its constant elimination and its clearing." }, "Correct Answer": "Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and their distribution coefficient.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1d81a266-d8aa-4bef-8c24-e83cb94528d2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is a prodrug?", "Options": { "A": "A drug of series of a therapeutic class.", "B": "A drug that has been withdrawn from the market.", "C": "An inactive product that is enzymatically converted to an active drug.", "D": "A compound of natural origin from which one or more drugs are obtained by hemisynthesis.", "E": "A drug that lacks activity but enhances the action of others." }, "Correct Answer": "An inactive product that is enzymatically converted to an active drug.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "abf125ca-bd79-42fc-a7c8-a860c41a00f8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following pairings between anticoagulant drug and mechanism of action is INCORRECT?", "Options": { "A": "Heparin - cofactor of antithrombin III.", "B": "Acenocoumarol - inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase.", "C": "Dabigatran - inhibits thrombin.", "D": "Rivaroxaban - inhibits factor Xa.", "E": "Warfarin - inhibits the absorption of vitamin K." }, "Correct Answer": "Warfarin - inhibits the absorption of vitamin K.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f108dd8c-4490-403a-8469-daae09d0a7d1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Orally administered proton pump inhibitor drugs:", "Options": { "A": "Neutralize hydrochloric acid from gastric secretion.", "B": "They dye the stools black.", "C": "They block the histaminergic receptor.", "D": "They block the gastrin receptor.", "E": "They require enteric cover." }, "Correct Answer": "They require enteric cover.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "53da0c42-3652-4f6b-8bbb-106252021e8c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following statements about vascular smooth muscle is FALSE:", "Options": { "A": "Its main function is to maintain the tone of the vessels.", "B": "It is contracted by an increase in the intracellular calcium concentration.", "C": "Its contraction is controlled by the binding of calcium to troponin.", "D": "Its tone is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.", "E": "The endothelium modulates vascular smooth muscle tone." }, "Correct Answer": "Its contraction is controlled by the binding of calcium to troponin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1632e664-7406-4ae0-ae16-d1e4f5c704f5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a clinical trial of an antineoplastic drug, a significant increase in plasma levels of LDL (low density lipoproteins) is observed. Indicate among the following statements which is correct in the interpretation and consequences of this fact:", "Options": { "A": "LDL represents the transport mode of cholesterol from the intestine to the liver. Therefore, they reflect a greater incorporation of cholesterol from lipid intake.", "B": "LDL is involved in the reverse transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. Therefore, high levels are beneficial for lowering plasma cholesterol levels.", "C": "LDL are rich in triglycerides and low in cholesterol. An increase in plasma LDL reflects an increase in de novo synthesis and / or ingestion of triglycerides.", "D": "An increase in plasma LDL levels is beneficial because it protects the arteries from the formation of atherosclerotic plaques.", "E": "LDL transport cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues, where they enter the cells through endocytosis processes." }, "Correct Answer": "LDL transport cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues, where they enter the cells through endocytosis processes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "aa178a32-310a-46c1-8e4a-4a161e15bdd9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The glomerular filtration rate increases when:", "Options": { "A": "Increases the resistance in the glomerular afferent arteriole.", "B": "Decreases the resistance in the glomerular efferent arteriole.", "C": "Increases the activity of the renal sympathetic nerves.", "D": "Obstruction of the urinary tract occurs.", "E": "Decreases the concentration of plasma proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "Decreases the concentration of plasma proteins.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1f54c984-ec47-459d-a91c-48886f0872dd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A thirty-five-year-old man (index case) affected by ataxia and with clinical manifestations for three years, presents an expansive trinucleotide CAG mutation in heterozygosis in the ATXN1 gene. The molecular diagnosis is of spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1; 6p22.3) and in the genetic report it is said that the disease is of complete penetrance throughout life. In genetic counseling, the risks of transmitting the disease to their offspring will be explained to the index case. What follows from the above?", "Options": { "A": "Being the male index case, all female descendants will inherit ataxia; but no male child.", "B": "The mutation will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, who will develop ataxia from some point in their life.", "C": "The mutation will be transmitted to 25% of the descendants of the index case, who will develop ataxia from some point in their life.", "D": "The ataxia will be transmitted throughout the life of the index case affecting all of its offspring.", "E": "If the partner of the index case carries another SCA mutation (for example, in SCA36, great genetic heterogeneity), ataxia will be suffered by 25% of the descendants from some point in their life. If the couple is not a carrier, the ataxia will not be transmitted." }, "Correct Answer": "The mutation will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, who will develop ataxia from some point in their life.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4e40d83c-a6a5-4b39-a5e4-d6b68425cac9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 30-year-old man (index case) affected by Leber's optic atrophy presents the mutation of the mitochondrial genome LHON11778A. In genetic counseling you will be informed of the risks of transmitting the disease to your offspring. What information is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The index case will transmit the disease to all its male descendants (holándrica inheritance).", "B": "The disease will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, regardless of their sex.", "C": "The disease will be transmitted to all descendants of the index case, as it is of paternal inheritance.", "D": "The disease will be transmitted to female descendants; but to no man.", "E": "The disease will not be transmitted to the descendants of the index case, because it is of maternal inheritance." }, "Correct Answer": "The disease will not be transmitted to the descendants of the index case, because it is of maternal inheritance.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ec2e3565-b1e8-465b-b268-4b1f7e6036bb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the possibilities, in each pregnancy, of parents bearing a mutation in the CFTR gene, having a child with cystic fibrosis?", "Options": { "A": "0.01.", "B": "0.1", "C": "0,25.", "D": "0.5.", "E": "one." }, "Correct Answer": "0,25.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fe88cd3e-029b-472d-a343-78817d49355e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following answers is true about the HLA molecules?", "Options": { "A": "They are very polymorphic nuclear proteins.", "B": "They are divided into molecules of class IgG, IgA and IgM.", "C": "They join peptides and present them on the cell surface.", "D": "They interact with cytokines to modulate the immune response.", "E": "They are monomorphic." }, "Correct Answer": "They join peptides and present them on the cell surface.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "72adba4e-f7cd-4681-be4f-ec27879769f8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following clinical contexts is NOT the use of intravenous gammaglobulins recommended?", "Options": { "A": "Substitute treatment in humoral immunodeficiencies (defect in the formation of antibodies).", "B": "Prevention of monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS).", "C": "Treatment of Kawasaki syndrome.", "D": "Management of inflammatory / autoimmune neurological pathologies (Sd. Guillain-Barré, multiple sclerosis).", "E": "Therapeutic management of immune thrombocyanic purpura (ITP)." }, "Correct Answer": "Prevention of monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "30729036-9e4a-4e1f-b74d-7714469c293e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the biological advantages of fever is NOT found.", "Options": { "A": "Inhibits bacterial growth.", "B": "Increases bactericidal activity of phagocytes.", "C": "Stimulates the alternative route of the complement.", "D": "It stimulates the synthesis of acute phase proteins and immunoglobulins.", "E": "It produces serum iron sequestration." }, "Correct Answer": "Stimulates the alternative route of the complement.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b07d0e38-ecd0-47e3-9330-c1b7e8413197", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following cytokines exert an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect?", "Options": { "A": "Interleukin-1 alpha, interleukin-1 beta.", "B": "Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, Tumor necrosis factor-beta.", "C": "Interleukin-17, Interleukin-22.", "D": "Interleukin-10, Transforming growth factor beta.", "E": "Interleukin 2, Interferon-gamma." }, "Correct Answer": "Interleukin-10, Transforming growth factor beta.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9f0375a7-154d-4118-9d15-8d00ff397d3b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reactivation of a latent cytomegalovirus in an immunosuppressed patient can lead to a severe systemic picture. How would the ethological diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Detecting the specific IgG in the serum.", "B": "By urine culture in an advanced cell line.", "C": "By chain reaction of quantitative polymerase in the blood.", "D": "By detection of antigen in the urine.", "E": "By detection of specific IgM in the serum." }, "Correct Answer": "By chain reaction of quantitative polymerase in the blood.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "caa10b65-10f8-4aaf-a084-c21c087f9193", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In routine clinical practice, in patients infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who are undergoing antiretroviral treatment, the laboratory tool that is used to, in the short term, know if the treatment is being effective is:", "Options": { "A": "The levels of CD4 T lymphocytes, which increase rapidly if the treatment is being effective.", "B": "Anti-HIV antibody levels, which decrease when a combination of antivirals is effective.", "C": "P24 antigenemia, which increases in effective treatments.", "D": "Plasma viral load (HIV RNA per ml of plasma), which decreases to undetectable levels in effective treatments.", "E": "The intensity of the bands observed in the Western blot, which disappear if the treatment is effective." }, "Correct Answer": "Plasma viral load (HIV RNA per ml of plasma), which decreases to undetectable levels in effective treatments.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e58dd625-85c1-4d6d-a58d-97371d2cea56", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a subsidiary of treatment with viral protease inhibitors?", "Options": { "A": "The hepatitis C virus", "B": "The hepatitis B virus", "C": "The hepatitis A virus", "D": "The hepatitis E virus", "E": "The TTV virus." }, "Correct Answer": "The hepatitis C virus", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "58a0c437-75f6-47b6-b8d3-bc7ca596f5fd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following pathogens is the cause of cat scratch disease?", "Options": { "A": "Bartonella henselae.", "B": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "C": "Mycobacterium avium complex.", "D": "Toxoplasma gondii.", "E": "Epstein Barr virus." }, "Correct Answer": "Bartonella henselae.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1d2108ad-0850-4485-8f42-b3670f3e7d7c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex includes the bacillus that causes human tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis, Koch's bacillus), as well as other mycobacteria, among which are the following, except one:", "Options": { "A": "Mycobacterium bovis.", "B": "Mycobacterium africanum.", "C": "Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG).", "D": "Mycobacterium microti.", "E": "Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare." }, "Correct Answer": "Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "bae94c10-7f4b-4fd5-9dcd-64507f45d30f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "An 82-year-old patient comes to the clinic due to sudden and frequent dizziness, without prodromes, of short duration and that subside spontaneously, without ever presenting syncope. The physical examination and the baseline electrocardiogram are normal. In an ambulatory record of the electrocardiogram during 24 hours, short duration phases of absence of P waves before the QRS are detected with an escape rhythm of the atrio-ventricular junction with narrow QRS at 40 bpm and a wave at the beginning of the ST segment corresponding to a retrograde P. No periods of asystole greater than 3 seconds are detected. Before this you would say:", "Options": { "A": "The patient has an atrioventricular block of 3rd degree and requires the implantation of a pacemaker.", "B": "The absence of periods of asystole> 3 seconds excludes a cardiac cause of dizziness.", "C": "A pharmacological treatment that would increase conduction in the atrio-ventricular node would be indicated.", "D": "The patient presents a sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires implantation of a pacemaker due to the presence of symptoms.", "E": "The alterations detected in the ambulatory electrocardiogram are typical of patients of this age and there is no indication of therapeutic intervention." }, "Correct Answer": "The patient presents a sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires implantation of a pacemaker due to the presence of symptoms.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "afebbd19-a407-4aa5-9477-b82587613b9f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 82-year-old hypertensive woman on treatment with atenolol, hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin. He goes to the emergency room for atrial fibrillation and is administered verapamil i.v. Complete atrioventricular block is evidenced in ECG. What is the most likely cause of this clinical situation?", "Options": { "A": "Digitalis intoxication by pharmacokinetic interaction by verapamil.", "B": "Hypokalemia due to the administration of thiazide and digoxin.", "C": "Pharmacodynamic interaction of beta-blocker, digoxin and verapamil.", "D": "Hypotensive effect of the thiazide diuretic.", "E": "Cardiac arrhythmia due to verapamil." }, "Correct Answer": "Pharmacodynamic interaction of beta-blocker, digoxin and verapamil.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cd941aa9-405a-4437-9380-246e03f71c89", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old woman with a history of a heart murmur detected in the pediatric age. Enter the Emergency Department for symptoms of palpitations, easy fatigue and malignant edema. Physical examination reveals absence of cyanosis. Oxygen Saturation by pulse oximeter 97%. TA: 120/80 mm Hg. Irregular heart rate at 100 bpm. Systolic ejection murmur (2/6) in pulmonary focus. 2nd R unfolded, wide and fixed. No death rattles. Slight hepatomegaly (2-3 cm). Slight malleolar edema. ECG: complete arrhythmia due to atrial fibrillation at 100 bpm. AQRS: + 120º. Conduction disorder of the right branch of the bundle of His. What is your diagnostic orientation?", "Options": { "A": "Ventricular communication.", "B": "Aortic stenosis.", "C": "Mitral stenosis.", "D": "Interauricular communication.", "E": "Persistent ductus arteriosus." }, "Correct Answer": "Interauricular communication.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bd2b108c-4c68-4a39-859b-07534b605685", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Before a 60-year-old diabetic patient with stable angina secondary to ischemic heart disease due to subtotal obstruction in the middle third of the anterior descending coronary artery, what treatment would you propose?", "Options": { "A": "Doctor with vasodilators and beta-blockers to prevent angina.", "B": "Expectant with rigorous rest since the decrease in myocardial oxygen demand should decrease angina.", "C": "Surgical to revascularize the ischemic myocardium by means of a by-pass of the left mammary artery distal to the lesion in the diseased coronary artery.", "D": "Dilation of the coronary artery lesion by means of a therapeutic catheterization.", "E": "Therapeutic catheterization to dilate the injury of the diseased artery and implantation of a \"stent\" in the dilated area." }, "Correct Answer": "Therapeutic catheterization to dilate the injury of the diseased artery and implantation of a \"stent\" in the dilated area.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ac39bc7e-21db-4b74-88a2-c84f1a338b69", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which patient would an urgent coronary angiography be performed?", "Options": { "A": "66-year-old diabetic woman with a single episode of pain at rest and elevation of troponins.", "B": "A 77-year-old man admitted for two 30-minute episodes of pain with a decrease in the ST segment on the ECG during the episode of pain.", "C": "A 55-year-old man who, after a week of treatment with double antiaggregation, underwent an isotopic ergometry showing extensive ischemia in the anterior face.", "D": "A 65-year-old woman with pain at rest and positive clinical ergometry in the third stage of Bruce.", "E": "A 55-year-old patient admitted for chest pain and dyspnea saturating 80% despite the administration of oxygen and with an ECG with ST-segment depression in the anterolateral aspect that does not revert with the administration of intravenous nitroglycerin." }, "Correct Answer": "A 55-year-old patient admitted for chest pain and dyspnea saturating 80% despite the administration of oxygen and with an ECG with ST-segment depression in the anterolateral aspect that does not revert with the administration of intravenous nitroglycerin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8162f0dd-a116-4910-84a5-86b517a031dc", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What electrocardiographic alteration is interpreted as a subendocardial lesion?", "Options": { "A": "The reversal of the T wave.", "B": "The supra-leveling of the ST segment.", "C": "The tipped T wave.", "D": "The presence of Q wave", "E": "The rectilinear depression of the ST segment." }, "Correct Answer": "The rectilinear depression of the ST segment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3be8f888-cfcd-4ee9-828f-801b11d8c41b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 52-year-old patient who reported dyspnea of ​​medium effort for 6 months. He has not presented angina or syncopes. The physical examination and diagnostic tests show the existence of an average aortic transvalvular gradient of 55 mmHg and a calculated area of ​​0.7 cm2. Ejection fraction of 65%. The treatment that should be indicated to this patient is:", "Options": { "A": "Diuretics and more frequent controls by a specialist.", "B": "In case of increasing dyspnea on exertion, a percutaneous dilatation of the aortic valve with a balloon catheter should be performed.", "C": "Replacement of the aortic valve with a prosthesis / bioprosthesis.", "D": "Replacement of the aortic valve by a homograft.", "E": "Implantation of a percutaneous valve." }, "Correct Answer": "Replacement of the aortic valve with a prosthesis / bioprosthesis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "15fc3cee-cfdc-4e25-b6ff-6efbb3e2805f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "When it comes to pericardial tamponade, which of the following statements is NOT correct?", "Options": { "A": "Chest radiography is very useful for diagnosis.", "B": "The jugular venous registry allows to objectify a very deep collapse.", "C": "The presence of a paradoxical arterial pulse is common.", "D": "Right atrial collapse is very sensitive for diagnosis.", "E": "Right ventricular collapse is very specific for diagnosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Chest radiography is very useful for diagnosis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "80f24399-8f50-4cf4-9cac-9065610055e7", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following patients are sent to the hypertension clinic. Indicate which one you would NOT suspect secondary hypertension.", "Options": { "A": "25 year old woman with an abdominal puff.", "B": "Hypertension with hypokalemia in a 50-year-old man who does not take drugs.", "C": "A 55-year-old woman with a body mass index of 28 and dyslipidemia.", "D": "A 78-year-old woman who has not been controlled with 3 drugs for 3 months.", "E": "Man of 60 years with daytime sleepiness, morning headache and snoring." }, "Correct Answer": "A 55-year-old woman with a body mass index of 28 and dyslipidemia.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f83b2274-d1f4-4473-bf32-da6b8ed7faff", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of heart failure:", "Options": { "A": "Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARA II) have shown superiority over angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and should be the first therapeutic option.", "B": "Aldosterone antagonists have not shown prognostic improvement, being contraindicated in patients with advanced systolic dysfunction and functional grade IV.", "C": "Beta-blockers have been shown to decrease mortality in patients with decreased ejection fraction.", "D": "Cardiac resynchronization pacemaker therapy is indicated in patients with systolic dysfunction whenever the QRS is narrow (less than 120 msg).", "E": "The implantation of automatic defibrillators is contraindicated in patients with ventricular dysfunction, especially if it is caused by ischemia." }, "Correct Answer": "Beta-blockers have been shown to decrease mortality in patients with decreased ejection fraction.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6f32713f-e371-422c-b89c-022ab5789843", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with symptoms of heart failure who have a disproportionately high ascites in relation to peripheral edema, the most likely etiology would be:", "Options": { "A": "A severe aortic stenosis.", "B": "A dilated cardiomyopathy with significant left ventricular dysfunction.", "C": "A primary pulmonary hypertension.", "D": "An obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.", "E": "A constrictive pericarditis." }, "Correct Answer": "A constrictive pericarditis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5f897667-2149-4522-827e-35fcf5f2d047", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the FALSE afimation with respect to the cardiac \"third noise\":", "Options": { "A": "It is a low frequency sound.", "B": "It can occur in processes that increase the velocity or ventricular filling volume.", "C": "They appear at the end of diastole.", "D": "It is present in patients with severe mitral regurgitation.", "E": "It can appear in normal children and in patients with high cardiac output." }, "Correct Answer": "They appear at the end of diastole.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "457e5ce7-6fc0-4162-8a6f-8a3d3012e5c6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In choosing the type of cardiac valvular prosthesis (biological or mechanical) to be implanted in a patient, various aspects and characteristics of the patient and the prosthesis must be considered. In view of the aforementioned, point out the INCORRECT statement:", "Options": { "A": "Permanent anticoagulation is necessary in mechanical prostheses.", "B": "In general, biological prostheses are indicated in young patients, with long life expectancy.", "C": "Biological prostheses would be indicated in cases that present a formal contraindication for anticoagulation.", "D": "The rate of structural deterioration of a biological prosthesis is inversely proportional to the age of the subject.", "E": "Biological prostheses do not require permanent anticoagulation." }, "Correct Answer": "In general, biological prostheses are indicated in young patients, with long life expectancy.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e26fc926-556b-4bf6-9ac4-ff341147bea4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acute ischemia of a limb consists of a sharp decrease in arterial perfusion. It is important to differentiate between thrombosis and arterial embolism to be able to indicate the most appropriate treatment. Which of the following is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The presence of embolic focus and distal pulses in the contralateral limb leads to the suspicion of arterial thrombosis.", "B": "If the patient has a history of claudication and the clinic is of sudden onset, we will suspect arterial embolism in the first place.", "C": "If the contralateral limb has all the pulses present and the clinic starts slowly, we will suspect an arterial thrombosis.", "D": "If the clinic starts abruptly in a patient with embolism focus, we will suspect arterial embolism.", "E": "If the patient is a carrier of a previous arterial derivation, we will suspect arterial embolism." }, "Correct Answer": "If the clinic starts abruptly in a patient with embolism focus, we will suspect arterial embolism.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4842b7b6-bcc7-4fec-9b00-5318a53f3c01", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The characteristic Rovsing sign in acute appendicitis consists of:", "Options": { "A": "Pain in the epigastric pressure when applying a firm and persistent pressure on McBurney's point.", "B": "Acute pain that appears when the appendix is ​​compressed between the abdominal wall and the iliac crest.", "C": "Passive rebound sensitivity in the abdominal wall.", "D": "Loss of abdominal sensation when contracting the muscles of the abdominal wall.", "E": "Pain at McBurney's point when compressing the lower left quadrant of the abdomen." }, "Correct Answer": "Pain at McBurney's point when compressing the lower left quadrant of the abdomen.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "66de6626-f314-44b2-a89b-fbf17b8c8f36", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST), it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "These are tumors of epithelial origin, located mainly at the level of the mucosa of the digestive tract.", "B": "The mutation of the c-kit gene, which codes for a tyrosine kinase receptor, is characteristic of these tumors.", "C": "The treatment of localized tumors smaller than 2 cm is fundamentally medical, with the use of Imatinib.", "D": "They are tumors that only exceptionally bleed.", "E": "The most frequent localization of these tumors is the small intestine." }, "Correct Answer": "The mutation of the c-kit gene, which codes for a tyrosine kinase receptor, is characteristic of these tumors.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8d552ff5-fa5f-4491-8cc8-2742468b75a4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old man underwent a truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction, for suffering from a chronic peptic ulcer disease with pylorus-duodenal stenosis. Six weeks after the surgery, he reported that shortly after (less than half an hour) of the ingestions he presented with a nauseating state, asthenia and sweating, dizziness and abdominal cramps, usually accompanied by diarrheal descent. Which of the following is the most appropriate attitude for its initial management?", "Options": { "A": "Apply treatment with a somatostatin analog (octeotide).", "B": "Follow specific dietary measures.", "C": "Perform a test treatment with a benzodiazepine.", "D": "Perform the search for a probable neuroendocrine tumor (eg, carcinoid).", "E": "Indicate surgical treatment to perform an anti-peristaltic gastro-jejunostomy in Roux-en-Y." }, "Correct Answer": "Follow specific dietary measures.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5649126c-76b8-47aa-9462-d2bc58cdfa44", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the congenital anomalies of the abdominal wall are the omphalocele and gastroschisis. Both entities are defects of the wall. What is the difference between them?", "Options": { "A": "Omphalocele occurs at the umbilical level and gastroschisis at the epigastric level.", "B": "The defect, in the case of gastroschisis, is larger than the omphalocele.", "C": "In the omphalocele, a peritoneal sac covers the abdominal contents and not gastroschisis.", "D": "Omphalocele, unlike gastroschisis, is frequently associated with intestinal atresia.", "E": "Unlike the omphalocele, in gastroschisis the surgical treatment can be deferred." }, "Correct Answer": "In the omphalocele, a peritoneal sac covers the abdominal contents and not gastroschisis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "af4b7fba-eadf-4537-b8c0-1d3344022332", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 78-year-old woman went to the Emergency Department for pain in the left iliac fossa of 24 hours of evolution associated with fever and occasional vomiting. On examination, pain is palpated selectively in the left iliac fossa with a feeling of occupation, defense and positive decompression. Upon suspicion of acute diverticulitis. Which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The safest and best performing complementary scan is the enema with barium contrast.", "B": "In the case of a pelvic abscess, the placement of a percutaneous drainage guided with CT or ultrasound is indicated.", "C": "If surgical intervention is necessary after the acute episode is resolved, the laparoscopic approach is contraindicated.", "D": "In the case of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis, elective sigmoidectomy is indicated after the first acute episode has been cured.", "E": "If generalized peritonitis occurs, the most appropriate surgical technique is the practice of a derivative colostomy without resection of the affected sigmoid segment." }, "Correct Answer": "In the case of a pelvic abscess, the placement of a percutaneous drainage guided with CT or ultrasound is indicated.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6402c054-82c9-4e4f-b550-fd6d35b657c3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding intestinal polyposis, which of the following syndromes is NOT hereditary?", "Options": { "A": "Gardner syndrome.", "B": "Cronkhite-Canada syndrome.", "C": "Turcot syndrome.", "D": "Juvenile polyposis", "E": "Peutz-Jeghers syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Cronkhite-Canada syndrome.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6832b2bb-b9a4-4725-94be-9a7024e7f916", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 55-year-old man, the father of a celiac son, with iron deficiency anemia and a recent increase in the rhythm of deposition, has been determined to have a negative HLA-DQ2 and HLADQ8 allele. Which diagnostic study is the most appropriate in this case?", "Options": { "A": "Determination of IgA anti-transglutaminase antibodies.", "B": "Upper digestive endoscopy with taking of duodenal biopsies.", "C": "D-xylose test.", "D": "Evaluate the response to a gluten-free diet.", "E": "Colonoscopy" }, "Correct Answer": "Colonoscopy", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6734354f-1124-4f4c-a2a5-cbc8d8b62e97", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 37-year-old woman with an extensive ulcerative colitis has a severe outbreak where treatment with prednisone is started at a dose of 1 mg / kg. After a week of treatment, the patient does not show improvement. What is the next therapeutic measure to perform?", "Options": { "A": "Subtotal colectomy of urgency and in a second time proctectomy and ileoanal reservoir.", "B": "Associate an immunosuppressant such as azathioprine.", "C": "Associate mesalazine in doses of 4 grams per day oral and rectal triamcinolone 1 application every 12 hours", "D": "Endovenous cyclosporine 2 mg / Kg.", "E": "Treatment with etanercept (an anti-TNFa antibody) should be assessed." }, "Correct Answer": "Endovenous cyclosporine 2 mg / Kg.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "668a2853-25c1-419d-b2c3-47dbaa2a4d5f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a liver transplant patient who is receiving immunosuppression with tacrolimus, which of the following antibiotics markedly increases the levels of the immunosuppressant and should therefore be avoided?", "Options": { "A": "Amoxicillin clavulanic.", "B": "Ciprofloxacin", "C": "Erythromycin.", "D": "Cefuroxime", "E": "Norfloxacin." }, "Correct Answer": "Erythromycin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c177f642-b3b4-4d82-bf1c-ae6cd665af7e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What disease would we suspect in a young patient who reported a frequent history of dysphagia to solids and liquids with impaired food repeated, without clinical symptoms of pyrosis and in which multiple oral esophageal rings with normal mucosa (trachealized appearance) are observed in oral endoscopy?", "Options": { "A": "Herpetic esophagitis.", "B": "Eosinophilic esophagitis.", "C": "Candidiasic esophagitis.", "D": "Cytomegalovirus esophagitis.", "E": "Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus." }, "Correct Answer": "Eosinophilic esophagitis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d64f3c3b-217a-4484-b1d2-929543229645", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer. What is the FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "Much of the gastro-duodenal ulcers can be attributed to H. pylori infection or mucosal injury by NSAIDs.", "B": "H. pylori is not related to the development of gastric lymphoma.", "C": "The transmission of H. pylori occurs from person to person via oral-oral or fecal-oral.", "D": "A lower educational level and a low socioeconomic status predispose to higher rates of colonization.", "E": "The incidence of gastric adenocarcinoma is higher in patients with H. pylori." }, "Correct Answer": "H. pylori is not related to the development of gastric lymphoma.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1568cbf7-a551-4db8-a882-aa493a081a38", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 65-year-old woman with a history of joint pains treated with anti-inflammatories, who is referred for a study due to anemia. In the complementary studies it presents 3.164.000 red blood cells, Hto. 32%, Hb 11 g / dl, VCM 69 fl, Leukocytes 7800, Platelets 370,000, PCR 0.29 mg / dl, Fe 20 ng / ml, Ferritin 18 ng / ml, Glucose 105 mg / dl, GOT, GPT, GGT , F. Alkaline, total Bilirubin, Cholesterol, Creatinine, Calcium and Phosphorus normal. Ac. Anti-transglutaminase and negative antigliadin Ac. Gastroscopy: hiatus hernia of 3 cm, rest without alterations. Colonoscopy: up to blind, isolated diverticula in sigma. Intestinal transit without alterations. Ultrasound of the abdomen without alterations. Which of the explorations listed below do you find most appropriate to complete the study?", "Options": { "A": "Jejunal biopsy", "B": "Arteriography", "C": "Endoscopic capsule", "D": "Radioisotopes.", "E": "Pelvic MRI." }, "Correct Answer": "Endoscopic capsule", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dc6d7572-2344-49f8-ae7d-ec7243cb5e8f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient goes to a hospital emergency department presenting frank hematemesis. In the initial assessment the patient is pale and sweaty, has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg. Which of the following actions would NOT be performed in the initial care of this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Ensure adequate oxygenation of the patient.", "B": "Channel two heavy gauge peripheral routes.", "C": "Use the hematocrit as an index of blood loss.", "D": "Replace the blood volume with crystalloid solutions.", "E": "Place a nasogastric tube." }, "Correct Answer": "Use the hematocrit as an index of blood loss.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ffe5abed-2728-4225-9988-791764a8f9df", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about focal nodular hyperplasia of the liver is true?", "Options": { "A": "It is considered that its appearance is related to the consumption of contraceptives.", "B": "The risk of breakage hemoperitoneum is similar to that of the adenoma.", "C": "There is a risk of tumor degeneration.", "D": "It behaves as a focal hypovascular lesion in computed tomography with contrast administration.", "E": "In the histological study of the lesion, in addition to hepatocytes, bile ducts and other liver cells can be observed." }, "Correct Answer": "In the histological study of the lesion, in addition to hepatocytes, bile ducts and other liver cells can be observed.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d7b9e74a-9bba-49b5-adee-183dbf1c7dbe", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 50-year-old woman attended the emergency department for asthenia, anorexia, weight loss, jaundice, fever and abdominal pain. It does not refer to recent history of blood transfusion, risky sexual contacts or addiction to parenteral drugs. Usual consumption of 60 grams of alcohol per day during the last five years, consumption that has increased during the previous month due to family problems. Temperature 38.5ºC, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. Physical examination shows temporo-spatial disorientation, malnutrition, asterixis, jaundice and painful hepatomegaly. No ascites or peritoneal irritation data. Laboratory tests include leukocytes 15,000 / microliter with 90% polymorphonuclear cells, red blood cells 3 million / mm3, hemoglobin 10 g / dl, mean corpuscular volume 115 fl, bilirubin 15 mg / dl direct predominance, AST (GOT) 300 IU / L, ALT (GPT) 120 IU / L, GGT 635 IU / L, prolongation of prothrombin time greater than 50%. What is the most likely diagnosis of the condition presented by the patient?", "Options": { "A": "Liver abscess.", "B": "Acute cholecystitis.", "C": "Acute cholangitis", "D": "Alcoholic hepatitis", "E": "Acute pancreatitis" }, "Correct Answer": "Alcoholic hepatitis", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "605804be-7358-48c6-a320-029b81d0e0bd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 17-year-old boy, an athlete with no history of interest, goes to the doctor for occasional conjunctival jaundice. Denies drug intake and abdominal pain. In the analyzes performed, normal ALT, AST, GGT, and FA were observed, with total bilirubin of 3.2 mgr / dl and direct bilirubin of 0.4 mgr / dl. It does not have anemia and the liver is ecographically normal. What is your diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Rotor syndrome.", "B": "Coledocolithiasis", "C": "Dubin-Johnson syndrome.", "D": "Acute hepatitis", "E": "Gilbert's syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Gilbert's syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "97d4f21f-be9f-4a02-a47c-1920a33d467d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the presence of a patient with Crohn's disease who is going to start treatment with biological anti-TNF therapy (antibodies against tumor necrosis factor alpha), which of the following diagnostic tests is not necessary before initiating such therapy?", "Options": { "A": "Evaluation of the immune stage by lymphocyte count.", "B": "Serology of hepatitis B virus (HBV).", "C": "Tuberculin test.", "D": "Chest x-ray.", "E": "Serology of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)." }, "Correct Answer": "Evaluation of the immune stage by lymphocyte count.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "083671c9-630d-4499-aca2-ca11b6d11570", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The initial procedure of choice to investigate a possible obstruction of the biliary tract is:", "Options": { "A": "Hepatobiliary ultrasound.", "B": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).", "C": "Colangio Magnetic Resonance.", "D": "Computed tomography. Abdominal CT", "E": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepatobiliary ultrasound.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8c72ecb1-6b6a-47c0-a22b-2ea1c2037c00", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "54-year-old man who comes to review in his company. A body mass index of 32.8 kg / m2 and fasting blood glucose of 138 mg / L are detected. One month later, glycemia 130 mg / dL. What therapeutic recommendation would you make in the first place?", "Options": { "A": "Administration of metformin.", "B": "Prescribe a sulfonylurea.", "C": "Behavioral changes: Diet and physical exercise.", "D": "Insulin before each meal.", "E": "Take acarbose at night, before going to bed." }, "Correct Answer": "Behavioral changes: Diet and physical exercise.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cfc6b585-7342-4f3c-b82b-6e52f3ac4600", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus of 10 years of evolution performs treatment with metformin and sitagliptin. Does little physical exercise and performs a proper diet. In the last 6 months he has lost weight and has more asthenia. Their glycemic controls have deteriorated, going from basal glycemia of 110-140 mg / dl to glycemias of 170-200 mg / dl, as well as their glycosylated hemoglobin, which has gone from 7.1 to 8.5%. The most appropriate therapeutic measure to perform is:", "Options": { "A": "Increase the intake of protein and long chain carbohydrates in the diet to improve asthenia and weight loss.", "B": "Associate a dose of basal insulin with the treatment.", "C": "Associate acarbose treatment.", "D": "Replace sitagliptin with pioglitazone.", "E": "Replace metformin with glimepiride." }, "Correct Answer": "Associate a dose of basal insulin with the treatment.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "fa08af7a-c92d-4470-9bf7-d74191144ba1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old woman, worried about her risk of having a stroke, comes to our office because her mother died of this cause a year ago. He has a history of high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus, so he is being treated with glipizide, aspirin, enalapril and atorvastatin. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and does not exercise regularly. On examination, a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg is detected. The analytical highlights a hemoglobin A1c of 8% and an LDL cholesterol of 110 mg / dl. Which of the following is associated with a greater reduction in stroke risk?", "Options": { "A": "Achieve optimal levels of hemoglobin A1C.", "B": "Achieve an optimal control of blood pressure.", "C": "Add an antioxidant to the treatment.", "D": "Abandon tobacco", "E": "Achieve optimal levels of LDL." }, "Correct Answer": "Achieve an optimal control of blood pressure.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5d344e80-f888-4d43-bda8-b255b7c54cb1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 63-year-old woman attended the emergency service referring to intense headache with signs of meningeal irritation, bilateral visual alterations and ophthalmoplegia. A CT scan was performed showing space-occupying lesion in a 2 cm sella turcica compatible with pituitary adenoma with signs of intratumoral hemorrhage, with deviation of the pituitary stalk and compression of the glandular tissue. Indicate which of the following answers is INCORRECT:", "Options": { "A": "The diagnostic suspicion is a pituitary apoplexy.", "B": "Treatment should be started with corticosteroids at high doses and observe the evolution, since this treatment could reduce the volume of the lesion and avoid intervention.", "C": "Treatment with glucocorticoids should be considered to avoid secondary adrenal insufficiency that compromises the patient's vital prognosis.", "D": "The presence of ophthalmoplegia and visual defects are indications to intervene without delay by urgent surgical decompression.", "E": "After the resolution of the acute condition, the development of panhypopituitarism is frequent." }, "Correct Answer": "Treatment should be started with corticosteroids at high doses and observe the evolution, since this treatment could reduce the volume of the lesion and avoid intervention.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "46061135-8d89-4df9-88d3-ba18cfbdd6d4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old woman came to the consultation sent from Surgery with the diagnosis of a neuroendocrine tumor diagnosed after partial pancreatectomy due to a 2-cm tumor in the tail of the pancreas. The tumor had been detected by chance on an abdominal CT scan requested to complete the study of a simple liver cyst. Interrogating the patient, the background is irregular rules, being in amenorrhea for 6 months, and repetitive colic of recurrence from the age of 20 for those who have required lithotripsy on several occasions. In addition, he has a family history of renoureteral colic. What is your diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 or Wermer syndrome.", "B": "A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 A or Sipple syndrome.", "C": "A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B.", "D": "Somatostatinoma.", "E": "A neuroendocrine tumor producing PTH." }, "Correct Answer": "A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 or Wermer syndrome.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ba6530bc-70d5-498e-9e2b-0029e6a7061a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 54-year-old patient with an alcoholic intake of 110 g / day, admitted due to chronic diarrhea and the appearance of muscle cramps in recent days. In the analytical one, glucose stands out 320 mg / dL, Urea 25 mg / dL, Creatinine 0.75 mg / dL, Potassium 2.5 mmol / L (3.5-5.1), Calcium 2.0 mmol / L (2 , 2-2.5), Phosphorus 0.52 mmol / L (0.87-1.55) Magnesium 0.25 mmol / L (0.66-0.99) and Albumin of 28 g / L (3552) With what would initiate the treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Insulin.", "B": "Potassium.", "C": "Calcium.", "D": "Match.", "E": "Magnesium." }, "Correct Answer": "Magnesium.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "975272e6-63fb-4d75-8d90-5fda46fa5f34", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A calcium figure of 11 mg / dL (normal less than 10.5 mg / dL) is found in a 30-year-old patient during a routine business examination. The PTH determination was 45 pg / ml (VN 10-55 pg / ml). The story is anodyne, except for the fact that the mother and the paternal grandfather were diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and intervened, although they remained hypercalcemic. Which test is most useful to confirm the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "25-OH D.", "B": "1,25-OH 2D.", "C": "Calcium / creatinine ratio in urine.", "D": "Tubular reabsorption of phosphates.", "E": "PTHrP." }, "Correct Answer": "Calcium / creatinine ratio in urine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7964e3ac-4fc0-44fb-bd06-8eab28ef0ba8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What drugs are useful to stop endogenous hypercortisolism?", "Options": { "A": "Ketokonazol.", "B": "Methimazole", "C": "Octreotide.", "D": "Fludrocortisone", "E": "Propylthiouracil." }, "Correct Answer": "Ketokonazol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1d4119fe-364a-44fa-9c95-ea2350e6b5f5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 71-year-old man presented with severe pancytopenia without any immature cells and with a medullar study suggestive of severe aplastic anemia. What would be the fundamental therapeutic approach?", "Options": { "A": "Treatment with methylprednisolone at a dose of 1 g / Kg / day for 5 days.", "B": "Study of siblings and if any is HLA compatible, allogeneic transplant of hemopoietic progenitors.", "C": "Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin.", "D": "Hemotherapeutic support.", "E": "Chemotherapy and if autologous transplant response of hemopoietic progenitors." }, "Correct Answer": "Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2920c164-8c4b-4579-a444-d97b0d965e7a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a 29-year-old woman the following parameters are in the course of a routine analysis: Hb 11.5 g / dL, VCM 70 fl, HCM 28 pg, Ferritin 10 ng / mL, leukocytes 5,200 / mm3, platelets 335,000 / mm3. Physical examination is normal. The most indicated exploration in this situation is:", "Options": { "A": "Gynecological exploration.", "B": "Study of occult blood in stool.", "C": "Radiological study of the digestive system.", "D": "Electrophoresis of hemoglobins.", "E": "Test of Coombs." }, "Correct Answer": "Gynecological exploration.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9c2908b4-e794-400a-b5de-5c8af5bbbd18", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 68-year-old patient who consulted for edema and asthenia. In the analytical carried out, creatinine of 5 mg / dl, hemoglobin of 10 gr / dl and marked serum hypogammaglobulinemia at the expense of IgG, IgA and IgM are observed. A urinalysis reveals the presence of kappa light chains. What is your diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Disease due to deposit of light chains kappa.", "B": "Nephrotic syndrome.", "C": "Amyloidosis", "D": "IgA myeloma with Bence Jones preoteinuria.", "E": "Myeloma of light chains." }, "Correct Answer": "Myeloma of light chains.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "90e10806-9b18-49cb-80bd-099209798db1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 67-year-old patient on ticlopidine treatment went to the emergency department with headache, asthenia and petechiae in the lower extremities. In the analytical sample hemoglobin 8.2 g / dl, VCM 100 fl, platelets 25000 / ul and leukocytes 7500 / ul with normal formula. The number of reticulocytes is high and in the blood smear numerous schistocytes are observed. The coagulation studies (APTT, TP and Fibrinogen) are normal. In the biochemistry highlights LDH 2700 IU / l and bilirubin 2.6 mg / dl. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient?", "Options": { "A": "Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura.", "B": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "C": "Medullary aplasia.", "D": "Drug-induced thrombocytopenia.", "E": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation." }, "Correct Answer": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "71c3a0c5-85a6-4d3d-9509-10d2345ffa4c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 72-year-old man with a pathological fracture in the left femur goes to the Emergency Department. After the surgical intervention, the diagnostic study was performed to find out the underlying pathology with the following findings: hemoglobin 9.5 g / dl, total protein 11 g / dl, (VN: 6-8 g / dl), serum albumin 2 g / dl, (VN 3.5-5.0 g / dl), beta 2 microglobulin 6 mg / l (VN 1.1-2.4 mg / l), serum creatinine 1.8 mg / dl (VN: 0 , 1-1.4 mg / dl). Indicate what would be the diagnostic tests necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis:", "Options": { "A": "Radiological bone series and bone marrow aspiration.", "B": "Serum and urinary electrophoresis and renal function tests.", "C": "Bone marrow aspirate and serum calcium concentration.", "D": "Bone marrow aspiration and serum and urinary electrophoresis.", "E": "Biopsy of the pathological fracture and radiological bone series." }, "Correct Answer": "Bone marrow aspiration and serum and urinary electrophoresis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "396c4186-8342-4c4a-86e0-c6bdb3677e26", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 19-year-old girl with no medical history of interest, except for a self-limiting flu-like illness 3 weeks before, who went to the Emergency Department for petechiae and spontaneously occurring bruising. On physical examination, the patient is in good general condition, afebrile, normotensive and oriented in time and space. Petechiae disseminated by EEII and small abdomen and ecchymoses are observed in decubitus areas. No enlarged adenopathy or splenomegaly. The analysis carried out offers the following findings: Hb 12.6 g / dL, Leukocytes 5,500 / mm3, platelets 7000 / mm3. The study of the peripheral blood smear offers a normal erythrocyte morphology, normal differential leukocyte count and the platelet count is concordant with the autoanalyzer figure without observing plaque aggregates. Biochemistry, proteinogram, beta 2 microglobulin and normal LDH. What do you think is the most appropriate initial treatment of the following?", "Options": { "A": "Platelet transfusion.", "B": "Rituximab in weekly schedule.", "C": "Cyclophosphamide in pulses of 4 days every 21 days.", "D": "Plasmapheresis daily.", "E": "Prednisone at 1 mg / day for 2-3 weeks." }, "Correct Answer": "Prednisone at 1 mg / day for 2-3 weeks.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e7a06fa5-11ed-43ce-a5de-c96b907d0f23", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most appropriate first line treatment in classic stage IIA Hodgkin lymphoma is:", "Options": { "A": "Chemo type CHOP (6 cycles).", "B": "Chemotherapy type ABVD (2-4 cycles) followed by radiotherapy in the affected field.", "C": "Chemotherapy type ABVD (4 cycles) followed by autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.", "D": "Extended field radiotherapy (eg, Mantle type or \"Y inverted\" type).", "E": "Radiation therapy in affected fields." }, "Correct Answer": "Chemotherapy type ABVD (2-4 cycles) followed by radiotherapy in the affected field.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "abc41095-e40f-4546-9826-c313a93d2d47", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 34-year-old man consulted for fever and malaise. In the clinical history, homosexual relationships were collected for 4 months with a new partner. 2 months before the current consultation, she had an ulcerous lesion on the glans, painless, with bilateral inguinal adenopathies, all self-limiting. Serological studies are requested with the following results: HIV negative, RPR 1/320, TPHA 1/128. What treatment would you indicate in this patient?", "Options": { "A": "None.", "B": "Intravenous penicillin G, 24 MU every day for 14 days.", "C": "Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular, three doses in three consecutive weeks.", "D": "Ceftriaxone 2 grams intramuscular in a single dose.", "E": "Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular in a single dose." }, "Correct Answer": "Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular in a single dose.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "30f0ad49-ccea-45a2-8948-893aabedd12c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient under chemotherapeutic treatment for leukemia is admitted for pneumonia for which treatment with cefepime has been prescribed. A thorax Rx / CT scan shows an infiltrate with the sign of the halo and meniscus lunate. The lesion is peripheral and a transthoracic puncture is indicated for sampling. Until you have definitive histological and microbiological results, what antimicrobial would you add to the treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Ganciclovir", "B": "Caspofungin", "C": "Fluconazole", "D": "Piperacillin-tazobactam", "E": "Voriconazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Voriconazole", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f05ae693-7032-4b86-b553-6aafe5dcc414", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 54-year-old man diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 came to our clinic. He reported fever of 40ºC with chills and shivering, arthromyalgia and headache, which is why he started treatment with paracetamol. The painting began 24 hours before his return to Spain. After 3 days, he presented with a generalized maculo-papular rash that progressed to the formation of more intense petechiae in the lower limbs. It provides analytics where leukopenia stands out with 3,200 / mm3 and platelets 91,000 / mm3 and mild elevation of aminotransferases. Thickness, peripheral blood smear, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and malaria antigen are negative. What is the most likely suspected diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Coronavirus infection.", "B": "Lymphocyte choriomeningitis.", "C": "Dengue.", "D": "Chikungunya virus infection.", "E": "Encephalitis of Saint Louis." }, "Correct Answer": "Dengue.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "40da76a0-ff6f-48da-9591-c507a14a7335", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 53-year-old woman consulted for a fever of 15 days of evolution, without symptoms of infectious focality. On examination, a painful hepatomegaly was detected 5 cm from the costal margin and the spleen was palpated 14 cm from the left costal margin. The hemogram shows Hb 8.5 g / dL, Leucocytes 630 / mL (lymphocytes 63%, monocytes 20%, neutrophils 17%) and platelets 35,000 / mL. The biochemistry shows a moderate elevation of the liver biochemistry, LDH is normal and a polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia (3.5 g / dL) is observed in the proteinogram. She has a history of HIV infection known for 10 years and irregular adherence to antiretroviral treatment, with recent determinations of CD4 lymphocytes 350 cells / mL and viral load of HIV 154 copies / mL. During the last 3 months she has been treated for seronegative symmetric polyarthritis with 10-20 mg / day of prednisone. Which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "Perform a bone marrow biopsy, since the most likely diagnosis is visceral leishmaniasis.", "B": "Pancytopenia is justified by cirrhosis associated with virus C and would not perform further tests.", "C": "Probably it is a medullary toxicity by prednisone that would treat with withdrawal of the drug and filgastrim.", "D": "I would request a determination of ANAs to rule out disseminated systemic lupus.", "E": "It would intensify the antiretroviral treatment, since it is probable that all the manifestations that it presents are due to HIV." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a bone marrow biopsy, since the most likely diagnosis is visceral leishmaniasis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "626cd893-f31a-490c-a01f-425f6dcaa8f9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old patient diagnosed three years ago with multiple myeloma who is in a period of neutropenia after a cycle of chemotherapy. It enters due to fever, cough and yellowish expectoration. The chest radiograph shows a condensation image in the right hemithorax. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Post-chemotherapy toxic pneumonitis.", "B": "Pneumococcal pneumonia", "C": "Pneumonia due to aspergillus.", "D": "Viral pneumonia due to community respiratory virus.", "E": "Cytomegalovirus pneumonia." }, "Correct Answer": "Pneumococcal pneumonia", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5f50263b-3e8e-42fa-b7d4-cadb66bd3b6d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 50-year-old man with a chronic bronchitis who was admitted for a pneumonic episode with a blood culture positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae, with a CMI at penicillin of 0.0125 mg / l. Treatment with 2 million penicillin is started every 4 hours. On the fifth day it continues with a fever of 38ºC. Which of the following decisions do you think is right?", "Options": { "A": "I would change the treatment to ceftriaxone because of its greater efficacy.", "B": "I would add a quinolone to the treatment.", "C": "I would switch to amoxicillin / clavulanic acid.", "D": "It would rule out the presence of a pleural empyema.", "E": "I would continue with the same treatment, assuming that it is simply a problem of time." }, "Correct Answer": "It would rule out the presence of a pleural empyema.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "713458c0-1f84-4394-8c9a-652fe32c06ed", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 17-year-old boy referred to a health center referring to a 39-degree fever of 48 hours of evolution with a sore throat. The family doctor consults the history of the patient where it does not cost any previous illness. The patient did not report cough and the examination performed by his family doctor reveals the presence of bilateral whitish tonsillar exudate and anterior cervical adenopathies enlarged and painful on palpation. What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Penicillin V or amoxicillin.", "B": "Amoxicillin clavulanic.", "C": "Doxycycline", "D": "Ciprofloxacin", "E": "Metronidazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Penicillin V or amoxicillin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cf6f2abf-1d2f-4c1b-94df-1523a0d9ea0e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by tick bite?", "Options": { "A": "Lyme's desease.", "B": "Recurrent fever due to Borrelia hispanica.", "C": "Mediterranean botanical fever.", "D": "Rocky mountain spotted fever by R. rickettsii.", "E": "Exanthematic typhus" }, "Correct Answer": "Exanthematic typhus", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c45db876-6a31-4c8c-a0f6-de3c833e8997", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with a history of excessive alcohol consumption has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis due to cough, fever, expectoration, and isolation in the Mycobacterium tuberculosis sputum culture. The patient has begun treatment with isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol and pyrazinamide, with adequate tolerance. A report of resistance to rifampicin of M. tuberculosis isolated in the sputum is received 20 days after the start of treatment. What regime would you select based on this report?", "Options": { "A": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months.", "B": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months and streptomycin for two months.", "C": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months and a quinolone for two months.", "D": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and a quinolone for 18 months.", "E": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 18 months and streptomycin and a quinolone for two months." }, "Correct Answer": "Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and a quinolone for 18 months.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f2779f78-b2ef-48ad-86ad-7ecf9c7796b4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 20-year-old girl comes to the clinic with an acute fever, cervical adenopathy and skin rash. According to the patient, 3 weeks ago, she had a sexual relationship that could be at risk for contracting the HIV virus. Does it indicate which of the following answers is true?", "Options": { "A": "A negative HIV-1 / HIV-2 serology performed using the ELISA technique rules out the possibility that the patient has been infected with the HIV virus.", "B": "The clinical process suffered by the patient does not match that of acute HIV infection.", "C": "If the patient's ELISA test was positive, it would not be necessary to do anything else for the diagnosis of HIV infection.", "D": "The ELISA technique has a high sensitivity for the diagnosis of HIV infection, but its specificity is even greater.", "E": "If the ELISA test to diagnose HIV in the patient was negative, we could determine by the PCR technique the viral load in blood." }, "Correct Answer": "If the ELISA test to diagnose HIV in the patient was negative, we could determine by the PCR technique the viral load in blood.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cae07fcf-9241-4ad1-96e9-9dcdfa8c06b9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 16-year-old boy who consulted due to pultulose tonsillitis, fever up to 38.5ºC, painful cervical adenopathies, non-pruritic macular exanthema in the thorax and mild hepatosplenomegaly, 4-5 days old. The Paul-Bunnell test and the IgM for the Epstein-Barr virus are positive. During his admission he develops a continuous fever of up to 40ºC, pancytopenia, icteric hepatitis and coagulopathy of progressive intensity. One week after admission, he was transferred to the ICU due to confusion and respiratory failure. The blood cultures and a urine culture are negative, the CSF is normal and the chest plate does not show infiltrates. Procalcitonin is normal, but PCR and ferritin are very high. From the statements below, what would be the most correct diagnostic and therapeutic approach?", "Options": { "A": "It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered ceftriaxone and supportive treatment.", "B": "It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered vancomycin, ceftacidime and supportive treatment.", "C": "It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and glucocorticoids must be administered.", "D": "It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and treatment with acyclovir should be started.", "E": "Perform a biopsy / aspirate of bone marrow and if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, start treatment with immunosuppressants." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a biopsy / aspirate of bone marrow and if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, start treatment with immunosuppressants.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ea9965c6-c188-487d-b0b6-46f4acc71f4f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "30-year-old man without a history of interest. He came to the clinic because of the presence of small erythematous-violaceous lesions that appear elevated on palpation, in the pretibial region. The analytical study shows a blood count and coagulation study without alterations and in the biochemistry, creatinine and ions are also within the range of normality. The study of urinary sediment demonstrates hematuria, for which the patient had already been studied on other occasions, without obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Regarding the entity that you suspect in this case is FALSE that:", "Options": { "A": "In 20% to 50% of cases there is an elevation of the serum IgA concentration.", "B": "In the renal biopsy the mesangial deposits of IgA are characteristic.", "C": "The existence of proteinuria in the nephrotic range is frequent.", "D": "It is considered a benign entity since less than 1/3 of the patients progress to renal failure.", "E": "Skin biopsy allows the diagnosis to be established in up to half of the cases." }, "Correct Answer": "The existence of proteinuria in the nephrotic range is frequent.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d7f97034-5f11-4e51-96f2-86d7a495bd14", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 72-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure in stage 5. If a pulmonary thromboembolism is suspected, indicate which diagnostic test would be contraindicated:", "Options": { "A": "Transthoracic echocardiogram.", "B": "Pulmonary scintigraphy", "C": "Pulmonary angioCT.", "D": "Electrocardiogram.", "E": "Chest x-ray." }, "Correct Answer": "Pulmonary angioCT.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3b6695a4-1de4-4cb7-83a2-2079ab68e8a9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Except in patients whose chronic renal failure is due to diabetic nephropathy or tubulointerstitial nephropathy, the arterial blood gas pattern that you would expect to find in a patient with chronic renal failure would be:", "Options": { "A": "pH 7.30, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 116 mg / dL, because metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap is characteristic.", "B": "pH 7.46, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 116 mg / dL, because hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis is characteristic.", "C": "pH 7.456, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 100 mg / dL, because metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap is characteristic.", "D": "pH 7.46, HCO3 30 mEq / L, Cl 90 mg / dL, because metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap is characteristic.", "E": "pH 7.45, HCO3 23 mEq / L, Cl 100 mg / dL, because metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap is characteristic." }, "Correct Answer": "pH 7.456, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 100 mg / dL, because metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap is characteristic.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "259e6957-6e5e-42ca-9fc5-fef214d96f15", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the definition of chronic kidney disease, one is INCORRECT:", "Options": { "A": "It requires persistent presence of structural or functional alterations of the kidney for at least 2 months.", "B": "It includes alterations in urine as proteinuria, independently of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).", "C": "It includes a lower GFR of 60 ml / min / 1.73m2 of body surface regardless of the presence or absence of other markers of kidney damage.", "D": "It is classified into 5 stages according to the TFG.", "E": "The preparation for renal replacement therapy should be done in stage 4." }, "Correct Answer": "It requires persistent presence of structural or functional alterations of the kidney for at least 2 months.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "51751207-fd2b-4bc7-b0b1-b6a291d5cfb5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 38-year-old man consulted for dyspnea and hemoptysis. Blood tests have creatinine 7 mg / dl, urea 250 mg / dl and anti-MBG (anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies) positive high titer. A renal biopsy was performed, showing crescents in 75% of the glomeruli, and in the immunofluorescence a linear Ig deposition pattern appeared. Which of the following is the correct answer?", "Options": { "A": "It is an Ig A Nephropathy with acute renal failure.", "B": "The performance of plasmapheresis would be indicated.", "C": "It is a membranous glomerulonephritis.", "D": "Mycophenolate mofetil is the initial treatment of choice.", "E": "Glomerular involvement is caused by the presence of circulating immune complexes." }, "Correct Answer": "The performance of plasmapheresis would be indicated.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "662ede1f-c9ff-4c4e-83de-79e8d12107f6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a renal transplant patient, which of the following characteristics is the characteristic of acute renal rejection?", "Options": { "A": "Interstitial infiltrate of B lymphocytes.", "B": "Preferably infiltrated with T lymphocytes in the renal interstitium and in the renal tubules.", "C": "Fibrosis and tubular atrophy.", "D": "Proliferative glomerulonephritis without affecting the interstitium.", "E": "Presence of circulating antidonant antibodies and renal infarcts." }, "Correct Answer": "Preferably infiltrated with T lymphocytes in the renal interstitium and in the renal tubules.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5dbe57f2-3775-46c6-8116-8ecaef2f0888", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding benign prostatic hypertrophy, it is NOT true that:", "Options": { "A": "Abdominal ultrasound is a non-invasive method to assess prostate size and post-voiding residual.", "B": "It can cause increases in PSA levels.", "C": "Rectal examination is a method to estimate prostate size.", "D": "Treatment with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors decreases symptoms.", "E": "It is a precancerous lesion." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a precancerous lesion.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "96c640a6-4faa-46ea-a4c2-b799b37ff185", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 26-year-old patient with no prior medical-surgical history came to the emergency room for dyspnea of ​​15 days of evolution. No findings of interest were detected on the physical examination except a nodule of hard consistency in the left testicle. A chest x-ray is performed, showing multiple pulmonary nodules in \"balloon release\". His analytical highlights a B-hCG of 30,000 mIU / ml. What do you think is the most probable origin of the pathology of this picture?", "Options": { "A": "Seminoma", "B": "Renal angiomyolipoma.", "C": "Wilms tumor.", "D": "Testicular choriocarcinoma.", "E": "Non-Hodgkin lymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Testicular choriocarcinoma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f31f1484-01f3-45bf-9a45-760100b3a446", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Before a 49-year-old man, asymptomatic, with a family history of a father who died of prostate cancer, a PSA (Specific Prostate Antigen) of 5.9 ng / ml was identified in a routine company control, with a PSA ratio free / Total PSA of 11% and that in a digital rectal examination there is an increase in consistency in the right prostatic lobe, what is the following clinical indication?", "Options": { "A": "Ask the patient to perform a transrectal ultrasound and prostate biopsy.", "B": "Perform a abdominopelvic CT scan.", "C": "Start treatment with 5 alpha reductase inhibitors to halve PSA levels.", "D": "Start combined treatment of LHRH analogues and antiandrogens.", "E": "Perform a bone scan." }, "Correct Answer": "Ask the patient to perform a transrectal ultrasound and prostate biopsy.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c7568831-e40a-4f39-993d-d070bc429ecc", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 54-year-old man is diagnosed with a left kidney tumor suggestive of renal cell carcinoma. In his preoperative analytical study, elevated levels of GPT, alkaline phosphatase and alpha-2-globulin and elongated prothrombin time are detected. The liver is enlarged diffusely, but without defects of hepatic infiltration. The most probable justification for these findings is due to:", "Options": { "A": "Liver metastases.", "B": "Intrahepatic tumor thrombosis.", "C": "Acute hepatitis", "D": "Presence of hepatotoxic substances produced by the tumor.", "E": "Hemochromatosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Presence of hepatotoxic substances produced by the tumor.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "69152744-1aa5-47f7-90a6-fc5905fafa45", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 55-year-old asthmatic patient goes to the ER with an exacerbation. One hour after the administration of supplemental oxygen and two nebulizations of salbutamol the patient does not improve. On examination, he breathed at 42 rpm with supraclavicular drainage and presented disseminated inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. The peak flow has dropped from 310 to 220 L / min. A gasometry extracted with oxygen at 28% shows a pO2 of 54 mmHg and a pCO2 of 35 mmHg. Which of the following attitudes seems LESS indicated?", "Options": { "A": "Increase oxygen flow.", "B": "Administer 80 mg of methylprednisolone iv.", "C": "Nebulize ipratropium bromide together with salbutamol every 20 minutes.", "D": "Administer intravenous magnesium", "E": "Start non-invasive mechanical ventilation." }, "Correct Answer": "Start non-invasive mechanical ventilation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c82c042e-ae4d-45cd-b2a5-c8a16682a8f1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Faced with a 23-year-old patient who went to the emergency room on a Friday morning after a street fight, with clear signs of enolism and knife injury (stabbing) at the level of III right intercostal space 3 mm from the sternal margin, actively bleeding and hemodynamically unstable associated with marked hypophonia of all right hemithorax. Which structure of the following should you think may be injured?", "Options": { "A": "Right primitive carotid artery.", "B": "Right internal thoracic artery.", "C": "Right subscapular artery.", "D": "Upper right thyroid artery.", "E": "Thigh superior thymic artery." }, "Correct Answer": "Right internal thoracic artery.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9fbd308c-61af-4a7a-8ac3-c56e57e89d14", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding COPD, which one is FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "Smoking is the most important factor in the development of COPD.", "B": "Contrary to asthma, there is no inflammatory component.", "C": "The genetic factor to develop better documented COPD is the deficit of alpha1 antitrypsin.", "D": "Acropachies are not characteristic of COPD and their presence should suggest associated bronchiectasis or bronchopulmonary carcinoma.", "E": "Spirometrically, obstruction is detected by a FEV1 / FVC ratio of less than 0.70." }, "Correct Answer": "Contrary to asthma, there is no inflammatory component.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c4e6efa3-b397-47db-bab0-070600a7fd30", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in stable phase, polyglobulia and respiratory insufficiency are evident. The chest radiograph shows no noticeable alterations. Which of the following procedures would you consider to carry out in the first place to rule out the coexistence of other diseases that may justify the described findings ?:", "Options": { "A": "Respiratory polygraphy", "B": "Echocardiogram.", "C": "Thoracic computed tomography.", "D": "Pulmonary scintigraphy", "E": "Puncture of bone marrow." }, "Correct Answer": "Respiratory polygraphy", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7750527a-0a44-48ee-b84c-ec02b8df4932", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old woman is found lying on the street by some passers-by. When the emergency team arrived, they found it with an oxygen saturation of 88% breathing ambient air and a punctiform pupil examination. It is transferred to the nearest hospital emergency, where arterial blood gas analysis shows: pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, PaO2 58 mmHg, bicarbonate of 26 mEq / L and excess of bases of -1. In blood sodium is 137 mEq / L and chloride 100 mEq / L. From a gasometric point of view, the patient has:", "Options": { "A": "Partial respiratory failure.", "B": "Metabolic acidosis.", "C": "Pure respiratory acidosis", "D": "Respiratory alkalosis due to lack of chlorine.", "E": "The gasometry can only be of venous blood." }, "Correct Answer": "Pure respiratory acidosis", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "530993d7-1c83-4aa1-9af6-b5c3a4ec27fe", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 50-year-old patient with a pleural effusion with the following characteristics: straw appearance, pH 7.3, ratio of pleura / serum proteins 0.8, ratio of LDH pleura / serum 0.9, Gram and Ziehl negative, total lipids, cholesterol and normal triglycerides, cells mesothelial <5%, intense lymphocytosis without atypia, ADA 64 U / l. What diagnosis do you suggest?", "Options": { "A": "Pleural empyema", "B": "Pleural effusion due to heart failure (transudate).", "C": "Pleural mesothelioma.", "D": "Tuberculous pleural effusion", "E": "Secondary effusion to pulmonary infarction." }, "Correct Answer": "Tuberculous pleural effusion", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9bf94f87-c9fe-4c3c-8a68-318ad52fa06c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis and ascites, which develops a pleural effusion with the following data in the pleural fluid: LDH 45 U / L (serum 220 U / L), protein ratio pleura / serum 0.3 and ratio LDH pleura / serum 0.2. What would be the right attitude?", "Options": { "A": "The study of the fluid with cell count, glucose, pH, ADA, cholesterol and culture should be expanded.", "B": "Blind pleural biopsy.", "C": "Diagnostic video-assisted thoracoscopy.", "D": "Empirical antibiotic therapy for suspected parapneumonic effusion.", "E": "Continue the treatment of your liver disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Continue the treatment of your liver disease.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "54db74bb-de09-4903-b547-9d0a7ccbc650", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the functional examination of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, all findings are expected to be LESS one:", "Options": { "A": "FEV1 less than 80%.", "B": "DLCO decreased.", "C": "FEV1 / FVC ratio lower than 0.7.", "D": "Lung volumes decreased.", "E": "Negative bronchodilator test." }, "Correct Answer": "Lung volumes decreased.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3819eb55-87b3-4b45-9e20-5a6083a0a073", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most common cause of mildmoderate hemoptysis is:", "Options": { "A": "Bronchiectasis", "B": "Bronchogenic carcinoma", "C": "Hemorrhagic diathesis.", "D": "Pulmonary infarction.", "E": "Pneumonia." }, "Correct Answer": "Bronchiectasis", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ca1c740e-00da-4165-a4b2-e201f5a69a8a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 65-year-old man with a history of pancreatic cancer undergoing chemotherapy. Emergency consultation for pain and edema of the entire lower limb from the groin. Which diagnostic test is more cost-effective to confirm the diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Dimer D.", "B": "Magnetic resonance.", "C": "Phlebography", "D": "Venous Doppler ultrasound.", "E": "Helical CT" }, "Correct Answer": "Venous Doppler ultrasound.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bdfdc552-2882-4c89-a209-3a0cd88c2daf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 40-year-old woman who consulted for approximately 20 episodes a day of intense pain, left periocular of 15 minutes duration, accompanied by intense lacrimation and rhinorrhea. Your scan and magnetic resonance are normal. Your treatment of choice would be:", "Options": { "A": "Indomethacin", "B": "Lamotrigine", "C": "Verapamil", "D": "Prednisone.", "E": "Lithium carbonate." }, "Correct Answer": "Indomethacin", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7c07f203-86b5-42d6-a185-bbdc6151d698", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate in what clinical situation would NOT indicate beginning interferon beta in a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis:", "Options": { "A": "Multiple recurring outbreaks.", "B": "Bad response to corticosteroids in outbreaks.", "C": "Having suffered a single outbreak of the disease with sequelae.", "D": "Be over 50 years old", "E": "A progressive primary clinical form." }, "Correct Answer": "A progressive primary clinical form.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f0e8e9d3-7d6b-4be6-8a7b-fa535c58d4c6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What drug should be recommended for the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?", "Options": { "A": "Phenobarbital.", "B": "Valproic acid.", "C": "Oxcarbazepine", "D": "Diphenylhydantoin.", "E": "Topiramate." }, "Correct Answer": "Valproic acid.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e3ff793-5475-49ac-b609-fb79df23cc95", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Motor symptoms in Parkinson's disease predominate and define this entity. However, symptoms in other spheres are sometimes very relevant and are referred to by the general name of \"Non-motor manifestations of Parkinson's disease\". Which of the following is considered a non-motor symptom of Parkinson's disease?", "Options": { "A": "Hypoglycemia", "B": "Orthostatic hypotension.", "C": "Absence crisis.", "D": "Headache", "E": "Motor polyneuropathy." }, "Correct Answer": "Orthostatic hypotension.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5cad02c7-f78a-4097-8e55-7df5c7699c9b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "After a traffic accident, a 38-year-old patient enters the ICU in a coma. After several days the patient does not improve neurologically and CT shows hemorrhagic punctate lesions in the corpus callosum and cortico-subcortical union. What is your diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Acute subdural hematoma.", "B": "Thrombocytopenic purpura.", "C": "Cerebral hemorrhagic contusion.", "D": "Severe diffuse axonal injury.", "E": "Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy." }, "Correct Answer": "Severe diffuse axonal injury.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2e99a4c7-0328-42e3-99dd-a2b377a890d5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of patients with Alzheimer's disease, which of the following treatment options do you consider most appropriate?", "Options": { "A": "The initial treatment of any type of urinary incontinence with drugs such as oxybutynin is of choice due to its anticholinergic effects.", "B": "Treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.", "C": "For the treatment of associated depression prioritize the use of tricyclic antidepressants.", "D": "The typical neuroleptics at high doses.", "E": "Estrogen replacement therapy." }, "Correct Answer": "Treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d7b9119c-4048-417a-879d-2dea7a5615e5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 76-year-old man consulted for cognitive deterioration, slowness and awkwardness of movements, of eight months of evolution. The family reported that the patient had visual hallucinations, so his Primary Care physician prescribed low doses of risperidone, with a significant worsening of motor status. In view of these data, what is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Alzheimer disease.", "B": "Dementia due to Lewy bodies.", "C": "Frontotemporal dementia.", "D": "Vascular dementia", "E": "Occasional Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Dementia due to Lewy bodies.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ee618a47-86c5-4d5d-9b3e-9ec64821276d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What sign or symptom is NOT typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome?", "Options": { "A": "Facial paralysis.", "B": "Sphincter alteration.", "C": "Hiccup or tendinous tendon reflex.", "D": "Muscular weakness.", "E": "Dysautonomia" }, "Correct Answer": "Sphincter alteration.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2115eca0-7fae-43db-821f-7308bdc9555a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following clinical signs is NOT seen in the lesions of the lower motor neuron?", "Options": { "A": "Paralysis.", "B": "Amyotrophy", "C": "Fasciculations.", "D": "Arreflexia", "E": "Hypoesthesia" }, "Correct Answer": "Hypoesthesia", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0ecade5f-bf3e-40cb-a493-ddab8c327264", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "An 80-year-old man is admitted with a sudden picture of aphasia and right hemiparesis. As background highlights, hypertension, well controlled diet and cognitive impairment in the last year under study by his neurologist. Emergency cranial CT demonstrates a left frontal lobar hematoma without contrast enhancement. What is the most likely cause of the hematoma?", "Options": { "A": "Arteriovenous malformation masked by the acute hematoma.", "B": "Chronic arterial hypertension.", "C": "Vasculitis isolated from the nervous system.", "D": "Brain tumor.", "E": "Amyloid cerebral angiopathy (congophilic angiopathy)." }, "Correct Answer": "Amyloid cerebral angiopathy (congophilic angiopathy).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "48899bd5-c3ee-4935-bcd6-8794518cc438", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "NOT true about Rheumatoid Arthritis:", "Options": { "A": "Early diagnosis, intensive treatment and close control of the disease are essential.", "B": "Methotrexate is the drug of first choice to control the activity of the disease.", "C": "The rheumatoid factor is typical of the disease and is a mandatory criterion for diagnosis.", "D": "The specificity of citrullinated peptide antibodies is very high and has a prognostic value.", "E": "Biological drugs, such as anti TNF, have revolutionized the treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "The rheumatoid factor is typical of the disease and is a mandatory criterion for diagnosis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "94720406-2b31-4e1f-896b-e8f755a8e9c2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 75-year-old woman, with menopause at 52 years of age, with no family or personal history of a fracture, diagnosed with temporal arteritis, who is going to start treatment with prednisone at high doses and with an expectation of treatment for at least one year. The delay of densitometry (DXA) in its center is 4-5 months. Preventive treatment of osteoporosis is proposed. Among the following, which is the most appropriate attitude ?:", "Options": { "A": "Request DXA and wait for the result.", "B": "Assess absolute risk of fracture using the FRAX questionnaire without BMD and treat only if it is high.", "C": "Start treatment with bisphosphonates and vitamin D (800 IU / day).", "D": "Administer calcium supplement (1g) and vitamin D (800 IU / day).", "E": "Assess if you have osteopenia on the radiographs and treat if it is present." }, "Correct Answer": "Start treatment with bisphosphonates and vitamin D (800 IU / day).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6d319df9-ad75-4a77-af5b-27dd1fb97726", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The diagnosis of sarcoidosis is based on:", "Options": { "A": "Clinical-radiological compatible picture and presence of non-caseating granulomas in one or more organs, with negative cultures of mycobacteria and fungi.", "B": "Elevation of the serum level of the angiotensin conversion enzyme in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture.", "C": "Characteristic radiological findings in high-resolution computed tomography of the chest in a patient with clinical suspicion.", "D": "Presence of lymphocytic alveolitis with predominance of CD4 + lymphocytes in bronchoalveolar lavage in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture.", "E": "Finding of granulomatous cellularity in a fine needle aspiration puncture (FNAP) of an affected organ in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture." }, "Correct Answer": "Clinical-radiological compatible picture and presence of non-caseating granulomas in one or more organs, with negative cultures of mycobacteria and fungi.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "28e8718f-4d95-49fe-85cf-5cf59322170a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The treatment of choice of Giant Cell Arteritis (Tertiary Arteritis or Horton's Arteritis) corticodependiente is:", "Options": { "A": "Etanercept.", "B": "Endovenous cyclophosphamide.", "C": "NSAID", "D": "Methotrexate", "E": "Rituximab" }, "Correct Answer": "Methotrexate", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d77dd6a9-6f1d-4d83-821a-6908be8fb9e5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 14-year-old boy, 158 cm tall and weighing 76 kg, who came to our clinic for presenting for 4 months, without a previous traumatic event, mechanical pain in the right inguinal region, presented in the current clinical exploration, lameness with March with slight attitude in external rotation of said lower limb and limitation of hip flexion in neutral rotation. The diagnosis of suspicion will be:", "Options": { "A": "Fracture of the femoral neck.", "B": "Proximal femoral epiphysiolysis.", "C": "Perthes disease.", "D": "Still's disease", "E": "Transient synovitis of the hip." }, "Correct Answer": "Proximal femoral epiphysiolysis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c8808bc4-6c26-4e98-8e69-7d142f22f2ee", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 56-year-old woman presents, after a casual fall to the floor, pain, deformity and increased volume in the left arm, with impossibility for the dorsal flexion of the hand. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Trocheter fracture in the left humerus.", "B": "Diaphyseal fracture of the left humerus with radial nerve injury.", "C": "Supraconcondylar fracture of the humeral palate with median nerve injury.", "D": "Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus with radial nerve injury.", "E": "Fracture of displaced epitrochlea with ulnar nerve injury." }, "Correct Answer": "Diaphyseal fracture of the left humerus with radial nerve injury.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ee81e28d-bfae-4764-9893-08807afe4401", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old man presents, for a few months, without previous trauma, lumbar pain, difficulty walking, loss of strength and paresthesias in lower limbs, having to stop a few meters after starting it. The patient is increasingly inclining the trunk forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Osteoporotic lumbar vertebral fracture.", "B": "Central herniated disc L5-S1.", "C": "Spondylodiscitis.", "D": "Stenosis of the lumbar canal.", "E": "Degenerative lumbar scoliosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Stenosis of the lumbar canal.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8e13c34f-4820-4f59-bee9-b91e576742f1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 36-year-old patient who came to the emergency room for pain and swelling in the epiphyseal region of the right tibia. The radiographic image is lytic, eccentric and insufflates the cortex. In which tumor lesion will one have to think as more probable?", "Options": { "A": "Osteosarcoma.", "B": "Tumor of giant cells.", "C": "Encondroma.", "D": "Osteoid osteoid", "E": "Chondrosarcoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Tumor of giant cells.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2206437b-a613-417a-b3dc-00d382a695fe", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 78-year-old woman is undergoing surgery to implant a definitive pacemaker for atrio-ventricular block. His personal history includes high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus and morbid obesity. The procedure is long and laborious due to the obesity of the patient and is carried out through infiltrations with local anesthetic. At forty-five minutes after the beginning of the intervention, she begins to show agitation and progressive disorientation. She says she is dizzy and does not see or hear well. Physical examination shows a discrete bilateral mydriasis, shivering and distal tremors in the upper extremities. What would be the most logical attitude to follow in this clinical picture?", "Options": { "A": "Neurological symptomatology leads to toxicity due to local anesthetics. The administration of local anesthetic should be interrupted, intravenous diazepam or midazolam administered, the procedure completed as soon as possible and the patient placed under clinical observation.", "B": "The symptomatology is clearly compatible with an acute ischemic stroke. The neurological examination must be completed once the implantation of the pacemaker has been completed and treatment with low molecular weight heparin has begun at a dose of 0.5 mg per kg per day, after an urgent CT scan.", "C": "The clinical picture is compatible with an anxiety crisis caused by pain during implantation of the pacemaker. The correct treatment includes a greater infiltration with the local anesthetic to relieve pain and the administration of intravenous diazepam for its anxiolytic effects.", "D": "Given the clinical history of the patient, it is most likely that she is suffering from an acute coronary syndrome. An electrocardiogram should be performed, obtain a CPK-MB determination and notify Cardiology to initiate the appropriate treatment.", "E": "An urgent determination of blood glucose should be made, since the clinical picture could correspond to a diabetic ketoacidosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Neurological symptomatology leads to toxicity due to local anesthetics. The administration of local anesthetic should be interrupted, intravenous diazepam or midazolam administered, the procedure completed as soon as possible and the patient placed under clinical observation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6076ec2c-3e6d-4fc8-871a-ae69468938bb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "84-year-old man with severe respiratory failure secondary to carcinomatous lymphangitis associated with gastric cancer. A companion of his service has begun, that same day, treatment with oral morphine 10 mg / 4 hours. The patient is restless, at 34 breaths per minute, O2 saturation is 80% with an FiO2 of 28%. What should his attitude be?", "Options": { "A": "Withdraw treatment because it may worsen respiratory failure.", "B": "Increase the doses up to 20 mg / 4 hours according to evolution.", "C": "Increase oxygen flow to 35%.", "D": "Change the treatment of morphine by scopolamine.", "E": "To add to a treatment of a risperidon." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase the doses up to 20 mg / 4 hours according to evolution.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9edfb7a4-d69f-4ee3-a706-97c074fd2994", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following circumstances does NOT define a patient with chronic pathology?", "Options": { "A": "A 66-year-old woman diagnosed with hypertension, Crohn's disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic retinopathy.", "B": "75-year-old ex-smoker, FEV1 75%, IMC 25, creatinine 1.2, anxiety-depressive syndrome. Pfeiffer 30 and Barthel 100.", "C": "An 82-year-old man diagnosed with osteoarthritis, with Barthel 40, hypertension and pharmacologically controlled dyslipidemia and Alzheimer's disease.", "D": "A 55-year-old ex-smoker, diagnosed with symptomatic peripheral arteriopathy and ulcerative colitis.", "E": "A 70-year-old man with enolism, portal hypertension and immobilized at home for 5 years by ACV." }, "Correct Answer": "75-year-old ex-smoker, FEV1 75%, IMC 25, creatinine 1.2, anxiety-depressive syndrome. Pfeiffer 30 and Barthel 100.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b1b66e79-1b91-45ac-bcd3-326b3913f220", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A woman of 90 years of dementia, incontinent and immobilized by hemiparesis presents a sacral ulcer of grade III. In the examination we see that he is in bed on a wet pad and with a feeding tube that is well placed. He is afebrile and has a normal pulse and blood pressure. It has a 4 x 4 cm sacral ulcer that extends into the fascia with green exudate and normal skin surrounding the ulcer. What is the first priority in the care of this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Start treatment with antibiotics.", "B": "Cultivate the decubitus exudate.", "C": "Apply semi-moist bandages of saline three times a day.", "D": "Make postural changes to the patient every two hours.", "E": "Place a permanent urinary catheter." }, "Correct Answer": "Make postural changes to the patient every two hours.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d7fb9b06-6c0c-467e-8c80-c0ade55c3fa6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is a more reliable marker of malnutrition in the elderly patient?", "Options": { "A": "Weight loss of 1 kg in the last month.", "B": "Body mass index greater than 24.", "C": "Difficulty swallowing, chewing and / or lack of appetite.", "D": "Albumin 4.5 gr / dl.", "E": "Mini Nutritional Assessment less than 17." }, "Correct Answer": "Mini Nutritional Assessment less than 17.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "250d2316-47e9-429d-84f2-6a65e8613ffa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "One patient is diagnosed with a 4 cm lung cancer without pleural contact in the right upper lobe. The extension study reveals the presence of metastasis in right parahilar nodes, without evidence of distant metastasis. The staging of the tumor will be:", "Options": { "A": "Stage I.", "B": "Stage IIA.", "C": "Stage IIB.", "D": "Stage IIIA.", "E": "Stage IIIB." }, "Correct Answer": "Stage IIA.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "49491dd6-4436-4651-998e-16f1466316d7", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the treatment of a non-smoking woman with non-small cell lung carcinoma, stage IV adenocarcinoma, which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The determination of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutation is required.", "B": "Entry Gefitinib is the standard treatment without EGFR determination.", "C": "It has a standard treatment based on camptothecins.", "D": "Any type of standard chemotherapy is valid.", "E": "There is no predictive factor for this disease." }, "Correct Answer": "The determination of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutation is required.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "79d937e8-84c2-488d-a551-5c9d5512a5f9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "80-year-old woman who consults for presenting, for 1 month, progressive increase of the abdominal perimeter. During the previous 4-5 months note asthenia, anorexia and weight loss not specified. On physical examination, tension ascites and malleolar edema are seen, with no other relevant signs. Ultrasonography and CT scan of the abdomen demonstrate the presence of ascites, of homogeneous density, without appreciating peritoneal implants or abdominal or pelvic masses. Liver, pancreas, adrenal glands, spleen and kidneys without significant findings. Paracentesis is performed through a thick needle, obtaining a somewhat yellowish, dense and gelatinous fluid with difficulty. What is the most likely etiology?", "Options": { "A": "Hydropic decompensation secondary to liver cirrhosis.", "B": "Chylose ascites due to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.", "C": "Peritoneal tuberculosis.", "D": "Peritoneal metastasis of adenocarcinoma.", "E": "Ascites secondary to constrictive pericarditis." }, "Correct Answer": "Peritoneal metastasis of adenocarcinoma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "47df8e54-b04b-427f-a724-e3a70b552121", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "As for the agonizing rattles (pre-mortem rales), it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "It is a situation well tolerated by the family.", "B": "They originate a silent breathing.", "C": "They are treated with morphine.", "D": "They are treated with prokinetics.", "E": "They are treated with scopolamine." }, "Correct Answer": "They are treated with scopolamine.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "06d5f98e-8f24-495f-9c08-4f4e159cd8ce", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to intoxication by anticholinergic agents, point out the correct answer.", "Options": { "A": "In its treatment, atropine is used.", "B": "The presence of grade III or IV encephalopathy, acute renal failure and severe coagulopathy indicate liver transplantation.", "C": "Dantrolene is indicated in case of seizures.", "D": "The basic treatment consists of the repeated administration of activated charcoal and support measures.", "E": "The decrease in plasma cholinesterase confirms the diagnosis." }, "Correct Answer": "The basic treatment consists of the repeated administration of activated charcoal and support measures.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1eef2f39-931f-45c3-ade2-c23642cba026", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 67-year-old man, a schizophrenic in medical treatment, is treated in a city in southern Spain on August 15 for presenting fever and deteriorating levels of consciousness. On examination, she presented a Glasgow coma score of 5 points, tachypnea at 45 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry of 75%, rectal temperature of 41 ºC, and in the laboratory the CPK is 30,000 U / L. A lumbar puncture is performed that is normal. Point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "Cooling by immersing the patient in a bathtub with ice is the safest method to reduce the temperature.", "B": "It is not necessary to sedate the patient, intubate them and connect them to mechanical ventilation.", "C": "Liver involvement is rare in this pathology.", "D": "In case of hypotension, dopamine should be used at doses higher than 10 micrograms / kg / minute.", "E": "The cerebellum is especially sensitive to elevated temperature above 40 degrees." }, "Correct Answer": "The cerebellum is especially sensitive to elevated temperature above 40 degrees.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7d567c30-2b09-4aa7-9c9f-cb45dcf57d52", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Given the suspicion of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, how would you start the complementary exams?", "Options": { "A": "Digestive transit.", "B": "Gastric pHmetry", "C": "Simple radiology", "D": "Ultrasound", "E": "Isotopic study" }, "Correct Answer": "Ultrasound", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d30f5ec0-18bb-4468-b2b6-b77ace7da6b1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the growth and development of a healthy child in the first year of life, which of the following statements is NOT true?", "Options": { "A": "Between 3 and 4 months of age, the weight gain rate increases to around 40 g per day.", "B": "At 4 months, birth weight doubles.", "C": "The weight of a newborn can decrease 10% of the weight at birth during the first week.", "D": "The perception of permanence of an object is a milestone of fundamental development, which occurs around 9 months of age.", "E": "At one year of age, she is able to walk hand in hand, use the index-thumb clamp to pick up an object without help and deliver it to another person on request or gesture and use a few words in addition to \"dad\" and \"mom\"." }, "Correct Answer": "Between 3 and 4 months of age, the weight gain rate increases to around 40 g per day.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a1396910-5d18-44d8-84b6-c1fd29c90031", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "0 months previously healthy with acute gastroenteritis of one day of evolution and signs of mild dehydration, without blood or mucus in the stool and without oral intolerance. What is the initial choice treatment in our environment?", "Options": { "A": "Intravenous rehydration, absolute diet 8 hours and start feeding with astringent diet.", "B": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L) and continue with your usual diet.", "C": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L), maintain regular feeding and oral amoxicillin for 10 days.", "D": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L) and start feeding with lactose-free formula.", "E": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L), maintain regular feeding and loperamide 7 days." }, "Correct Answer": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L) and continue with your usual diet.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "98e879fa-9197-4d10-bbce-22c664b94f45", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "The lack of treatment causes a progressive postnatal virilization.", "B": "For the diagnosis, a stimulation test with ACTH is necessary.", "C": "In the male sex, the external genitalia are ambiguous at birth.", "D": "In the female sex, the external genitalia are normal at birth.", "E": "Prenatal treatment with glucocorticoids prevents the disease." }, "Correct Answer": "The lack of treatment causes a progressive postnatal virilization.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "95b1006a-25ac-41d3-a7bd-89f41413709b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following associations (disease - symptom or clinical sign) is incorrect?", "Options": { "A": "Measles - Koplik spots.", "B": "Sudden exanthema - Fever.", "C": "Infectious erythema - Anemia due to spinal aplasia.", "D": "Varicella - occipital adenopathies.", "E": "Scarlet fever - Fever and dysphagia." }, "Correct Answer": "Varicella - occipital adenopathies.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c7be3245-c082-4121-a50a-7c12a649b0c2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Infant of 1 month of life who goes to the hospital emergency department referred by his pediatrician for jaundice. He has been referring for 10 days and has been increasing. In the blood test, a total bilirubin of 7 mg / dl stands out, with indirect bilirubin being 1.5 mg / dl. The most likely cause, among the following, of this jaundice is:", "Options": { "A": "Biliary tract atresia", "B": "Jaundice due to breastfeeding.", "C": "Isoimmunization 0-A late onset.", "D": "Gilbert's disease.", "E": "Hereditary spherocytosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Biliary tract atresia", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "53c2fad8-125c-47f3-a7cd-ab0b19b3e563", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer in relation to breastfeeding:", "Options": { "A": "It is important that the mother disinfect her nipple well before starting each feeding.", "B": "The first feeding of breastfeeding should not be done before 6 hours of life.", "C": "Breastfeeding requires a fixed and strict schedule: one feeding every 4 hours.", "D": "Breastfeeding should not occur after 12 months of life.", "E": "The WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding until 6 months of age." }, "Correct Answer": "The WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding until 6 months of age.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "964b0697-bf8a-4305-852d-471052cb5352", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 4-year-old boy comes to the Health Center who, 5 minutes earlier, begins with angioedema on his face, conjunctivitis, nasal congestion and hoarseness, coinciding with the intake of a spoonful of yogurt that was mistakenly given him at school. Among the background is diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy. The examination revealed mild hypotension, heart rate 110 beats / min, Sat O2 93%, pale and somewhat sweaty, with disseminated wheezing. What is the first treatment of choice?", "Options": { "A": "Induce vomiting.", "B": "Adrenaline subcutaneous 1/1000.", "C": "Adrenaline 1/1000 intramuscular.", "D": "Intramuscular methylprednisone.", "E": "Nebulized salbutamol." }, "Correct Answer": "Adrenaline 1/1000 intramuscular.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "38d40a1a-1cb8-4a36-ba31-f395dfa2027c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Woman of 40 weeks of gestation in labor with 6 cm of dilation. Presents fetal decelerative pattern in cardiotocographic record so it is decided to perform a fetal blood microtome to assess fetal well-being. Result pH 7.22. The correct behavior is:", "Options": { "A": "Severe acidosis Caesarean section urgent.", "B": "Prepatological value, repeat take in 15-20 minutes.", "C": "Moderate acidosis, repeat take in 1-2 hours.", "D": "Value in normal limits, leave natural evolution of childbirth.", "E": "Repeat at the time, possible error in obtaining the shot." }, "Correct Answer": "Prepatological value, repeat take in 15-20 minutes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c49b87ec-b08e-4350-8e96-a12e2badc91c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 32-year-old woman asks for preconceptional advice. The patient reports that she underwent cervical conization due to a high-grade intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) and that she subsequently suffered three miscarriages between 20 and 22 weeks of gestation. He does not have living children. On all three occasions he went to the Emergency Department with a sensation of weight in the hypogastrium and there it was found that he arrived with a dilatation of 8 cm and with prominent amniotic membranes. I had never felt contractions. What advice would you give for the next pregnancy?", "Options": { "A": "I would recommend prophylaxis with atosiban orally throughout the pregnancy.", "B": "It would offer lung maturation with corticosteroids from 19-20 weeks of gestation.", "C": "I would recommend performing a cervical cerclage programmed from the 14th week of gestation.", "D": "I would advise you not to try more pregnancies because of the high risk of recurrence.", "E": "I would recommend resorting to assisted reproduction techniques." }, "Correct Answer": "I would recommend performing a cervical cerclage programmed from the 14th week of gestation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a85bacac-b0ac-4e9d-bb9d-99c94d10445a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the INCORRECT response regarding infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and pregnancy:", "Options": { "A": "The scheduled cesarean does not reduce the vertical transmission rate of the virus.", "B": "The pregnant woman will be offered the possibility of performing antiretroviral treatment whatever her stage of the disease, in order to prevent the vertical transmission of the virus.", "C": "Vertical transmission of the virus is associated with maternal viral load.", "D": "HIV serology must be offered to every pregnant woman at the first consultation, whatever the time of pregnancy.", "E": "Women infected with HIV have an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, intrauterine fetal death and intrauterine growth retardation." }, "Correct Answer": "The scheduled cesarean does not reduce the vertical transmission rate of the virus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0dc58382-2753-427a-aabc-eca5d8a25bdf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 27-year-old woman, pregnant for 10 weeks and with persistent severe allergic asthma. Currently, it is adequately controlled with daily inhaled budesonide and inhaled salbutamol at the request of rescue. Go to your consultation concerned about the possible teratogenic effects of your antiasthmatic medication. Which of the following would be the correct attitude?", "Options": { "A": "Since asthma improves during pregnancy in most patients, it is best for the patient and the fetus to discontinue anti-asthmatic treatment.", "B": "Suspend budesonide because it has been linked to an increased risk of fetal malformations and replace it with an oral antileukotriene (montelukast).", "C": "Remove the current treatment and replace it with oral prednisone at the lowest possible dose.", "D": "Maintain the current treatment and reassure the patient about its side effects and the need for adequate control of asthma during pregnancy.", "E": "Replace budesonide with an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody (omalizumab) for its greater safety in pregnancy as it is not a drug." }, "Correct Answer": "Maintain the current treatment and reassure the patient about its side effects and the need for adequate control of asthma during pregnancy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "678ff35b-ea99-4064-8f4f-252cf6570c69", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is currently the only contraindication for conservative surgical treatment in breast cancer?", "Options": { "A": "Prior radiotherapy.", "B": "Tumor of 4 cm.", "C": "Axillary metastasis.", "D": "Multifocal tumor", "E": "Pregnancy of 32 weeks." }, "Correct Answer": "Prior radiotherapy.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9b84055f-dd7b-4a8e-a28e-e887ab1c96a3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 16-year-old woman consulted for primary amenorrhea. It presents a normal female development of secondary sexual characteristics. The levels of estradiol and testosterone are normal. In the gynecological examination, agenesis of the vagina is appreciated. Ultrasound is performed and there is absence of uterus. The ovaries are normal ultrasound. No left kidney is seen. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Rokitansky syndrome.", "B": "Morris syndrome.", "C": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.", "D": "Polycystic ovarian syndrome.", "E": "Kallman syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Rokitansky syndrome.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ee44b3a2-bca1-45f6-8ec4-6e740cf7f980", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Homosexual male of 30 years of age HIV (+) who participates as a volunteer in a help center for patients with AIDS. According to her clinical history she received diphtheria toxoid (Td) 6 years ago, the MMR vaccine in childhood and adolescence, and hepatitis B three years ago. He is currently asymptomatic with a CD4 count greater than 200 cls / μl. What vaccines should we recommend?", "Options": { "A": "Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A.", "B": "Seasonal flu, Td, pneumococcal and tetravalent meningitis.", "C": "Templavalent meningitis, pneumococcal and seasonal influenza.", "D": "Td, tetravalent, pneumococcal meningitis.", "E": "Viral triple, seasonal flu, pneumococcal." }, "Correct Answer": "Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cabf22a8-d75e-4211-b443-1aacf592e1fb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In order to check the efficacy of a treatment to stop smoking, a control group (placebo) is compared with a treated group. For groups to be comparable it is important that they do not differ much in the age of the participants. We are informed that the average age in the control group is 52 years and that in the treated group it is also 52 years. From this information we can say that:", "Options": { "A": "The groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable.", "B": "If the study is well designed, it can not give us the same average age in both groups.", "C": "To compare the distribution of the age variable in both groups, it would be convenient to know a measure of dispersion as the standard deviation in addition to the mean.", "D": "For the final conclusion it does not matter the distribution of age in both groups, only if the treatment is effective or not.", "E": "If, in addition to the mean, the median and the fashion agree, we can affirm that the groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable." }, "Correct Answer": "To compare the distribution of the age variable in both groups, it would be convenient to know a measure of dispersion as the standard deviation in addition to the mean.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ffb2c52a-cba5-4564-b75a-93e5e8c66cfa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A pediatrician wants to study overweight in children of 14 years, according to the values ​​of the BMI (body mass index). To estimate the necessary sample size, it proposes a confidence level of 95% and a precision of 1 unit of BMI. What other parameters do you need to know to determine the sample size?", "Options": { "A": "The average BMI in the population.", "B": "The variance of the BMI.", "C": "The mean and standard deviation of the BMI.", "D": "The size of the population and the average BMI.", "E": "The standard deviation of the BMI and the population size." }, "Correct Answer": "The variance of the BMI.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "85f60e60-fa78-4ca7-b331-a40ad2159b28", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Pearson correlation coefficient indicates that there is a statistical association between two variables when:", "Options": { "A": "Its value is positive.", "B": "Its value is between -1 (minus one) and 1 (one).", "C": "Its value approaches zero.", "D": "Its value is equal or very similar to the sample size used for its calculation.", "E": "Its value approaches its possible extreme values, -1 (minus one) or 1 (one)." }, "Correct Answer": "Its value approaches its possible extreme values, -1 (minus one) or 1 (one).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "bed406bb-3811-40f6-b5fe-35565d1da0f5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "If you want to estimate the effects of an intervention, you will use:", "Options": { "A": "A transversal design.", "B": "A retrospective design", "C": "An ecological study.", "D": "A randomized clinical trial.", "E": "An observational design with random selection of the participants." }, "Correct Answer": "A randomized clinical trial.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2b676d4e-d4eb-4e4d-a370-92498f598c36", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about the meta-analysis is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The objective of the meta-analysis is to quantitatively summarize the results of the studies carried out.", "B": "The meta-analysis is a large clinical trial.", "C": "It would be desirable to avoid negative clinical trials, as well as unpublished ones, to prevent selection biases.", "D": "By definition, all meta-analyzes are a reliable source of evidence, the quality of the trials being irrelevant or if they include the results of randomized clinical trials.", "E": "The meta-analysis will correct the errors of carrying out the tests." }, "Correct Answer": "The objective of the meta-analysis is to quantitatively summarize the results of the studies carried out.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bed06ef8-8bfe-486a-b449-5b87a3b72324", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct definition:", "Options": { "A": "The Necessary Number to Treat (NNT) is the inverse of the Relative Risk (RR).", "B": "The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) can clearly differentiate the big risks and benefits of the small ones.", "C": "The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is a measure of the therapeutic effort that clinicians and patients must make to avoid negative results of their illnesses.", "D": "The Number Necessary to Damage (NND) is calculated by dividing the unit by the Number Needed to Treat (NNT).", "E": "The Absolute Risk Reduction (RRA) is calculated by the absolute difference of the episode rate in the control group minus the episode rate in the intervention group." }, "Correct Answer": "The Absolute Risk Reduction (RRA) is calculated by the absolute difference of the episode rate in the control group minus the episode rate in the intervention group.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a1a83cc4-e88e-4d25-bc79-e2d06088845a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a cohort study, the number of new cases of disease per person per unit of time is:", "Options": { "A": "The annual incidence.", "B": "The cumulative incidence or probability.", "C": "The prevalence rate", "D": "The density or incidence rate.", "E": "The relative risk of developing the disease." }, "Correct Answer": "The density or incidence rate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9dcbb3af-596d-4b08-bb37-5f8dbad08c5e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a clinical study to evaluate the efficacy of a new medication in the treatment of migraine crisis (point out the CORRECT):", "Options": { "A": "Strict inclusion criteria increase the external validity of the study.", "B": "Strict exclusion criteria reduce the internal validity of the study.", "C": "Control with a placebo arm increases the external validity of the study.", "D": "Masking reduces the internal validity of the study.", "E": "Randomization increases the internal validity of the study." }, "Correct Answer": "Randomization increases the internal validity of the study.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "98a50b4b-422d-4d7b-bce0-e268a560b4af", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We want to know if coffee consumption can be associated with neonatal malformation, so a control case study is designed. We interview a group of women who have had children with malformations and the same in a group of mothers without children with malformations. The interviews will be conducted by two interviewers trained through a previously validated questionnaire. In addition, interviewers ignore whether the interviewee is a case or a control. What kind of bias can we introduce?", "Options": { "A": "Information bias", "B": "Memory bias", "C": "Interviewer bias", "D": "Selection bias", "E": "Ecological fallacy" }, "Correct Answer": "Memory bias", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2d5ae244-5bb8-4419-9b25-85248fd0feed", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We want to study if Vitamin D can increase the incidence of breast cancer. In our area we have a population registry of cancer. To achieve our goal, all women diagnosed with breast cancer are selected from the register we have and each case pairs with two controls. What study design has been chosen?", "Options": { "A": "Prospective cohort study.", "B": "Cases and controls study.", "C": "Case-control study nested.", "D": "Retrospective cohort study.", "E": "Ecological study" }, "Correct Answer": "Case-control study nested.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f10a8826-6c7e-4643-b061-171bc2a7efe9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We want to conduct a study to assess the effect of exposure to alcohol consumption on pancreatic cancer. It is possible that the relationship may be affected by the effect of exposure to tobacco use. If you only want to analyze the effect of alcohol consumption, what type of bias can occur?", "Options": { "A": "Exposure bias", "B": "Diagnostic bias", "C": "Performance bias", "D": "Bias due to surveillance effect (or Hawthorne).", "E": "Confusing bias" }, "Correct Answer": "Confusing bias", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "59d9102d-0247-48fc-b4cb-5e8bd92f6e36", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between lung cancer and exposure to silica. 400 patients diagnosed with lung cancer are selected from the provincial tumor registry and 400 healthy people are chosen randomly from the population resident in the province. The result of the evaluation of this relationship is OR = 1.67; 95% CI = 1.27 - 2.21. It is true:", "Options": { "A": "There is no relationship between exposure to silica and lung cancer.", "B": "With this study, the relationship between silica and lung cancer can not be evaluated.", "C": "It is a randomized experimental study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer.", "D": "These data show that there is no statistical significance between exposure to silica and lung cancer.", "E": "It is a case-control study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a case-control study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f1f15f7b-8e72-47ba-88cb-796befaf5a84", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the designs of clinical trials to demonstrate efficacy of antidepressants, which of the following is FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "The inclusion in the design of clinical trials of secondary safety variables is important in order to establish the therapeutic location of the drugs studied.", "B": "In studies of depression it is not considered ethical to use a control group with placebo.", "C": "The efficacy of antidepressants is measured by the proportion of subjects with a predetermined percentage reduction in specific depression scales, such as Hamilton's or Beck's.", "D": "Due to the great variability of the response between one study and another, comparisons between active drugs with a noninferiority design do not allow to conclude efficacy in a robust way.", "E": "Although clinical improvement can be seen in one or two weeks, it usually takes 4 weeks of follow-up in clinical trials to establish significant differences." }, "Correct Answer": "In studies of depression it is not considered ethical to use a control group with placebo.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "485be052-3691-45bd-8f4a-109b353fbcaa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the phases of the clinical development of a drug, which of the following characteristics does NOT correspond to a clinical trial in phase 2?", "Options": { "A": "They are exploratory therapeutic studies.", "B": "They are performed in a large number of patients (between 100 and 1000).", "C": "They are used to delimit a range of therapeutic doses.", "D": "The informed consent of the patients is required for their inclusion in the study.", "E": "They are usually of short duration." }, "Correct Answer": "They are performed in a large number of patients (between 100 and 1000).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d8df77ad-02a0-4800-9bcc-de0be49751a6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A randomized phase III clinical trial compared the efficacy of a new analgesic (experimental) with a control treatment (tramadol) in patients with chronic pain. The working hypothesis was that experimental treatment reduces pain more than tramadol. The effect of the two treatments was determined at 48 hours by reducing the score marked by the patient on an analog - visual scale from 0 to 100 mm. The mean reduction in the tramadol group was -27 and in the experimental group of -31. The hypothesis was contrasted for the differences, with the corresponding statistical test and a value of p = 0.03 was obtained. Regarding the previous study, which of the following conclusions seems more correct?", "Options": { "A": "The study demonstrated clinically relevant differences.", "B": "The differences in the analgesic effect between the two treatments studied were significant.", "C": "The benefit - risk of the experimental treatment was better than that of tramadol.", "D": "The experimental treatment was 20% better than tramadol.", "E": "We can recommend the widespread use of experimental treatment, because it is more effective than tramadol in the treatment of chronic pain." }, "Correct Answer": "The differences in the analgesic effect between the two treatments studied were significant.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "91adf74d-b729-404f-af61-b4ad5da7182c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A clinical trial is conducted in hypertensive patients to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in reducing the occurrence of heart failure. The Relative Risk (RR) of heart failure in relation to the usual drug is 0.69 with a 95% CI of 0.31 to 1.17. What do these results mean?", "Options": { "A": "The new drug decreases the risk of heart failure significantly.", "B": "The new drug is very effective and should be marketed.", "C": "The reduction of the risk of heart failure with the new drug is clinically irrelevant.", "D": "There are no statistically significant differences between the effect of the drugs studied.", "E": "The new drug increases the risk of heart failure but not significantly." }, "Correct Answer": "There are no statistically significant differences between the effect of the drugs studied.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e63a2336-9c71-428e-83e6-d8813ef70cc1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "If we define the cut-off point to diagnose renal failure through the Glomerular Filtering Index (GFR) as 15 ml / min instead of 60 ml / min it is increasing:", "Options": { "A": "The sensitivity of the IFG.", "B": "The specificity of the IFG.", "C": "The Positive Predictive Value of the IFG.", "D": "The Negative Predictive Value of the IFG.", "E": "The internal and external validity of the IFG." }, "Correct Answer": "The specificity of the IFG.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4cf5e410-4aa0-4785-bddf-07aefe920e96", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We have two tests to diagnose a serious prognosis disease. Test A has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 60% and test B has a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 99%. We have an effective treatment but that produces important adverse effects and also has a very high cost. What test would we choose to make the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Test A because it will detect less false positives.", "B": "Test A because it has a higher sensitivity.", "C": "Test B because it will detect more false positives.", "D": "Test A because it will detect more false negatives.", "E": "Test B because it has a greater specificity." }, "Correct Answer": "Test B because it has a greater specificity.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "76916275-8d31-42e1-a1eb-d2f9f9d462fd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of economic evaluation analysis in health compares the costs of the results of different health interventions measured in years of life adjusted for quality (QALY)?", "Options": { "A": "Analysis of minimization of costs.", "B": "Cost effectiveness analysis.", "C": "Cost utility analysis.", "D": "Cost benefit analysis.", "E": "Analysis of the cost of health." }, "Correct Answer": "Cost utility analysis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e8e1169c-10da-4aee-a473-c99a35739a0d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "How would you define quality of care?", "Options": { "A": "The quality of care is the set of rules to ensure that things are done well.", "B": "The quality of care can be defined as the absence of incidents in the care of the sick.", "C": "The quality of care can be defined as the satisfaction of the needs and aspirations of patients-clients, both real and perceived, with the least consumption of resources.", "D": "The quality of care is defined through the implementation of improvement actions that ensure compliance with the objectives of the Quality Plan of the Health Center.", "E": "The quality of care is to treat the sick with all possible means." }, "Correct Answer": "The quality of care can be defined as the satisfaction of the needs and aspirations of patients-clients, both real and perceived, with the least consumption of resources.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "846538be-e645-41a8-828a-1ae4e2236e56", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old patient with a moderate smoking habit, no drinker, no other history of interest who has been diagnosed with squamous carcinoma of the oropharynx cT1N2b. It is pending decision of treatment in committee. What infectious agent would you be interested in confusing before proposing the treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Helicobacter pylori.", "B": "Herpes Simplex virus type 2.", "C": "Human papilloma virus.", "D": "Epstein Barr virus.", "E": "Cytomegalovirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Human papilloma virus.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "32a17571-6e7a-4d7c-8d96-01cf0bd87d0f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 25-year-old woman with no history of interest or toxic habits who went to the emergency room due to severe pain in her right ear, total inability to open her mouth, sudden onset and no previous history of trauma. It refers to the use of a discharge plate due to a nighttime dental clenching habit. What is your diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Dislocation of the mandibular condyle in front of the joint eminence.", "B": "Acute joint blockage (anterior dislocation of the articular meniscus).", "C": "Mandibular condyle fracture.", "D": "Fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint.", "E": "Bony ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute joint blockage (anterior dislocation of the articular meniscus).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9ae3b2ca-83e2-481d-95c1-396b3b32b2ca", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a patient presents a facial paralysis that does not affect the musculature of the forehead we should think that the lesion is:", "Options": { "A": "At the supranuclear level.", "B": "In the geniculate ganglion.", "C": "In the stylomastoid foramen.", "D": "In the pontocerebellar angle.", "E": "In the internal auditory canal." }, "Correct Answer": "At the supranuclear level.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "64ccad9f-53b0-4456-81af-4fa26a0ee91b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The association of advanced age, diabetes, otalgia that does not progress favorably despite the treatment and paralysis of the VII cranial nerve lead to think of one of the following clinical pictures as the first option:", "Options": { "A": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "B": "Granular myringitis.", "C": "Diffuse labyrinthitis.", "D": "Carcinoma of the temporal bone.", "E": "Malignant external otitis" }, "Correct Answer": "Malignant external otitis", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "9c5a87a8-d124-47e1-a468-f83a2585b546", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what type of hearing loss is the phenomenon of recruitment or recruitment characteristic?", "Options": { "A": "Transmission hearing loss.", "B": "Mixed hearing loss.", "C": "Central hearing loss.", "D": "Retrocochlear hearing loss.", "E": "Cochlear hearing loss." }, "Correct Answer": "Cochlear hearing loss.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f9b78f3e-3b85-4c4e-8335-07bdbf2ece30", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the presence of a patient with suspected blistering pemphigoid, which of the following tests should we perform to confirm the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Dermatoscopy.", "B": "Cultivation of the contents of a blister.", "C": "Skin biopsy for culture.", "D": "Skin biopsy for histological study and direct immunofluorescence.", "E": "Analytical with determination of antinuclear and anti DNA antibodies." }, "Correct Answer": "Skin biopsy for histological study and direct immunofluorescence.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4d549559-8464-4110-90d1-7b54b7949790", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old boy who, after 3 days of high-risk sexual contact, has numerous pustular, small, very pruritic lesions that progress to minute erosions affecting the entire glans and inner face of the prepuce. Indicate which is, among the following, the most probable diagnostic orientation:", "Options": { "A": "Genital candidiasis", "B": "Chancroid.", "C": "Secondary syphilis", "D": "Balanitis by Trichomonas.", "E": "Fungal infection by dermatophytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Genital candidiasis", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d8064891-818e-485c-be02-d883968ac51a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most important prognostic factor in Stage 1 Melanoma?", "Options": { "A": "Serum LDH level.", "B": "Tumor thickness measured in the Breslow index.", "C": "The presence of clinical or histological ulceration.", "D": "Number of metastases.", "E": "The mitotic index. The mitotic index." }, "Correct Answer": "Tumor thickness measured in the Breslow index.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cf4b1403-02ac-4b1c-9fcc-b0ce8acc5ea9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most frequent cause of irreversible visual loss in the Western world in people over 50 is:", "Options": { "A": "Diabetic retinopathy.", "B": "Simple chronic glaucoma.", "C": "Macular degeneration associated with age.", "D": "Retinal detachment.", "E": "Waterfalls." }, "Correct Answer": "Macular degeneration associated with age.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5475dcaa-9583-4529-b3d2-3fed02e1c978", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 23-year-old woman goes to the emergency room because she is very nervous after an argument with her partner. In his clinical history several similar demands are reflected in the previous year, in two of them after an autolytic gesture. There are also frequent conflicts in relationships, work changes and family discussions. She says she feels misunderstood by everyone including the psychiatrists who care for her. The diagnosis would be:", "Options": { "A": "Borderline personality disorder.", "B": "Disorder of the histrionic personality.", "C": "Dysthymia", "D": "Dissociative disorder", "E": "Depersonalization disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Borderline personality disorder.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e66b44ed-e479-4f6e-a255-b2bd3fae1ad4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "50-year-old woman who for 1 month has a depressed mood, anhedonia, memory loss, easy crying, loss of energy, sense of worthlessness and guilt, marked weight loss and early awakening, as well as inability to perform their tasks usual at home. In separation proceedings for 3 months. Point out the most appropriate diagnosis:", "Options": { "A": "Dysthymia", "B": "Pseudodementia", "C": "Depressive adaptive disorder.", "D": "Episode of major depression.", "E": "Minor depression" }, "Correct Answer": "Episode of major depression.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "39a04139-2ab9-4092-906f-91fd4917cb14", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 43-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes a day, who comes to his clinic taken by a family member, because he has been sleeping for a few days, less than 3 hours a day, without mentioning fatigue. He adds that he has begun to spend large amounts of money, compromising family finances. It is verbose, with acceleration of thought and megalomaniacal appearance. As a personal history, there are no diseases of interest except for a depressive episode 5 years ago. He does not believe that anything happens to him, but he has agreed to go to the consultation with the intention of seeking help to quit smoking. There is no consumption of other toxins and the analytical and neurological examination do not provide abnormal data. In this patient, taking into account his most probable diagnosis, which treatment would be the LESS indicated:", "Options": { "A": "Bupropion.", "B": "Valproic acid.", "C": "Lithium carbonate.", "D": "Risperidone.", "E": "Olanzapine." }, "Correct Answer": "Bupropion.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a6f388ec-3907-4f9d-8385-46fd2e38008d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "All of the following are common complications of untreated generalized anxiety disorder EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Consumption of alcohol and drug abuse.", "B": "Psychosomatic disorders.", "C": "Depressive disorders.", "D": "Psychotic disorders", "E": "Suicidal behavior" }, "Correct Answer": "Psychotic disorders", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "840553e9-15af-468d-8926-b4a3da8ac39c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following factors is NOT associated with good prognosis of conversion disorder?", "Options": { "A": "Acute start", "B": "Presence of stressors clearly identifiable at the beginning of the disease.", "C": "High IQ", "D": "Absence of other psychiatric disorders and legal processes.", "E": "Presence of convulsions and tremors." }, "Correct Answer": "Presence of convulsions and tremors.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e62cfd4a-54f7-4974-8ec4-392715ee2b25", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these statements is FALSE regarding stupor?", "Options": { "A": "It is an alteration of consciousness.", "B": "It can occur in melancholy.", "C": "It supposes a reversible state by moderate stimuli.", "D": "The term is used in states of mutism and reduction of motor activity.", "E": "In Neurology it is a state that precedes coma." }, "Correct Answer": "It supposes a reversible state by moderate stimuli.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f9541756-4a2c-411d-9fc2-975aa695e759", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 26-year-old woman with no previous psychiatric history, she went to the ER brought by her parents, who explained that she had been overactive, nervous, insomniac for a few days. They explain that he obsessively reviews the house's electrical installation in search of video cameras and microphones. In the interview, she tells us that she is being watched by the Police because she is a galactic correspondent with special powers. Which of the following options should NOT be considered as a differential diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive compulsive disorder", "B": "Schizophrenia.", "C": "Manic episode.", "D": "Psychosis due to the consumption of toxic substances.", "E": "Brain tumor." }, "Correct Answer": "Obsessive compulsive disorder", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "51574034-0481-4736-ab6a-3fc18c242708", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We serve a patient who has just suffered a traffic accident. She is conscious and when taking the constants she has a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg and a heart rate of 45 beats / minute. In addition, the skin of the extremities is hot. What is the most likely cause of the shock?", "Options": { "A": "Hypovolemic shock", "B": "Intrinsic cardiogenic shock.", "C": "Neurogenic shock", "D": "Septic shock.", "E": "Obstructive cardiogenic shock." }, "Correct Answer": "Neurogenic shock", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "68a486fd-6236-4e7b-9cae-7966a39342fc", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 44-year-old patient who suffers a traumatism due to a high intensity traffic accident. Upon admission to the hospital, he is conscious and oriented and manifests pain at the cervical and pelvic level as well as functional impotence in the right lower limb. The physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg with 100 beats / minute, an abolition of the vesicular murmur in the lower third of the right hemithorax and dullness to the percussion thereof. The chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion, also in the lower third. Which of these statements do you think is correct?", "Options": { "A": "It is a large pulmonary hemorrhage so the patient must be operated on urgently by thoracotomy.", "B": "Since it is an intrathoracic hemorrhage, spontaneous hemostasis is expected, so no therapeutic measures are indicated.", "C": "Drainage of the pleural cavity with a heavy gauge catheter and monitoring of the patient is indicated.", "D": "The simple needle-evacuator with needle is the treatment of choice.", "E": "It is most likely a chylothorax, so a treatment with restriction of heavy chain triglycerides should be established." }, "Correct Answer": "Drainage of the pleural cavity with a heavy gauge catheter and monitoring of the patient is indicated.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1b8b88ba-df56-41d3-9e67-5c679f92af1c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 19-year-old man consulted for a 24-hour history of pain, swelling and functional impotence of the right knee accompanied by a fever of 38ºC. Physical examination reveals inflammatory signs and joint effusion in the right knee. The analytical data show a leukocytosis with neutrophilia and an elevation of the C-reactive protein. The syndromic diagnosis of acute monoarthritis is made. What is the most likely etiologic diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Arthritis by microcrystals.", "B": "Reactive arthritis", "C": "Bacterial infectious arthritis.", "D": "Infectious arthritis due to mycobacteria.", "E": "Rheumatoid arthritis." }, "Correct Answer": "Bacterial infectious arthritis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3dc08e60-f479-4a0f-a45b-cd854078e720", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 29-year-old woman, obese, with no history of interest, who consulted for a bilateral, intense, pulsatile headache lasting one month, accompanied by horizontal diplopia and episodes of monocular amaurosis of seconds duration. The exploration is normal, except for the presence of bilateral papilledema. Which of these tests do you think will allow you to fully confirm your diagnosis ?:", "Options": { "A": "Ultrasound of supra-aortic trunks.", "B": "Magnetic resonance of the skull.", "C": "Electroencephalogram.", "D": "Lumbar puncture.", "E": "Visual evoked potentials." }, "Correct Answer": "Lumbar puncture.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3051cb05-2865-4059-bdda-4ad3b22bb3b2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "All the following diseases can be accompanied by palpable splenomegaly, EXCEPT one. Indicate the latter:", "Options": { "A": "Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.", "B": "Multiple myeloma.", "C": "Tricholeukemia.", "D": "Gaucher disease.", "E": "Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia." }, "Correct Answer": "Multiple myeloma.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6ec8c8c7-3c8c-464c-877f-1ec43e88fb1b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Adolescent of 16 years who consults for primary amenorrhea. He does not have medical-surgical history of interest. On physical examination, we found female secondary sex characteristics, female external genitalia, with stage III-IV breast development, scanty pubic and axillary hair. He presents a stature in the 90th percentile for his age. The plain radiograph reveals a bone age of 15.8 years. The analytical study reveals an estradiol of 50 pg / ml, and high gonadotropins. Which of the following clinical entities would be compatible with the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Klinefelter syndrome.", "B": "Kallman syndrome.", "C": "Constitutional growth retardation.", "D": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.", "E": "Complete androgenic insensitivity syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Complete androgenic insensitivity syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "65c8e298-5b2d-4174-bd07-48e313b7053c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following parenteral vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?", "Options": { "A": "Vaccine against tetanus.", "B": "Vaccine against measles.", "C": "Vaccine against whooping cough.", "D": "Vaccine against hepatitis B.", "E": "Vaccine against the flu." }, "Correct Answer": "Vaccine against measles.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6e9cdcbf-ba09-474a-ab34-7d6f8ff07510", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following is the most useful procedure for measuring the response of ascites to diuretic therapy?", "Options": { "A": "Measure the volume of urine for 24 hours.", "B": "Measure the abdominal perimeter daily.", "C": "Determine each week the albumin gradient between serum and ascites.", "D": "Record the weight every day.", "E": "Evaluate natriuresis every 48 hours." }, "Correct Answer": "Record the weight every day.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0aa86b93-c707-4b1e-b9f7-123b2e2a6946", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The area that acts as a connection between automatic emotional responses and the control of complex behaviors, guiding behavior to control the manifestation of emotional responses, is:", "Options": { "A": "The angular gyrus of the limbic system.", "B": "The convolution or lobe of the insula.", "C": "The prefrontal orbitofrontal or ventromedial cortex.", "D": "The thalamus", "E": "The cortex of somatosensory association." }, "Correct Answer": "The prefrontal orbitofrontal or ventromedial cortex.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f5a03cb3-d891-4a81-b047-2bbd4b13008f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reinforcement circuit can be activated by electrical stimulation of the mesolimbic system, originating in the ventral tegmental area and projecting:", "Options": { "A": "To the hippocampus, inhibiting the release of dopamine.", "B": "To the nucleus accumbens, causing release of dopamine.", "C": "To the prefrontal cortex, stimulating the release of glutamate.", "D": "A mesencephalic reticular formation, causing release of glutamate.", "E": "To the pituitary, inhibiting the release of dopamine." }, "Correct Answer": "To the nucleus accumbens, causing release of dopamine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3c764950-a4c8-4b39-8fae-24759f5c7a81", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The islets of Langerhans of the pancreas secrete and release:", "Options": { "A": "Cholecystokinin", "B": "Insulin and glucagon.", "C": "Vasopressin", "D": "Adrenaline and noradrenaline.", "E": "Prolactin" }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin and glucagon.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3ac3a5e0-04c6-41b7-9033-141faab2382b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the Sympathetic Nervous System or SNS, it points out the INCORRECT alternative:", "Options": { "A": "Intervenes in the stress response, defined as \"fight or flight\".", "B": "Increase blood pressure and heart rate.", "C": "Dilate the bronchi.", "D": "It increases the activity of the sweat glands.", "E": "Stimulates gastrointestinal motility." }, "Correct Answer": "Stimulates gastrointestinal motility.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "dc52de21-902e-46fd-bcdf-d2a219a338b7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Exposure to androgens in a sensitive or critical period, at the beginning of development, causes masculinization of the sexual and behavioral organs. This effect has received the name of:", "Options": { "A": "Motivational effect", "B": "Effect of pheromones.", "C": "Activating effect.", "D": "Organizer effect.", "E": "Biological effect" }, "Correct Answer": "Organizer effect.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "be60e31a-5dca-46cf-8cd4-5a6a8a97a878", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the behaviors learned by repetition, such as driving, become automatic and routine, they become controlled by:", "Options": { "A": "The primary motor cortex", "B": "The prefrontal cortex.", "C": "The ganglia or basal nuclei.", "D": "The central nucleus of the amygdala.", "E": "The hippocampus." }, "Correct Answer": "The ganglia or basal nuclei.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8d37f4ce-c887-4b9a-ab79-bd499e386e80", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The neurofibrillary tangles are anomalous structures that are observed in Alzheimer's patients and that consist of:", "Options": { "A": "Neurons in process of extinction by accumulations of intertwined filaments of tau protein that alter the transport of substances in the cytoplasm.", "B": "Extracellular deposits containing a nucleus of beta-amylase protein surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites.", "C": "Proteins that serve to facilitate the production and transport of a cerebral neurotropic factor.", "D": "Accumulation of astrocytes and microgliocytes with the ability to react to external pathogens.", "E": "Proteins produced by a defective gene that increases the likelihood of Parkinson's disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Neurons in process of extinction by accumulations of intertwined filaments of tau protein that alter the transport of substances in the cytoplasm.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "510dc812-adbd-4dcd-952d-f22b70558081", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Around one and a half years of age, during the sensorimotor period, the child is given \"experiments\" to discover new properties of the objects (throws things to observe the movement of falling, for example). This type of repeated behavior is called:", "Options": { "A": "Schemes of second order.", "B": "Circular structures of experimentation.", "C": "Secondary circular reactions.", "D": "Tertiary circular reactions.", "E": "Schemes of action." }, "Correct Answer": "Tertiary circular reactions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "951e507d-5a89-4c79-adbc-f4e4b497788f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the preoperative period (2-6 years) the child usually thinks that the things of nature (rivers, mountains, etc.) have been built by the human being. This feature is called:", "Options": { "A": "Animism.", "B": "Realism.", "C": "Artificialism", "D": "Utilitarianism.", "E": "Pre-operative error" }, "Correct Answer": "Artificialism", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "808d0d48-0e5f-4b8d-a432-85dcf3f9351c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pattern of attachment that is observed more frequently in children is:", "Options": { "A": "Anxious attachment", "B": "Anxious avoidant attachment.", "C": "Ambivalent attachment", "D": "Secure attachment", "E": "Detachment." }, "Correct Answer": "Secure attachment", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3a9b16dc-cca4-4e1e-a83b-027581a543c4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From Piaget's epistemology, individuals are able to construct new schemes because they have inherited two intellectual functions that are:", "Options": { "A": "Reinforcement and punishment.", "B": "Organization and adaptation.", "C": "Assimilation and accommodation.", "D": "Self-regulation and assimilation.", "E": "Primary and secondary circular reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Organization and adaptation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "28dfafa1-53f9-4a52-ad2f-641d5912b9fc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If I can not learn my new phone number because I always see the first three digits of the old one, what is the name of that type of interference?", "Options": { "A": "Proactive", "B": "Retroactive.", "C": "Coactive", "D": "Reactive", "E": "Protoactive" }, "Correct Answer": "Proactive", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3388f896-91ea-4600-aa60-d1c8d92ac33b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the characteristics that favor intrinsic motivation?", "Options": { "A": "Self-determination and competence.", "B": "Condescension and complexity", "C": "Routine and condescension.", "D": "Novelty and unpredictability.", "E": "Simplicity and reward." }, "Correct Answer": "Self-determination and competence.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4a394270-dc0d-4b74-b1bb-240f46e0999e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the attributions to failure that are most likely to produce helplessness?", "Options": { "A": "The internal, unstable and general attributions.", "B": "The internal attributions, stable and specific.", "C": "The external, stable and general attributions.", "D": "The internal, stable and general attributions.", "E": "The external attributions, stable and specific." }, "Correct Answer": "The internal, stable and general attributions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ca72abd7-e3a7-4bd1-933f-bb23920f23b6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What kind of memory can we use to plan what we have to do to arrive on time for an appointment next Tuesday?", "Options": { "A": "Prospective report.", "B": "Autobiographical memory", "C": "Episodic memory.", "D": "Semantic memory", "E": "Procedural memory." }, "Correct Answer": "Prospective report.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b8b42d55-f37c-4b7c-84bd-1c284fbf2866", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is called the \"hidden cost\" of the reward?", "Options": { "A": "That the real value of the reward or reinforcement is not known.", "B": "A reduction of intrinsically motivated behavior, which can occur if an external reward is provided.", "C": "The fact that motivated behavior intrinsically does not require external reward to be carried out.", "D": "Not to set in advance the value of the reward for performing a task.", "E": "To a punishment intrinsically associated with a reward." }, "Correct Answer": "A reduction of intrinsically motivated behavior, which can occur if an external reward is provided.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ee7e6d53-ae1e-47a8-9f94-19451f88870c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following emotions facilitates more exhaustive behaviors?", "Options": { "A": "Sadness.", "B": "Go to.", "C": "Disgust.", "D": "Guilt.", "E": "Rage." }, "Correct Answer": "Disgust.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3d2266f7-90a4-4cd5-bffd-ba8ded5fad61", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The minimum amount of auditory stimulation needed to begin to identify the lyrics of a song is a threshold:", "Options": { "A": "Absolute.", "B": "Subliminal.", "C": "Differential.", "D": "Relative.", "E": "Musical." }, "Correct Answer": "Absolute.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "238381b7-5624-4fb2-b1bd-540f4aadfc39", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What kind of learning manifests itself without obvious reinforcement?", "Options": { "A": "Latent learning.", "B": "Vicarial learning.", "C": "Learning by insight.", "D": "Instrumental learning", "E": "None." }, "Correct Answer": "Latent learning.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "beb65a09-0b8d-4441-8e84-2c4293717ddf", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If I propose to a friend to solve a problem like the tower in Hanoi, I will be proposing a problem of:", "Options": { "A": "Transformation.", "B": "Induction of structures.", "C": "Ordination.", "D": "Social relationships.", "E": "Complex analogies" }, "Correct Answer": "Transformation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "20a82caf-8fe3-4471-b79e-758fd934e6ea", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What sleep disorder with onset in childhood and adolescence has a lower family incidence?", "Options": { "A": "Kleine-Levin syndrome.", "B": "Narcolepsy", "C": "Circadian rhythm disorder, delayed sleep type.", "D": "Night terrors.", "E": "Somnambulism." }, "Correct Answer": "Kleine-Levin syndrome.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b9074e17-9f4f-4e7c-b3d7-d80cc2be098b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What feature or dimension of attention is most relevant when the child looks for a red paint in his school case full of other colors?", "Options": { "A": "Orientation.", "B": "Flexibility.", "C": "Concentration.", "D": "Alert.", "E": "Persistence." }, "Correct Answer": "Flexibility.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "44065f5d-e9de-417a-9857-2bcd09340bef", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is NOT a component of dry bed training for bedwetting?", "Options": { "A": "The use of the alarm.", "B": "The positive practice", "C": "The programmed awakening.", "D": "The positive reinforcement.", "E": "The sphincteric exercises." }, "Correct Answer": "The sphincteric exercises.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a2cf6b0f-1431-4ef9-98f4-679958c83915", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Rehm's theory, what failure of the self-control process explains to a greater extent the pessimistic view of life in adolescent depression?", "Options": { "A": "Selective attention to immediate consequences.", "B": "The establishment of unrealistic goals.", "C": "The erroneous attributions.", "D": "Deficit self-reinforcement.", "E": "The excessive punishment." }, "Correct Answer": "Selective attention to immediate consequences.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3be1120e-3d11-4f8b-ba5f-d755c816fd59", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What degree of mental disability corresponds to an IQ of thirty-six?", "Options": { "A": "Mental disability limit.", "B": "Mild mental disability.", "C": "Moderate mental disability.", "D": "Severe mental disability.", "E": "Deep mental disability." }, "Correct Answer": "Moderate mental disability.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "45d5c9ef-9f29-4cfa-a3c1-c82dec8cba1d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what phases of the dream do the enuretic episodes occur?", "Options": { "A": "In the phases of light sleep.", "B": "In the phases of deep sleep.", "C": "In the phases of paradoxical sleep.", "D": "In the dream phases.", "E": "Indistinctly in any phase of the dream." }, "Correct Answer": "Indistinctly in any phase of the dream.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1ed784c9-7dc6-47f7-a406-628a64b1dced", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With what explanatory theory of childhood phobias is the Napalkov effect more closely related?", "Options": { "A": "The theory of the two factors of Mowrer.", "B": "The theory of the incubation of Eysenck.", "C": "The theory of social learning of Bandura.", "D": "The bioinformational theory of Lang's emotion.", "E": "The anxiety sensitivity theory of Reiss." }, "Correct Answer": "The theory of the incubation of Eysenck.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8674a016-72a4-4dbf-aca2-957bb02869a7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On Tuesday after dinner an eight-year-old boy asks permission to play with the video game console, but the parents refuse because it is too late and he has to go to bed the next day. The child starts giving the murga until the parents give in. According to the theoretical approach of Patterson's family coercion process, what happens to the parental giving behavior?", "Options": { "A": "It is punished positively.", "B": "It is punished negatively.", "C": "Extinguishes.", "D": "It is reinforced positively.", "E": "It is reinforced negatively." }, "Correct Answer": "It is reinforced negatively.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6eafbb5f-2053-4dd9-b204-9137d2106888", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What mineral deficit has been especially observed in pica cases?", "Options": { "A": "Calcium deficit", "B": "Zinc deficit.", "C": "Lead deficit", "D": "Potassium deficit", "E": "Sodium deficit" }, "Correct Answer": "Zinc deficit.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1ab6950f-11b9-4a42-b4c1-cb3da237db86", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what kind of tasks do the attentional problems characteristic of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder manifest themselves?", "Options": { "A": "Simple, novel and targeting tasks.", "B": "Complex, novel and capacity tasks.", "C": "Simple, routine and selection tasks.", "D": "Complex, novel and organizational tasks.", "E": "Complex, routine and surveillance tasks." }, "Correct Answer": "Complex, routine and surveillance tasks.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4f0241f5-f325-43d2-8ea4-4d01df22ea8b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A teenager with obsessive-compulsive disorder phones the Toxicological Information Service to ask if he can safely use an insecticide for cockroaches. What is the name of this escape behavior?", "Options": { "A": "Ascertainment.", "B": "Rationalization.", "C": "Reinsurance.", "D": "Ritualization", "E": "Testing." }, "Correct Answer": "Reinsurance.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1ad847fd-d783-45fa-82cd-b7a0c407054f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What tests of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R) compose the \"free distractibility factor\", in which children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder perform worse?", "Options": { "A": "Understanding, Cubes and Keys.", "B": "Arithmetic, cartoons and puzzles.", "C": "Similarities, Digits and Incomplete Figures.", "D": "Arithmetic, Digits and Keys.", "E": "Information, Arithmetic and Labyrinths." }, "Correct Answer": "Arithmetic, Digits and Keys.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e2816c74-0289-48ab-a567-b0adae73a654", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What author proposes that the structure and functions of the personality are organized in three levels: dispositional traits, personal interests or concerns and life history?", "Options": { "A": "Pelechano", "B": "Singer.", "C": "Coast.", "D": "McAdams.", "E": "Pervin." }, "Correct Answer": "McAdams.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "216eb78e-cc07-49eb-9e43-e42a0c5972a6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To which personality variable does the definition \"tendency to experience negative emotions together with a high social inhibition\"?", "Options": { "A": "Depression.", "B": "Personality Type D.", "C": "Helplessness", "D": "Type A behavior pattern", "E": "Hostility." }, "Correct Answer": "Personality Type D.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f755e9b5-18dd-42cc-b5ce-8b3831b74968", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the theory of social learning of J.B. Rotter, both general and specific expectations are:", "Options": { "A": "Goals or objectives.", "B": "Innate predispositions.", "C": "Judgments or beliefs.", "D": "Objective odds", "E": "Incentives or reinforcers." }, "Correct Answer": "Judgments or beliefs.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8ee410ec-0d14-41fc-b973-9555f797acbf", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To what dimension (factor) of the NEO-PI-R do the facets of \"feelings, ideas and values\" correspond?", "Options": { "A": "Neuroticism", "B": "Openness to experience", "C": "Amiability.", "D": "Responsibility.", "E": "Extraversion" }, "Correct Answer": "Openness to experience", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ff9d44c0-4076-450c-ba2e-87ff92e604bc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What construct refers to the degree to which people are able to express commitment, control and challenge in their actions, thoughts and feelings?", "Options": { "A": "Coping strategies.", "B": "Resistant personality", "C": "Subjective well-being.", "D": "Type A behavior pattern", "E": "Extraversion" }, "Correct Answer": "Resistant personality", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bf7a1fab-cb14-40c3-85ac-d8814e4c00a2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which author has hypothesized that \"the fact of actively facing troubling experiences, through dialogue or writing, would reduce the negative effects of the inhibition of emotion\"?", "Options": { "A": "Friedman", "B": "Pennebaker", "C": "Pervin.", "D": "Coast.", "E": "Kobasa" }, "Correct Answer": "Pennebaker", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bbbed43f-7d92-4506-a88c-0709972dc4fd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which Type (level 4) of Eysenck are features included (level 3) \"aggressive, cold, egocentric, impersonal and impulsive\"?", "Options": { "A": "Extraversion", "B": "Neuroticism", "C": "Stability.", "D": "Introversion", "E": "Psychoticism" }, "Correct Answer": "Psychoticism", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "43376c4e-b3b3-420b-9bdb-bdb73f4ac326", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Life Orientation Test (LOT developed by Scheier and Carver in 1985) is a test that measures:", "Options": { "A": "General expectations related to optimism.", "B": "Psychological well-being throughout the life cycle.", "C": "Emotional coping styles.", "D": "Orientation and sexual preferences.", "E": "Positive emotions and happiness." }, "Correct Answer": "General expectations related to optimism.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b51b3046-13f9-43a5-9d34-dddf69058d96", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the framework of the Theory of Self-Discrepancy (E.T. Higgins), aspects of the self that contain information about aspirations, goals, expectations or desires are called:", "Options": { "A": "I Real.", "B": "I Ideal", "C": "I should.", "D": "Selfconcept.", "E": "Ego." }, "Correct Answer": "I Ideal", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0249dde7-5e17-45b8-973f-88b2fb9c4fe8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which author proposes a personality model with dimensions of temperament and character ?:", "Options": { "A": "H.J. Eysenck", "B": "J.A. Gray.", "C": "P.T. Costa and R.R. McCrae.", "D": "C.R. Cloninger.", "E": "G. Kelly." }, "Correct Answer": "C.R. Cloninger.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "384c73b2-0d6f-4e04-86a3-92c4a9c7b719", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Big Five are dimensions of personal functioning that have been obtained from the analysis of:", "Options": { "A": "The behavior registered in the laboratory.", "B": "The genetic polymorphisms of the individual.", "C": "The common language present in the dictionary.", "D": "Observation in the clinical context.", "E": "The electrical functioning of the Nervous System." }, "Correct Answer": "The common language present in the dictionary.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ebe215b4-b4b8-4856-8548-e34e59108857", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For R.B. Cattell, the T data would correspond to the information collected through:", "Options": { "A": "Self-reports", "B": "Third party evaluation scales.", "C": "Objective tests.", "D": "A questionnaire like the 16PF.", "E": "The grid technique." }, "Correct Answer": "Objective tests.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2613f475-a11c-475f-841c-9600de59f697", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Taking into account the relationships between the theory of the four temperaments and the personality model of H.J. Eysenck, an angry temper will correspond to a person:", "Options": { "A": "Introverted and Stable Emotional.", "B": "Apathetic and Stable Emotional.", "C": "Introverted and Unstable Emotional.", "D": "Extroverted and Unstable Emotional.", "E": "Introverted and Anxious" }, "Correct Answer": "Extroverted and Unstable Emotional.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4f1c9ff7-a678-43d3-80af-5188cbefdc71", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characteristics increase the reliability of the psychophysiological evaluation?", "Options": { "A": "The law of initial values.", "B": "The autonomic balance and homeostasis.", "C": "The latency and duration of the answers.", "D": "The control of environmental artifacts and the organism.", "E": "The reactivity" }, "Correct Answer": "The control of environmental artifacts and the organism.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d173617b-9588-400a-ace6-d26afc8d11c6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characterizes the objective techniques of psychophysiological evaluation?", "Options": { "A": "They are tests with a high ecological validity.", "B": "Environmental factors (e.g., light, temperature) can affect the reliability of the record.", "C": "The anxious subjects usually have the same level of activation as the non-anxious ones.", "D": "Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar patterns of activation at baseline.", "E": "Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar responses to different stimuli." }, "Correct Answer": "Environmental factors (e.g., light, temperature) can affect the reliability of the record.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cdbd7561-0cdc-4d22-ba6a-15494646e38c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Reactivity is considered a source of error when using Observation as a method of obtaining information. Where does it come from?", "Options": { "A": "From the context in which the Observation is generated.", "B": "Of the observed subject.", "C": "Of the chosen procedure.", "D": "From the observer.", "E": "Of the type of instrument chosen." }, "Correct Answer": "Of the observed subject.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ef2e834d-0462-48ab-9b48-7fffca930fc5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The psychological report must have the possibility of:", "Options": { "A": "Be written as the format of a structured interview.", "B": "Use any psychological test even if they are not adapted and measured in our country.", "C": "Be replicated or contrasted", "D": "Be binding for the Judge (in case of judicial Report).", "E": "Be impersonalized" }, "Correct Answer": "Be replicated or contrasted", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5a7e8749-c2ac-487b-b1b0-4ff5b55f90a6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The verbal type report can also be considered as:", "Options": { "A": "The Barnum Effect.", "B": "A return interview.", "C": "A structured interview", "D": "As a simple recount of the data obtained from the tests.", "E": "A report of this type is never advisable." }, "Correct Answer": "A return interview.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "40dccd90-3285-4804-b1ef-b9ce398ba4f0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Following the classification of Pervin (1979) and Campbell (1953-1957) on the methods of collecting information, point out one of the techniques representative of the psychometric methodology:", "Options": { "A": "The Wechsler Intelligence Scale.", "B": "Incomplete sentences, by Kelly and Fisher.", "C": "Thematic Appreciation Test, by Murray.", "D": "Test of Personal Construct, by Kelly (1955).", "E": "The autorregistros." }, "Correct Answer": "The Wechsler Intelligence Scale.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7b326d86-e8be-41cc-a9e2-520abb468582", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what kind of technique can the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Assessment Questionnaire be framed?", "Options": { "A": "Self-report", "B": "Scalar techniques.", "C": "As a self-registration technique.", "D": "Within the projective techniques.", "E": "Of personal constructions." }, "Correct Answer": "Self-report", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eee6773d-2992-4bc6-b151-302e2fa803db", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what kind of scores is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Assessment Questionnaire scaled so that it can allow us to make a diagnostic judgment?", "Options": { "A": "In Base Rate (TB) scores.", "B": "In Standard Scores (S).", "C": "In percentile scores.", "D": "In direct scores.", "E": "In typical \"T\" scores." }, "Correct Answer": "In typical \"T\" scores.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a559c583-b439-49da-933d-5f78857a8656", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From which model of the psychological evaluation are the grid techniques and others appropriate to evaluate the meanings of the subject?", "Options": { "A": "Constructivist or constructionist model.", "B": "Behavioral Model", "C": "Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-psychiatric perspective.", "D": "Correlational model.", "E": "Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective." }, "Correct Answer": "Constructivist or constructionist model.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "55402f38-7472-425f-9078-61d366e4bb23", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What model of psychological evaluation jointly contemplates the basic objectives of: Description, Classification, Comparison and Prediction?", "Options": { "A": "Clinical-dynamic model, medical-psychiatric perspective.", "B": "Humanist Model", "C": "Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective.", "D": "Behavioral Model", "E": "Psychometric, Correlational or Attribute Model." }, "Correct Answer": "Psychometric, Correlational or Attribute Model.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "41a7afa8-cbc1-4b3f-9fa8-61ce13353a3f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the model of psychological evaluation whose basic assumption is that abnormal behavior is associated with endogenous or internal factors, whether biological or intrapsychic, whose object of study is the symptom, which will allow us to build syndromes and subsequently be able to apply a treatment?", "Options": { "A": "The Behavior model.", "B": "The model of the Attribute.", "C": "The Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective.", "D": "The Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-Psychiatric perspective.", "E": "The Constructivist model." }, "Correct Answer": "The Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-Psychiatric perspective.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b0869a71-a4b9-4589-8504-a45602ccdfb8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the history of the Psychological Evaluation, the Aristotelian Physiognomy makes its influence felt in the later works of the authors:", "Options": { "A": "Krestschmer and Sheldon.", "B": "Binet and Simon.", "C": "Discards", "D": "Juan Huarte from SAN. Juan.", "E": "Hermann Rorschach." }, "Correct Answer": "Krestschmer and Sheldon.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "96854de6-895a-4961-a507-1c23119b6a24", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which statement is correct regarding the objective techniques in psychological evaluation?", "Options": { "A": "The Electroencephalograph allows to collect responses from the somatic nervous system.", "B": "The Purdue manual precision device allows the central nervous system to collect responses.", "C": "Most of the answers that measure these techniques are easily controllable by the evaluated.", "D": "The administration, registration and punctuation is usually done using devices.", "E": "The polygraph allows to collect cognitive responses." }, "Correct Answer": "The administration, registration and punctuation is usually done using devices.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ebe78871-f298-4672-a0de-fc10d1709bfe", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is CORRECT with respect to subjective techniques?", "Options": { "A": "The evaluation, power and activity are characteristic dimensions of the grid technique.", "B": "In the Semantic Differential the constructs or adjectives are chosen by the evaluated one.", "C": "It is possible to obtain \"dilemmatic constructs\" with the semantic differential.", "D": "It is possible to obtain \"implicative dilemmas\" with the interpersonal grid technique.", "E": "With the Semantic Differential, cognitive indices are obtained." }, "Correct Answer": "It is possible to obtain \"implicative dilemmas\" with the interpersonal grid technique.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fbf51ce3-9b07-4778-8998-9ac60eac9070", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To assess social development in childhood and adolescence, what factors influence the selection of suitable procedures?", "Options": { "A": "The availability of instruments that allow obtaining valid and reliable measures in this area.", "B": "The age of the child and his / her linguistic expression skills.", "C": "The nature of the behavior or ability to be evaluated, the level of development and the form of manifestation of the behavior, individually or in a group.", "D": "The skills and experience of the evaluator with the procedures and evaluation techniques commonly used in this area.", "E": "Access to standardized tests according to age, sex and special conditions." }, "Correct Answer": "The nature of the behavior or ability to be evaluated, the level of development and the form of manifestation of the behavior, individually or in a group.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6c6ed983-22cf-4eb3-aa91-3567519cc9b0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to which psychological problems are the correlations between the different informants consulted in child evaluation higher?", "Options": { "A": "Internalized problems.", "B": "Behavioral problems", "C": "Personality problems.", "D": "Socialization problems", "E": "In relation to the temporary start and intensity of the problems reported." }, "Correct Answer": "Behavioral problems", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f2c414ba-ffcf-4c65-9430-a2b9f4ac523e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following tests fits within the G-Factor Tests?", "Options": { "A": "The test of primary mental abilities (PMA).", "B": "The test of progressive matrices (Raven).", "C": "The battery of differential abilities (DAT).", "D": "The McCarthy scales (MSCA).", "E": "The Bayley scales of child development." }, "Correct Answer": "The test of progressive matrices (Raven).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "14fa53e3-7e84-425b-8c5d-5d4bcc3e46aa", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the advantages of the inventories usually used in child assessment?", "Options": { "A": "They provide standardized scores and reduce evaluation costs.", "B": "They facilitate obtaining detailed information about the problem.", "C": "They provide eneatipos.", "D": "They allow to gather information from different areas related to the current problem.", "E": "They can be applied to both adults and children." }, "Correct Answer": "They provide standardized scores and reduce evaluation costs.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ca2b7c33-ebb1-498d-a33e-c66f622eaf3a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What aspects characterize the evaluation of children's problems compared to the evaluation of adults?", "Options": { "A": "Employ techniques and instruments with psychometric guarantees of reliability and validity.", "B": "Use especially observation, emphasize overt behaviors and emphasize the external determinants of them.", "C": "Enable the planning of the subsequent treatment.", "D": "Ensure the confidentiality of the information obtained.", "E": "Carry out the evaluation through the application of different techniques and instruments." }, "Correct Answer": "Use especially observation, emphasize overt behaviors and emphasize the external determinants of them.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f6dfe639-8fdc-4fc0-a64d-1ea649afb557", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What sampling strategies can we use when we carry out an observation?", "Options": { "A": "The \"total interval\", which implies that the behavior is not recorded if it does not occur in the total of the set interval.", "B": "The \"partial interval\", which implies that the behavior is not recorded if it does not occur in the total interval set.", "C": "The one of \"momentary samples\", that implies that the behavior is not registered if it does not take place in the total of the set interval.", "D": "The \"subtractive\" interval, which implies that the observer records all behavior that occurs in a fraction of the observation interval.", "E": "The \"partial interval\", which implies that only behaviors that appear at a predetermined moment of the observation interval are recorded." }, "Correct Answer": "The \"total interval\", which implies that the behavior is not recorded if it does not occur in the total of the set interval.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "054486ed-7670-4217-a5e9-0dee7631cf65", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The response trend is an important source of error that diminishes the quality of:", "Options": { "A": "Projective techniques.", "B": "The semi-structured interview.", "C": "The methodology of the Observation.", "D": "The Self-reports.", "E": "The Objective Techniques." }, "Correct Answer": "The Self-reports.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4f2bcc7e-6877-4672-bc57-98a42555d0f1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What attitude should the evaluator show in the first interview?", "Options": { "A": "You must start using closed questions.", "B": "You should use questions that go from the particular to the general.", "C": "You must take care of the verbal aspects (intensity, tone, etc.) to promote communication.", "D": "You should not focus on the problem or problems that you are consulting.", "E": "It must interrupt the interviewee and limit their interactions." }, "Correct Answer": "You must take care of the verbal aspects (intensity, tone, etc.) to promote communication.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bc0c180f-5a3d-4e0d-b42c-99f5f65312ad", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Given the purpose of the interview, what would be the CORRECT response?", "Options": { "A": "The diagnostic interview has as a priority objective to guide.", "B": "The research interview has as a priority objective to operate a change.", "C": "The therapeutic objective of the therapeutic interview is to establish a diagnosis.", "D": "The vocational orientation interview has as a priority objective to advise on future studies or professions.", "E": "The main objective of the consultative interview is to investigate the evaluation technique itself." }, "Correct Answer": "The vocational orientation interview has as a priority objective to advise on future studies or professions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2ee3e3a5-6c28-44dd-8ffd-387edc0d4e5a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What quality criteria must a psychological assessment instrument meet?", "Options": { "A": "Validity, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error.", "B": "Reliability, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error.", "C": "Have a coefficient of internal consistency above 0.40.", "D": "To have a low proportion of the variance observed explained by the real variance.", "E": "Include a high error variance." }, "Correct Answer": "Reliability, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "be367637-a2e2-4a42-a05a-a028190f343c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characterizes the projective techniques?", "Options": { "A": "The little ambiguity of the stimulus.", "B": "The closed response format.", "C": "Being objective evaluation techniques.", "D": "That the analysis of their answers is fundamentally quantitative.", "E": "Which are \"masked\" evaluation techniques." }, "Correct Answer": "Which are \"masked\" evaluation techniques.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f9dbffbc-7786-4210-aa51-85eb900c5a7b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the Psychological Evaluation, the Self Registers, as a strategy to obtain information, how can they be considered?", "Options": { "A": "As a type of Experimental technique.", "B": "As a type of Self-reports.", "C": "As a modality of objective techniques.", "D": "As an Observational technique.", "E": "As a modality of the Semantic Differential of Osgood." }, "Correct Answer": "As a type of Self-reports.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "94a8c572-3d72-43af-a51b-274322feffe7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characteristic is true with respect to the tests referred to the criterion?", "Options": { "A": "The purpose is to describe the subject in the continuum of some trait.", "B": "The objective is to maximize individual differences.", "C": "The scores obtained only have meaning in relation to the results of the normative group.", "D": "They allow to interpret the scores in absolute sense, without reference to any group.", "E": "The items are usually derived from some feature theory." }, "Correct Answer": "They allow to interpret the scores in absolute sense, without reference to any group.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fe1d87a8-4e40-48e3-b95c-b987eb967327", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following reliability calculation methods can not be carried out with a single application of the test?", "Options": { "A": "Alpha coefficient of Cronbach.", "B": "Guttman-Flanagan.", "C": "Rulon", "D": "Method of parallel forms.", "E": "Method of the two halves." }, "Correct Answer": "Method of parallel forms.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7a3ae709-7308-44f6-b447-82b005c7f753", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a frequency distribution, how do we call the number of times a variable value or any other lower value repeats in the sample?", "Options": { "A": "Proportion.", "B": "Accumulated absolute frequency.", "C": "Accumulated percentage.", "D": "Absolute frecuency.", "E": "Accumulated relative frequency." }, "Correct Answer": "Accumulated absolute frequency.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1c718fc4-502d-492f-8d60-b2bfb5dfa446", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these equalities is INCORRECT?", "Options": { "A": "Decil 1 = Centil 10.", "B": "Quartile 1 = Percentile 25.", "C": "Quartil 2 = Centil 20.", "D": "Decil 5 = Medium.", "E": "Quartile 3 = Centil 75." }, "Correct Answer": "Quartil 2 = Centil 20.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a5423507-5ade-4e84-bc36-e8fe8c85fde4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If we obtained a Pearson Correlation Coefficient of r = 0.60 for two variables \"x\" and \"y\" Which of these conclusions could we establish?", "Options": { "A": "There is a causal relationship between both variables so that increasing the values ​​of the variable \"x\" in the sample would lead to an increase in the values ​​of \"and\".", "B": "There is a causal relationship between both variables so that increasing the values ​​of the variable \"y\" in the sample would lead to an increase in the values ​​of \"x\".", "C": "The degree of linear association between both variables is 60 percent.", "D": "It is a linear correlation with a mean value, regardless of the nature of the variables.", "E": "There is a positive linear covariation pattern between both variables." }, "Correct Answer": "There is a positive linear covariation pattern between both variables.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c3c5f629-ed45-4de2-8c70-1cf6238f521d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the sampling model whose principle is to directly access the natural agglomerations of units in the population? (workers in factories, students in universities ...):", "Options": { "A": "Stratified sampling.", "B": "Simple random sampling.", "C": "Conglomerate sampling.", "D": "Systematic sampling.", "E": "Sampling in time." }, "Correct Answer": "Conglomerate sampling.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "521064b8-0f81-46d1-805d-570a2cd2abf4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these graphical representations would you use to examine the relationship between two or more quantitative variables?", "Options": { "A": "Sectors diagrams.", "B": "Scatter plot.", "C": "Histogram", "D": "Chart of boxes.", "E": "Bar chart." }, "Correct Answer": "Scatter plot.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ca4369a4-4e83-4f69-9a18-71b30a1b6a6e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following multivariate analysis techniques analyzes the covariation presented by a set of metric variables, susceptible of being synthesized in a set of common factors that lie behind them?", "Options": { "A": "Multiple discriminant analysis.", "B": "Multiple linear regression", "C": "Multivariate analysis of variance.", "D": "Factorial analysis.", "E": "Analysis of structural equations." }, "Correct Answer": "Factorial analysis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f8353c08-a5d7-48e1-9167-8b64d406d993", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What kind of validity does the degree of confidence refer to, with which it can be inferred that the cause-effect relationships between the variables of an investigation are interpretable in the sense suggested by the researcher?", "Options": { "A": "Internal validity", "B": "External validity", "C": "Discriminant validity", "D": "Ecological validity", "E": "Construct validity" }, "Correct Answer": "Internal validity", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8710a7a9-144c-4e82-8bc6-76855b73c2b2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Latin square designs are a type of:", "Options": { "A": "Random designs.", "B": "Block designs.", "C": "Intra-subject designs.", "D": "Mixed designs", "E": "Unifactorial designs." }, "Correct Answer": "Block designs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "18d3191f-4c90-4005-bdd1-b9ceaf134ecc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of format does this item have? Alcohol is good taken in moderation  Strongly disagree.  Disagree.  I am indifferent.  Agree.  Strongly agree. :", "Options": { "A": "Rating scale.", "B": "\"Cloze\" format.", "C": "Pairing.", "D": "Multiple choice", "E": "List." }, "Correct Answer": "Rating scale.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "50e44aca-72d0-4139-b957-c2894fae7006", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a quasi-experimental design:", "Options": { "A": "There is no specific intervention by the researcher on the independent variable or treatment.", "B": "Spontaneous behavior is studied in natural situations.", "C": "It constitutes the maximum degree of intervention and internal control.", "D": "Study groups can not be organized by random assignment.", "E": "It represents the maximum degree of naturalness and the minimum internal control." }, "Correct Answer": "Study groups can not be organized by random assignment.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "042d1761-a4f9-4e03-90df-e4f37d38ac7e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What conclusion is reached in Asch's theory about the effects of context on social perception?", "Options": { "A": "If a trait is defined as central, it will be central in any context.", "B": "Traits, peripheral or central, are independent of the context in which they appear.", "C": "The same trait can be central in one context and peripheral in another.", "D": "The final impression is the result of the sum of each of the features separately.", "E": "The final impression is the result of the arithmetic mean of the values ​​of each of the features separately." }, "Correct Answer": "The same trait can be central in one context and peripheral in another.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cf2ca5d7-809a-4dfb-90bb-14c979bb4957", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On certain occasions, when we form an impression of others, we are influenced by our beliefs about the traits that go together in people. What theories put this fact in relief?", "Options": { "A": "Implicit Theories of the Personality.", "B": "Theories of Corresponding Inferences.", "C": "Theories of the Integration of Information.", "D": "Theories of the Central Traits.", "E": "Theory of Social Identity." }, "Correct Answer": "Implicit Theories of the Personality.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2e82ae9e-a3d8-4283-8f0c-f6ef1fa16da7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the tendency to think that others behave as oneself in a certain situation?", "Options": { "A": "Perceptive selection.", "B": "Last attribution error.", "C": "False consensus.", "D": "Self-centered attribution error.", "E": "Confirmatory trends" }, "Correct Answer": "False consensus.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f5a3c543-ad89-4ba5-a5e3-09c321f5171a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Imagine that you are in the supermarket with your neighbor and notice that you have a bruise on your eye. What heuristic would be applied if it overestimates the possibility that it is due to a problem of abuse?", "Options": { "A": "Representativeness", "B": "Availability / Accessibility", "C": "Simulation.", "D": "Anchoring-Adjustment.", "E": "False consensus." }, "Correct Answer": "Availability / Accessibility", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2876db2c-d9fc-42d5-8a8d-4094ccda3706", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What theory would explain our need to reduce or eliminate the psychological distress produced when we have to choose between two equally attractive alternatives?", "Options": { "A": "Ingenuous Theory of Action.", "B": "Theory of Cognitive Dissonance.", "C": "Theory of Social Comparison", "D": "Theory of the Psychological Reactance.", "E": "Theory of the Cognitive Response." }, "Correct Answer": "Theory of Cognitive Dissonance.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "623814b8-d0d6-4c88-ab78-0de9dd8e7e98", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Ajzen's Theory of Planned Action, what would be the direct determinant of the behavior?", "Options": { "A": "The intention.", "B": "The definition of the situation.", "C": "The definition of the event.", "D": "The attitude towards behavior.", "E": "The perceived behavioral control." }, "Correct Answer": "The intention.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5513ccde-7375-45ac-935d-c4303241413a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the process of formation of impressions, what does the phenomenon of Perceptual Defense refer to?", "Options": { "A": "Low threshold to perceive threatening stimuli.", "B": "Low threshold of recognition before stimuli that satisfy our needs.", "C": "High threshold to perceive threatening stimuli.", "D": "High threshold of recognition before positive stimuli.", "E": "Low threshold to perceive both negative and positive stimuli." }, "Correct Answer": "High threshold to perceive threatening stimuli.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "237bff1d-f0c9-4e83-93fa-e114e9ed0c49", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the CORRECT statement about the treatment program for the challenging defiant disorder created by Barkley:", "Options": { "A": "Its main scope of application is the classroom.", "B": "It makes an intensive use of modeling.", "C": "It is a training program for parents.", "D": "Comorbidity with ADHD discourages the application of this program.", "E": "It consists of twelve steps." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a training program for parents.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "975c5a50-76b5-4a7a-ab05-9f6e4551e883", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what kind of interventions in the problems of child and youth behavior has Patterson's theory of coercion served as a conceptual model?", "Options": { "A": "For the training of parents of children with behavioral disorders.", "B": "For rehabilitation interventions based on cognitive-behavioral.", "C": "For interventions carried out in therapeutic communities.", "D": "For referral programs that try to avoid the stigmatizing effects of labeling.", "E": "For the economies of tokens carried out in prisons and reformatories." }, "Correct Answer": "For the training of parents of children with behavioral disorders.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5d0be169-5532-4251-8f5f-07cac8fbb3b4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For which of the following children's problems has the effectiveness of the symbolic modeling technique been demonstrated?", "Options": { "A": "Childhood depression", "B": "Behavioral disorders associated with ADHD.", "C": "The autism", "D": "The shyness.", "E": "The selective mutism." }, "Correct Answer": "The shyness.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b74d48b6-da35-4067-ab29-532b8e7fea4e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On what model are the intervention programs most successful in the early treatment of childhood autism based?", "Options": { "A": "In the applied analysis of behavior.", "B": "In the neomediational behaviorism.", "C": "In the theory of social learning.", "D": "In Lacanian psychoanalysis.", "E": "In the theory of attachment." }, "Correct Answer": "In the applied analysis of behavior.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "caeb7775-e308-41e7-a3e9-4afc42a09d25", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What technique, based on the theory of social learning, is considered well established for the treatment of childhood fears?", "Options": { "A": "The practice reinforced.", "B": "The self-instructions of courage.", "C": "The modeling", "D": "Modeling with participation.", "E": "The live exhibition." }, "Correct Answer": "Modeling with participation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e55eb097-c507-4d23-abc3-91b53f2cee00", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the components of the habit inversion procedure for the treatment of tics?", "Options": { "A": "The self-registration of tics and relaxation.", "B": "Self-control and contingency management by parents.", "C": "Exposure with response prevention and cognitive restructuring.", "D": "The training in increasing awareness of the occurrence of tics and the practice of a competitive response.", "E": "Relaxation and the practice of a competitive response." }, "Correct Answer": "The training in increasing awareness of the occurrence of tics and the practice of a competitive response.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "56d2118c-25d1-44ed-a355-098f1415401d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is an advantage of the alarm method for the treatment of enuresis?", "Options": { "A": "Its mechanism of action is well known.", "B": "It does not require awakening the child on a scheduled basis throughout the night.", "C": "It acts faster than desmopressin.", "D": "It does not require extra fluid intake (overlearning) as part of the treatment protocol.", "E": "Acts faster than dry bed training." }, "Correct Answer": "It does not require awakening the child on a scheduled basis throughout the night.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2a5816a8-bbcc-4528-83f7-dca2b8237092", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The program of Deblinger and Heflin (1996) for the treatment of minors who have suffered sexual abuse is based on different modules, among which is:", "Options": { "A": "The training in coping skills.", "B": "Active avoidance of aversive situations.", "C": "Flood.", "D": "Avoidance of stereotyped behaviors.", "E": "Overcorrection" }, "Correct Answer": "The training in coping skills.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4326a2cf-9fde-49d1-872a-9c9477795bab", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The treatment of choice for Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in childhood is:", "Options": { "A": "The cognitive restructuring.", "B": "The exhibition, both in imagination and live.", "C": "No treatment has been proven more effective than the rest.", "D": "Planning of pleasant activities and training in social skills.", "E": "The relaxation technique alone has proven to be more effective than the rest." }, "Correct Answer": "The exhibition, both in imagination and live.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9e198aca-7fbc-43c8-a64a-212eb5e3dbb7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With what author or authors is the Motivational Interview associated?", "Options": { "A": "Marlatt and Gordon.", "B": "Hunt and Azrin.", "C": "Carroll.", "D": "Miller and Rollnick.", "E": "Prochaska and Diclemente." }, "Correct Answer": "Miller and Rollnick.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d5d33fa8-cf90-4df8-8e0f-da3be252a47e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what type of addiction has the community reinforcement program plus incentive therapy been proven to be a well-established treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Alcohol.", "B": "Cocaine.", "C": "Heroin.", "D": "Tobacco.", "E": "Cannabis" }, "Correct Answer": "Cocaine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c8f83332-5070-4ffc-87a5-d429b35cbdae", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of alcoholism, what is Exposure Therapy based on the behavior of drinking?", "Options": { "A": "In the Respondent Conditioning.", "B": "In operant conditioning.", "C": "In social learning.", "D": "In the Saciation.", "E": "In Cognitive Reatribution." }, "Correct Answer": "In the Respondent Conditioning.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a553966c-8ef3-4880-9bf7-1c1069bae5a8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the behavioral cognitive perspective, for the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder it is recommended:", "Options": { "A": "Exposure therapy", "B": "The operating techniques.", "C": "Interpersonal therapy", "D": "The training in mindfulness.", "E": "The training in social skills." }, "Correct Answer": "The training in social skills.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cb00698f-1614-4dd5-86c7-5eb5e60a3838", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The therapy based on mentalization focuses on:", "Options": { "A": "The promotion of the relaxation of the maladaptive functioning pattern.", "B": "The transferential interpretations that emerge in the relationship between patient and therapist.", "C": "The promotion of motivation to relate to significant others and establish safe limits.", "D": "The regulation of emotions.", "E": "The ability to acquire a sense of self and others in terms of subjective states and mental processes." }, "Correct Answer": "The ability to acquire a sense of self and others in terms of subjective states and mental processes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c7932b0e-d7e6-4caa-8d46-ed7462a2c3d5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Young's schema therapy for personality disorders derives from:", "Options": { "A": "The therapy of acceptance and commitment.", "B": "The emotive rational therapy.", "C": "Cognitive therapy of Beck.", "D": "Cognitive assessment therapy.", "E": "Interpersonal therapy" }, "Correct Answer": "Cognitive therapy of Beck.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7328ee36-99d4-4374-aebd-ea9e427f2fb9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the strategies of Emotional Regulation, which of the following would be an acceptance strategy within cognitive-behavioral therapies?", "Options": { "A": "Distraction.", "B": "Behavioral Activation", "C": "Exposure with Prevention of Response.", "D": "Emotional Expression Adjusted.", "E": "Emotional Inhibition." }, "Correct Answer": "Emotional Expression Adjusted.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cc326115-3a19-4235-bd73-caf49b8722d9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is structured around two central concepts, what are they?", "Options": { "A": "Experiential Avoidance and Personal Values.", "B": "Acceptance and Validation", "C": "Activation and Commitment", "D": "Experiential Avoidance and Cognitive Restructuring.", "E": "The emotional Vulnerability and the cognitive defusion." }, "Correct Answer": "Experiential Avoidance and Personal Values.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3632c191-6332-4b9a-8853-c761a0aa8d69", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When training in self-instruction is done in young children, which of the following indications may NOT help the success of the training?", "Options": { "A": "Begin training with play activities.", "B": "Work with two children.", "C": "Use imagination techniques.", "D": "Encourage the child to memorize and mechanically use the self-instructions.", "E": "Combine with reinforcement techniques." }, "Correct Answer": "Encourage the child to memorize and mechanically use the self-instructions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cb886ceb-8faf-4746-81ff-0b031ee7511c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the last phase in the basic procedure of self-instruction training of Meichenbaum?", "Options": { "A": "Masked self-instructions (in a low voice).", "B": "Cognitive modeling", "C": "Covert self-instructions.", "D": "Self-instructions aloud", "E": "Participant cognitive modeling." }, "Correct Answer": "Covert self-instructions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8a61ddbd-414c-497a-81c4-582729605935", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "At what stage of problem-solving therapy are the principles of quantity, deferment of judgment and variety used?", "Options": { "A": "Decision making.", "B": "Orientation towards the problem.", "C": "Definition and formulation of the problem.", "D": "Generation of alternative solutions.", "E": "Implementation and verification of the solution." }, "Correct Answer": "Generation of alternative solutions.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c61ad8d3-febb-46b8-a08a-77a6d36857d5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the molding technique, which of the following characteristics is TRUE?", "Options": { "A": "A structured environment is required.", "B": "It can be carried out forward and backward.", "C": "It implies the successive application of reinforcement and extinction.", "D": "The successive approximations are necessarily part of the final behavior.", "E": "The goal behavior can be simple or complex." }, "Correct Answer": "It implies the successive application of reinforcement and extinction.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2d515213-b705-49ca-a5da-d5f6680eefa8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the use of virtual reality on display, what is the correct answer?", "Options": { "A": "It totally replaces the real exposure.", "B": "Any real stimulus can be programmed with accuracy virtually.", "C": "Virtual reality allows the therapist to build a clinically meaningful environment.", "D": "Studies indicate better results than imaginative techniques.", "E": "Patients usually do not present difficulties in the virtual context." }, "Correct Answer": "Virtual reality allows the therapist to build a clinically meaningful environment.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b88ea5f3-df92-4509-b38e-8ad0b961e0f5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the prevention of relapses in major depressive disorder, current data indicate that the cognitive therapy of Beck's depression:", "Options": { "A": "It is an effective treatment.", "B": "It is an effective treatment only if it is applied in combination with antidepressant medication.", "C": "It is a less effective treatment than the continuation antidepressant medication.", "D": "It is a treatment that has not yet been examined in its efficacy compared to the continuation antidepressant medication.", "E": "It is effective for the acute treatment of major antidepressant disorder, but not to prevent its relapse." }, "Correct Answer": "It is an effective treatment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c31ea4f1-8087-4b01-8bf1-c0fab4d7001b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Currently, which of the following behavioral treatments is considered an effective treatment for major depressive disorder?", "Options": { "A": "The applied relaxation.", "B": "The problem solving therapy.", "C": "The Flood.", "D": "Interpersonal therapy", "E": "The arrest of thought." }, "Correct Answer": "The problem solving therapy.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "45c380f6-7845-4380-b025-fcb212bdb44c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The \"Course for coping with depression\" (CAD) of Lewinsohn is a program of treatment of depression:", "Options": { "A": "Specific for teenagers", "B": "Designed with an educational program to be done individually.", "C": "Consisting of a modality of Beck cognitive therapy for its application in groups.", "D": "Aimed at teaching certain skills such as, for example, the increase of pleasant activities and social skills.", "E": "Highly structured and brief, with a duration of only 6 sessions." }, "Correct Answer": "Aimed at teaching certain skills such as, for example, the increase of pleasant activities and social skills.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "36c32991-f207-4af2-bafd-0c44b782ae7f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which four problem areas does interpersonal therapy for depression focus?", "Options": { "A": "Interpersonal disputes, sexual relationships, interpersonal deficits and mother-child relationships during childhood.", "B": "Interpersonal deficits, mother-child relationships during childhood, sexual relations and role transition.", "C": "Mourning, interpersonal disputes, role transition and interpersonal deficits.", "D": "Sexual relations, mother-child relationships during childhood, relationship problems and current family problems.", "E": "Grief, mother-child relationships during childhood, interpersonal disputes and sexual relationships." }, "Correct Answer": "Mourning, interpersonal disputes, role transition and interpersonal deficits.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fb70e7f4-4455-4e41-9b89-fb7a2ddef195", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is interpersonal therapy of social rhythm (or interpersonal and social rhythm therapy)?", "Options": { "A": "An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of dysthymic disorder.", "B": "An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of severe major depressive disorder.", "C": "A therapy resulting from combining interpersonal therapy, behavioral activation therapy and social problem solving therapy.", "D": "An adaptation of interpersonal therapy for patients with major depressive disorder who have serious problems in their social relationships.", "E": "An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of bipolar disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of bipolar disorder.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3b210feb-34dd-43cd-85e2-849069ddf005", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the INCORRECT RESPONSE on the psychological treatment protocol for social phobia proposed by D.M. Clark, A. Wells and collaborators:", "Options": { "A": "He resorts frequently to behavioral experiments.", "B": "It includes the abandonment of security behaviors.", "C": "It is applied almost always in group format.", "D": "Use techniques to modify the distorted self-image.", "E": "The patient is encouraged to ask other people about their beliefs." }, "Correct Answer": "It is applied almost always in group format.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9962312c-0da8-48b5-9918-bd4d3306f55b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What cognitive technique is used in Rational Emotive Behavior therapy to help people who have intellectual difficulties?", "Options": { "A": "Reduction to the absurd.", "B": "Cognitive distraction", "C": "Training in social skills.", "D": "Rational-emotive imagination.", "E": "Training in self-instructions." }, "Correct Answer": "Training in self-instructions.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e4462710-16bc-40a3-9bbc-2b8ef9a6164d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What aspect related to the therapeutic style would NOT a therapist adopt in Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy?", "Options": { "A": "Promote catharsis.", "B": "Be active and directive.", "C": "Be verbally very active", "D": "Be didactic", "E": "Be nice." }, "Correct Answer": "Promote catharsis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "59cd56b4-9747-4c62-8e77-1bd75a9fc9dc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the person only observes the behavior of the model and learns its behavior or patterns of action, without reproducing it during the training session, what type of modeling is it?", "Options": { "A": "Modeling in vivo.", "B": "Participant modeling", "C": "Symbolic modeling", "D": "Passive modeling", "E": "Modeling self-instructions." }, "Correct Answer": "Passive modeling", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "19710a41-f48d-44d2-a186-4be39d97c914", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What model of Family Therapy states that the change occurs when the pathological family game is replaced by another less harmful game?", "Options": { "A": "Therapy of the group of Milan.", "B": "Palo Alto MRI Therapy.", "C": "Therapy focused on solutions.", "D": "Structural therapy", "E": "Strategic therapy" }, "Correct Answer": "Therapy of the group of Milan.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7380de40-16a0-4cc7-baa3-75793145fb79", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the use of the descending arrow technique in the cognitive therapy of depression?", "Options": { "A": "To identify the assumptions and beliefs (cognitive schemes) that underlie the patient's depressive problems.", "B": "To program an increasing number of pleasant activities.", "C": "To identify situations of high risk of relapse.", "D": "To name the cognitive distortions that the patient commits.", "E": "To establish the agenda or agenda of the session." }, "Correct Answer": "To identify the assumptions and beliefs (cognitive schemes) that underlie the patient's depressive problems.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2e65ce69-1227-4b9f-a1c3-15a2d1f165c5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What do behavioral treatments for major depressive disorder have in common?", "Options": { "A": "The use of exposure techniques to stressful situations.", "B": "The main objective of modifying maladaptive beliefs and assumptions that make a person vulnerable to depression.", "C": "Which are unstructured therapies and without a limited number of sessions.", "D": "The main objective of increasing the positive reinforcement received by the depressed person.", "E": "The main objective of relating depression to problematic interpersonal situations." }, "Correct Answer": "The main objective of increasing the positive reinforcement received by the depressed person.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "599ae42e-21e2-42e5-8018-21670b3a656b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of major depressive disorder, what are the advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) compared to tricyclic antidepressants?", "Options": { "A": "They are more effective.", "B": "They have been used for a longer time, while tricyclic antidepressants are more modern and are not well known.", "C": "They have fewer side effects.", "D": "Its efficacy has been proven in controlled studies, while tricyclic antidepressants have not yet been evaluated in controlled studies.", "E": "They have no clear advantage." }, "Correct Answer": "They have fewer side effects.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2614dd0c-60f3-4dc3-b547-61c41b1c3df4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the differences in the treatment of affective disorders between Beck's cognitive therapy and interpersonal therapy, which of the following is CORRECT?", "Options": { "A": "Interpersonal therapy has been applied to the treatment of bipolar disorder, but Beck's cognitive therapy has not yet.", "B": "Beck cognitive therapy is a structured therapy with a short number of sessions, while interpersonal therapy does not.", "C": "Beck's cognitive therapy was created by a psychiatrist, while interpersonal therapy was created by a psychologist.", "D": "Interpersonal therapy is based on the notion of emotional attachment of evolutionary psychology, while Beck's cognitive therapy does not.", "E": "Beck's cognitive therapy is one of the psychological treatments that have well established efficacy in major depressive disorder in adults, while interpersonal therapy has not yet." }, "Correct Answer": "Interpersonal therapy is based on the notion of emotional attachment of evolutionary psychology, while Beck's cognitive therapy does not.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d8216899-2f8d-41e7-be99-88814dd5db2d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following interventions is NOT part of the training in defecatory habits for the treatment of corporpresis?", "Options": { "A": "The use of enemas to achieve initial disimpaction and prevent constipation.", "B": "The establishment of a specific time of the day to carry out the defecation on a regular basis.", "C": "Positive contingent punishment to defecation in inappropriate places (underwear).", "D": "Provide restrictions and dietary recommendations.", "E": "The reinforcement for keeping the clothes clean at the end of the day." }, "Correct Answer": "Positive contingent punishment to defecation in inappropriate places (underwear).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e16f6803-a712-4f6b-b7c2-ad045b248ed1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of depression, therapy or training in social skills focuses mainly on improving classes or repertoires of behaviors that are especially relevant for depressed individuals and among which is the positive assertion. What kind of behavior does the positive assertion refer to?", "Options": { "A": "Behaviors that allow the person to defend their rights and interests.", "B": "Conduct to initiate conversations, ask questions and perform appropriate self-revelations.", "C": "Conduct regarding the expression of affection, approval and praise towards other people.", "D": "Behaviors to impose one's own interests over the interests of others.", "E": "Behaviors to generate positive emotions when a person is alone." }, "Correct Answer": "Conduct regarding the expression of affection, approval and praise towards other people.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d92cbb17-1ee3-4a3e-8b4c-5a52f29f1214", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the goal of the Coping Cat treatment program \"The cat that manages\" Kendall?", "Options": { "A": "The improvement of interpersonal problem solving skills.", "B": "The improvement of the mood.", "C": "The decrease in anxiety symptoms.", "D": "The decrease in impulsive behaviors.", "E": "The treatment of animal phobia." }, "Correct Answer": "The decrease in anxiety symptoms.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b726aa51-94c7-433f-b86d-e05f2abc68fa", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For which disorder is the technique of fading stimulated frequently used?", "Options": { "A": "Enuresis", "B": "The selective mutism.", "C": "Childhood asthma", "D": "Posttraumatic stress disorder secondary to sexual abuse.", "E": "The encopresis." }, "Correct Answer": "The selective mutism.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cc0c0757-c747-468b-8689-fccb80afcdd5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about the technique of emotive images is FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "It is a variant of systematic desensitization.", "B": "It was developed to treat phobias of small children or with difficulties to relax.", "C": "It is a multicomponent program for the treatment of childhood phobias.", "D": "It is usually induced an inhibitory response to anxiety other than relaxation.", "E": "It can be used for the treatment of medical fears." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a multicomponent program for the treatment of childhood phobias.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6b371535-e21a-4007-a568-ed6b77a2d902", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following alternatives is CORRECT in relation to the treatment of sleepwalking?", "Options": { "A": "Early intervention is recommended since it is a disorder that usually becomes chronic.", "B": "It does not require any intervention since the safety of the child is never in danger.", "C": "The technique of programmed awakenings has been used successfully.", "D": "The child is usually asked to draw the dreams he has during the episodes to reduce the anguish.", "E": "Do not try to reassure the child and take him back to bed because of the danger of waking up in that state." }, "Correct Answer": "The technique of programmed awakenings has been used successfully.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "51f95ddb-6941-44c2-9763-4da1d628e2b7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is a characteristic of the psychopharmacological treatment of ADHD?", "Options": { "A": "To reduce motor distress, anxiolytic drugs are usually used.", "B": "Among its possible side effects are the worsening of behavior at the end of the day (rebound effect) and the intensification of existing tics.", "C": "The effect of methylphenidate is maintained in the medium term once the treatment has been interrupted.", "D": "It can improve attention and decrease hyperactivity but is not effective in managing impulsive behaviors.", "E": "When it is effective in improving attention and controlling hyperactivity, psychological intervention is unnecessary." }, "Correct Answer": "Among its possible side effects are the worsening of behavior at the end of the day (rebound effect) and the intensification of existing tics.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e58b7f77-fe0c-4858-a024-e5321c676a02", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the most effective techniques included in psychological intervention programs for primary female orgasmic dysfunction is:", "Options": { "A": "Vacuum therapy", "B": "The exhibition in imagination.", "C": "The pubococcygeus muscle training.", "D": "The systematic desensitization.", "E": "The stop and start technique." }, "Correct Answer": "The pubococcygeus muscle training.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "84c401ea-6242-421b-9449-651e55170628", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the first stage of Fairburn's behavioral cognitive treatment for bulimia nervosa, one of the objectives is:", "Options": { "A": "Modify maladaptive social interaction patterns.", "B": "Establish effective communication patterns.", "C": "Work on the suppression of diet follow-up.", "D": "Modify adaptive family functioning patterns.", "E": "Present the model that explains the maintenance of the problem." }, "Correct Answer": "Present the model that explains the maintenance of the problem.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ac063d3d-836f-400f-89b0-39174fc4da10", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the well-established goals of the treatment of anorexia nervosa is:", "Options": { "A": "Substitute the food restriction for physical exercise.", "B": "Get family support and provide family advice.", "C": "Carry out intensive and brief interventions.", "D": "Enhance self-help strategies from the beginning of treatment.", "E": "Separate the patient from his family environment while the treatment lasts." }, "Correct Answer": "Get family support and provide family advice.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0b244fd7-8bf1-4bce-8c7f-7740eabc4f90", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "There is consensus that the treatment of eating disorders should have an approach:", "Options": { "A": "Psychodynamic", "B": "Of family therapy.", "C": "Cognitive.", "D": "Multidisciplinary", "E": "Pharmacological." }, "Correct Answer": "Multidisciplinary", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "48eb64ae-ccc7-47f2-ad74-b3c18dd5fa33", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following treatments has NOT been shown to be effective in the treatment of schizophrenia?", "Options": { "A": "The assertive community treatment.", "B": "Protected employment procedures for labor rehabilitation.", "C": "The integrated programs of cognitive rehabilitation.", "D": "The psychoeducational family intervention.", "E": "Psychoanalytic therapy of limited time." }, "Correct Answer": "Psychoanalytic therapy of limited time.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "91de9881-75c5-4afd-bba3-30d6e921de2e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The evaluation of the expressed emotion construct is especially significant in the treatment of schizophrenia when the following intervention is applied:", "Options": { "A": "Behavioral cognitive of psychotic symptoms.", "B": "Training in Social Skills.", "C": "Family intervention", "D": "Cognitive rehabilitation", "E": "Work rehabilitation." }, "Correct Answer": "Family intervention", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "267a922e-158d-4591-9348-f6b32d83c8f3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the pharmacological treatment of hallucinations and delusions, what is the correct answer?", "Options": { "A": "Between 30-50% of people with psychosis treated with antipsychotics continue to experience difficulties derived from clinical symptoms.", "B": "Antipsychotics act on the positive symptoms of psychosis, but mainly eliminate the negative symptoms.", "C": "The extrapyramidal side effects they cause are intractable.", "D": "When an antipsychotic does not improve symptoms, changing the treatment is not advisable.", "E": "It is advisable not to combine it with psychological treatment until the psychotic symptoms have disappeared." }, "Correct Answer": "Between 30-50% of people with psychosis treated with antipsychotics continue to experience difficulties derived from clinical symptoms.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "085424bd-7252-4c8b-a89a-42668a1dc18d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What kind of drug is clozapine?", "Options": { "A": "An anxiolytic", "B": "An antidepressant", "C": "An antipsychotic", "D": "A benzodiazepine", "E": "A hypnotic" }, "Correct Answer": "An antipsychotic", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2038d321-c2b3-49cd-8faa-06ca5858b7b5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Is the goal of focusing techniques for the treatment of auditory hallucinations?", "Options": { "A": "That patients are distracted from hallucinations.", "B": "That patients gradually rearrange the origin of auditory hallucinations to themselves.", "C": "That patients do not listen to voices.", "D": "That patients with hallucinations take medication.", "E": "That patients do not think about hallucinations." }, "Correct Answer": "That patients gradually rearrange the origin of auditory hallucinations to themselves.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7e6eb1f7-85eb-4485-981b-b3de1dff1ef3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the field of schizophrenia, indicate which of the modules of social skills to live independently is NOT part of the program developed by Liberman and collaborators:", "Options": { "A": "Module of reintegration in the community.", "B": "Module of control / handling of substance abuse (dual pathology).", "C": "Module of interpersonal and intimate relationships.", "D": "Module of leisure and free time.", "E": "Crisis management module." }, "Correct Answer": "Crisis management module.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b77b643e-7d1a-43fa-81a9-51a828baf639", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The psychological treatments in bipolar disorder share several therapeutic objectives, among which is NOT:", "Options": { "A": "Train patients in the detection of the initial symptoms that precede the disorder.", "B": "Replace the need for a long-term pharmacological treatment.", "C": "Teach patients strategies to cope with stressful stimuli that can trigger or exacerbate symptoms.", "D": "Improve adherence to pharmacological treatment.", "E": "Provide patients with techniques to manage the initial symptoms, thus preventing them from getting worse." }, "Correct Answer": "Replace the need for a long-term pharmacological treatment.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ddabef32-b6b7-45c7-a106-619928b673ee", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Phototherapy or light therapy is used for the treatment of:", "Options": { "A": "Crisis of panic.", "B": "Major depression", "C": "Bipolar disorder.", "D": "Post-traumatic stress disorder.", "E": "Seasonal affective disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Seasonal affective disorder.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "36f07dba-1dcb-4a55-9693-efcc5d57552d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following elements of cognitive-behavioral therapy for panic disorder (or panic disorder) has been especially questioned and its utility has been minimized. Indicate which:", "Options": { "A": "Interoceptive exposure.", "B": "Education.", "C": "Live exhibition.", "D": "Training in breathing.", "E": "Cognitive restructuring." }, "Correct Answer": "Training in breathing.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8d9651c0-55f6-4b80-b242-f8b93038c9a2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs has shown in controlled studies that can increase the effectiveness of exposure therapy in the treatment of specific phobias?", "Options": { "A": "Alprazolam", "B": "Quetiapine", "C": "D-cycloserine.", "D": "Bupropion.", "E": "Buspirona." }, "Correct Answer": "D-cycloserine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "945d7922-a53d-4c46-b6c8-cd136264c400", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following anxiety disorders is considered that there is no pharmacological treatment of choice?", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "B": "Panic disorder (anguish disorder).", "C": "Social phobia.", "D": "Specific phobia.", "E": "Post-traumatic stress disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Specific phobia.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "15e40a46-47d4-4f3e-ae08-6be5f9e0f258", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "\"Programmed practice\" is a type of psychological intervention that has been used mainly in:", "Options": { "A": "The agoraphobia.", "B": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "C": "Anorexia nervosa.", "D": "Hypochondria.", "E": "Social phobia" }, "Correct Answer": "The agoraphobia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8a20830e-a4fb-4e75-a40d-0a72ecfedfed", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Systematic training for the redirection of attention to aspects or positive external stimuli to counteract the excess of self-consciousness, is part of the psychological treatment protocols especially for:", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "B": "The agoraphobia.", "C": "Anxiety disorder (panic disorder).", "D": "Social phobia", "E": "Post-traumatic stress disorder" }, "Correct Answer": "Social phobia", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "733b1dcb-7e8a-44e8-8023-4bb6ebd28005", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The psychological treatment of generalized anxiety disorder focused on addressing negative beliefs about concerns (eg, that worries are uncontrollable) and positive dysfunctional beliefs about the usefulness of caring (eg, that worry improves outcomes) known as:", "Options": { "A": "Emotion regulation therapy.", "B": "Metacognitive therapy", "C": "Behavioral therapy based on acceptance.", "D": "Integrative therapy", "E": "Somatic awareness therapy" }, "Correct Answer": "Metacognitive therapy", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c31ff531-5b44-435f-9b2c-75b8250d09d3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs would be the most indicated initially in a patient with an obsessive-compulsive disorder?", "Options": { "A": "Buspirona.", "B": "Risperidone.", "C": "Alprazolam", "D": "Clomipramine", "E": "Methylphenidate" }, "Correct Answer": "Clomipramine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "dae07ee0-a4b2-4636-8169-57c047cec395", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Benzodiazepines reduce anxiety because they work as:", "Options": { "A": "Antagonists of GABA receptors.", "B": "GABA receptor agonists.", "C": "Antagonist of noradrenergic receptors.", "D": "Noradrenergic receptor agonist.", "E": "Antagonists of serotonergic receptors." }, "Correct Answer": "GABA receptor agonists.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "aec99ad0-f186-4e1e-bfa8-f77a693939bc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the leaders of the Structural / Strategic School of Systemic Therapy?", "Options": { "A": "O'Hanlon and Weiner-Davis.", "B": "Haley and Minuchin.", "C": "Weakland and Fisch.", "D": "Keeney and Ross.", "E": "Stierlin and Weber." }, "Correct Answer": "Haley and Minuchin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bd54646a-1170-40b6-a99b-a39f0ffd1010", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What psychoanalytic author worked in a different way to Freud, sitting face to face, with sessions once a week and his treatment rarely exceeding one year?", "Options": { "A": "Alfred Adler", "B": "Carl Jung.", "C": "M. Klein.", "D": "A. Freud", "E": "J. Lacan." }, "Correct Answer": "Alfred Adler", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "34ca4ab3-0af0-45a9-a53e-9a6195b379de", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following psychopharmacological treatments would NOT be indicated in the long-term treatment of a person diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder?", "Options": { "A": "Pregabalin", "B": "Venlafaxine", "C": "Escitalopram.", "D": "Alprazolam", "E": "Duloxetine" }, "Correct Answer": "Alprazolam", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b8256a78-f3a1-432c-8314-b5ed7320dff6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With which author is associated the development and evaluation of cognitive-behavioral therapy in group as a gold standard treatment for social phobia?", "Options": { "A": "Clark.", "B": "Wells", "C": "There is.", "D": "Beck.", "E": "Heimberg." }, "Correct Answer": "Heimberg.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "93681e93-14c8-48bf-8c8a-973d160318cb", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The best strategy to provide information to patients with cancer is:", "Options": { "A": "Do not inform them so that the patient does not despair.", "B": "Give them all the possible information to reduce to the maximum the uncertainty that the situation causes.", "C": "Focus exclusively on providing information relevant to the aspects directly linked to the disease.", "D": "Adapt the information to the informative demands of the patients.", "E": "Limit to offering information to family members so they can provide it at the right time to the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "Adapt the information to the informative demands of the patients.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7e3e4d6a-879a-4f8c-a0fd-9eba7cf344a1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following alterations is found within the alterations of the corporal conscience?", "Options": { "A": "Twilight state.", "B": "Asthenic-apathetic stadium.", "C": "Hypnotic dissociation.", "D": "Astereognosia", "E": "Automatism." }, "Correct Answer": "Astereognosia", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "97df3875-5ee5-45e4-a2ae-7db07a6f8942", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "\"Tunnel vision\" is a phenomenon that cognitive psychology attributes to the role of attention as:", "Options": { "A": "Selection.", "B": "Activation.", "C": "Concentration.", "D": "Surveillance.", "E": "Expectation." }, "Correct Answer": "Activation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "dfd3a7dc-5e06-4076-a207-22ae951720cb", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the operation of the attention in anxious subjects, if we compare it with the non-anxious people, what can be said?", "Options": { "A": "That there are differences in the content of the information to which the attention is directed.", "B": "Which is a \"spiral\" processing.", "C": "That preatencionales biases are not committed.", "D": "That they maintain a self-focused attention.", "E": "That they do not show greater attention selectivity." }, "Correct Answer": "That there are differences in the content of the information to which the attention is directed.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5a5cb47c-7590-4de5-8c0b-0378ab348e91", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most commonly used term to designate the most intense degree of distraction and the complete absence of attention?", "Options": { "A": "Attentional perplexity.", "B": "Attention indifference.", "C": "Hyperprosexia.", "D": "Mental absence", "E": "Aprosexia." }, "Correct Answer": "Aprosexia.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "191a0e8f-f89e-4a1a-9a4f-c4dbaf3092f7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of anomalies are the Micropsy and autometamorphopsia?", "Options": { "A": "Abnormalities in the perception of quality.", "B": "Abnormalities in the perception of size / shape.", "C": "Abnormalities in the perception of intensity.", "D": "Perceptive deception.", "E": "The same perceptual distortion." }, "Correct Answer": "Abnormalities in the perception of size / shape.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9cb04abd-22a5-41c8-9612-b89fc5612725", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What kind of image appears when the individual does not fixate his attention on it and, on the contrary, disappears when he concentrates on the experience?", "Options": { "A": "Consecutive images", "B": "Mnemic images.", "C": "Hallucinoid images.", "D": "Abnormal images", "E": "Parasitic images" }, "Correct Answer": "Parasitic images", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4217319c-d084-4bbe-9002-6da4bdbb6041", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is one of the differences between Alzheimer's and subcortical patients (especially Huntington and Parkinson's)?", "Options": { "A": "The ability to semantically encode the information seems to be preserved in the subcorticals, while Alzheimer's seems quite deteriorated.", "B": "There is greater loss of recognition memory in the subcorticals.", "C": "The rate of forgetfulness is slower in Alzheimer's.", "D": "Retrograde amnesia is temporarily graded in subcortical patients.", "E": "There is less loss of recognition memory in Alzheimer's." }, "Correct Answer": "The ability to semantically encode the information seems to be preserved in the subcorticals, while Alzheimer's seems quite deteriorated.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6c69ddda-b9f0-405f-ae49-727fa71647ad", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the case of epileptic seizures, which of these data would allow us to state that it is hysterical crisis, and not epileptic seizures?", "Options": { "A": "The presence of apnea.", "B": "That the EEG record is normal.", "C": "They appear both when the individual is alone or accompanied.", "D": "Bites appear on the tongue or injuries due to falls.", "E": "Urinary incontinence appears." }, "Correct Answer": "That the EEG record is normal.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1426e4d5-92f2-4f33-a74f-aa7620d8befd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Tics can be associated with altered behaviors that arise at a certain time. When the symptoms appear between 35 and 45 years, according to Shapiro's classification, to what tic we refer?", "Options": { "A": "Simple acute tic.", "B": "Chronic simple tic.", "C": "Huntington's Korea.", "D": "Chronic multiple tic.", "E": "Multiple tic of the adult." }, "Correct Answer": "Huntington's Korea.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b65329a6-8565-4854-b4c9-12cc5b08b08c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the psychomotor disorder that can appear in an individual who has used phenothiazines for a prolonged period of time?", "Options": { "A": "Acute dyskinesia", "B": "Hypermymy", "C": "Hypomimia", "D": "Mannerisms.", "E": "Tardive dyskinesia" }, "Correct Answer": "Tardive dyskinesia", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "66bf0c8d-f200-436f-aaf1-331d57597dc4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is catatonic stupor?", "Options": { "A": "One of the paralysis responses due to fear of catastrophic situations or the feeling of inability to cope with stressful or threatening situations.", "B": "Perplexity produced by a feeling of anguish, depression, guilt and a feeling of total incapacity for the decision.", "C": "A response of awe and rigidity due to terror, anguish and perplexity, whose origin is difficult to demonstrate, has been interpreted as due to \"some serious threat to the conscience about himself, obvious to him\".", "D": "Decrease (and even absence) of verbal and motor responses to stimuli.", "E": "Muscular movements in the form of violent and uncontrollable contractions of the voluntary musculature, which manifest themselves in one or several muscle groups or in a generalized manner throughout the body." }, "Correct Answer": "A response of awe and rigidity due to terror, anguish and perplexity, whose origin is difficult to demonstrate, has been interpreted as due to \"some serious threat to the conscience about himself, obvious to him\".", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a03106c5-76d1-4993-8c78-e6bb2a38169f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Scale of Thought Disorders, Language and Communication (Andreasen, 1979), what is the definition of Distracted Speech:", "Options": { "A": "Answers of a longer duration than adequate and that provide little information.", "B": "The patient stands in the middle of a sentence or idea and changes the subject in response to immediate stimuli.", "C": "The patient responds obliquely, tangentially or even relevantly.", "D": "A pattern of spontaneous speech in which ideas slip away from each other.", "E": "The patient speaks quickly and it is difficult to interrupt him." }, "Correct Answer": "The patient stands in the middle of a sentence or idea and changes the subject in response to immediate stimuli.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "27f6dd90-5763-48b7-bb2a-fdc06d58bcd5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The characteristic of delusions that refers to the maintenance of delirium over time, despite the evidence against is:", "Options": { "A": "The intensity or conviction.", "B": "The unmodifiable, incorrigibility or fixity.", "C": "Presence of cultural supports.", "D": "Concern.", "E": "Communication deviation." }, "Correct Answer": "The unmodifiable, incorrigibility or fixity.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7253feeb-3114-45b3-9eb2-d72867672578", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following is a Primary Delirium according to Jaspers:", "Options": { "A": "Delirious intuition.", "B": "Delirious control.", "C": "Ritual delirious.", "D": "Delirious crisis.", "E": "Delusional obsession" }, "Correct Answer": "Delirious intuition.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "aa83e9da-ce64-415b-b92d-43e9662de36d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The delirious atmosphere is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "The delirious interpretation of a normal perception.", "B": "A self-referential idea, of great importance for the patient.", "C": "Subjective experience that the world has changed in a subtle but sinister, disturbing and difficult or impossible to define way.", "D": "The delirious construction of a memory.", "E": "A rational and easily modifiable idea about an environmental issue." }, "Correct Answer": "Subjective experience that the world has changed in a subtle but sinister, disturbing and difficult or impossible to define way.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2746c6f0-482d-4a17-abaf-61d5e4e8696e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The bodily delusion idea is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Delusional idea whose main content refers to the functioning of one's own body.", "B": "Delusional idea that the subject has lost or will lose all or almost all his physical possessions.", "C": "Ideal delirious in which the feelings, impulses, thoughts or acts are lived as if they were not their own and were imposed by some external force.", "D": "Delusional idea whose content implies an exaggerated assessment of personal importance, power, knowledge or identity.", "E": "Delusional idea about the non-existence of the self." }, "Correct Answer": "Delusional idea whose main content refers to the functioning of one's own body.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "048bbb03-922f-41d0-b947-a2cf8413c6ff", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "At what stage is the person when they begin to balance the positive and negative consequences of drug use and, as a result, begin to consider stopping consumption, but basically maintain their ambivalence in this decisional balance?", "Options": { "A": "Stadium of action.", "B": "Contemplation stadium.", "C": "Relapse stadium.", "D": "Pre-contemplation stadium.", "E": "Post-relapse stadium." }, "Correct Answer": "Contemplation stadium.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d9880df7-eab4-4b19-b3f1-0ca4a0615d27", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What name does the episode receive with psychotic symptoms that occur after a strong alcohol intoxication in which the individual has been consuming large doses of alcohol for several days?", "Options": { "A": "Delirium tremens.", "B": "Partial amnesias.", "C": "Alcoholic hallucinosis", "D": "abstinence syndrome.", "E": "Korsakoff syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Alcoholic hallucinosis", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5f707bb0-7bfb-40e2-95d1-64eb58bd451c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When memory adapts to the presence of a drug (eg, subsensitizing receptors, synthesizing new membrane proteins) in such a way that the ability of the drug (eg, in alcohol to disrupt neuronal membranes) is increasingly minor, we are talking about:", "Options": { "A": "Psychological tolerance", "B": "Cross tolerance", "C": "Metabolic tolerance", "D": "Pharmacological tolerance.", "E": "Reduced tolerance" }, "Correct Answer": "Pharmacological tolerance.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8de3fba8-c9be-4b42-b52e-12d582020df8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The oppressive / tightening pain, of light to moderate intensity, of bilateral localization and that does not worsen with routine physical activity, is what occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "Pelvic pain", "B": "The burnout.", "C": "Asthma.", "D": "Irritable bowel syndrome.", "E": "Tension headache." }, "Correct Answer": "Tension headache.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "66b1c34f-5888-44da-a600-7c6e7b82ec9b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The afferent neural activity of the peripheral nocioceptors is modulated in the dorsal horn of the marrow, which acts as a door that prevents or does not allow the passage of nerve impulses that come from the nocioceptors and the cortex, refers to?", "Options": { "A": "The peripheral nervous system.", "B": "The theory of the door.", "C": "Chronic stress", "D": "The theory of climbing.", "E": "The biological process of relaxation." }, "Correct Answer": "The theory of the door.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "37853827-49e6-4f4d-b1b6-191b12683eed", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What favors the appearance of atherosclerotic plaques?", "Options": { "A": "Stress.", "B": "Asthma.", "C": "Angina of the chest.", "D": "Cannabis", "E": "Physical exercise." }, "Correct Answer": "Stress.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6e5fafc9-018d-42c3-a1e3-d236aa9d5834", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the model that states that health behaviors are determined by the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and the perceived severity of the consequences of the disease?", "Options": { "A": "The reasoned action.", "B": "The one about health beliefs.", "C": "The one of the psychosomatic medicine.", "D": "The vulnerability to stress.", "E": "The placebo effect." }, "Correct Answer": "The one about health beliefs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "69b0c2f0-ff7a-48b6-97cd-666943ee6d0d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What do we mean when a doctor believes firmly in his treatment, even though controlled studies have proven ineffective, the results obtained with it will be better, his patients will be better, and will have more patients?", "Options": { "A": "The opposing process of Solomon.", "B": "The floor effect.", "C": "The Asher Paradox", "D": "The effect of contemplation of Prochaska.", "E": "The theory of the control door." }, "Correct Answer": "The Asher Paradox", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "994c43db-555a-4c9e-b82b-443fc6205dc1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the organism passes successively through the phases of alarm reaction, resistance phase and exhaustion phase, we refer to:", "Options": { "A": "The autonomous nervous system.", "B": "The placebo effect.", "C": "Electrokinesiological biofeedback.", "D": "Restrictive anorexia nervosa.", "E": "The general adaptation syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "The general adaptation syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f30cf7a4-35f5-410a-ab48-e2c18a0a890b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the predictors of a poor prognosis in schizophrenia are:", "Options": { "A": "Positive symptoms and late emergence.", "B": "Do not have precipitating factors and have a good premorbid fit.", "C": "Early emergence and identifiable precipitating factors.", "D": "Being married and with a poor support system.", "E": "A bad premorbid adjustment and negative symptoms." }, "Correct Answer": "A bad premorbid adjustment and negative symptoms.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "47c6dfa3-c4d9-475b-8eaf-5f456b9f003f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the criteria of DSM-IV for the diagnosis of Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder, are:", "Options": { "A": "A general pattern of concern for order, perfectionism, mental and interpersonal control at the expense of effectiveness, as well as a tendency to delegate to other tasks or work.", "B": "It shows rigidity and stubbornness, as well as a tendency to squander money.", "C": "Concern for details, rules, rules, lists, order, organization, schedules, until losing sight of the main objective of the activity.", "D": "Lax dedication to work and productivity, excluding leisure activities, unscrupulous in matters of morals and ethics.", "E": "Tendency to get rid of useless objects, even if they have a sentimental value. Miserly style in terms of expenses, both for him and for others." }, "Correct Answer": "Concern for details, rules, rules, lists, order, organization, schedules, until losing sight of the main objective of the activity.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1b720194-035d-4e30-9c92-2da3f34d113a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following beliefs is part of the nuclear schemes of a schizoid personality disorder, according to the model of Cognitive Therapy?", "Options": { "A": "I'm better than the others.", "B": "The others are fools.", "C": "Being controlled by others is intolerable.", "D": "I need people to survive.", "E": "The others do not compensate me." }, "Correct Answer": "The others do not compensate me.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "26e9ace8-428f-46b2-aace-664e981ba1d6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The negative symptomatology of schizophrenia seems to be caused by:", "Options": { "A": "The excessive activity of some dopaminergic neural circuits.", "B": "The excessive activity of the GABAergic neurons.", "C": "The existence of brain damage.", "D": "Have a gene for schizophrenia that causes negative symptoms.", "E": "Insufficient activity of the serotonergic neurons of the frontal lobe." }, "Correct Answer": "The existence of brain damage.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "21608955-d158-486f-a97d-8a7f85b9cc29", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What works best to improve compliance with medical treatments through psychological intervention?", "Options": { "A": "Leave the patient complete freedom to organize his treatment once we explain what is the cause of his illness and its treatment.", "B": "That he knows how to do a thorough functional analysis of his behavior and to do it with all his problem behaviors, especially those related to his behavior of pain and discomfort.", "C": "Negotiate the changes, provided that the therapeutic allows it, that the patient perform the least amount of behavior in the minimum possible times and sequentially setting goals or tasks.", "D": "Train him in the processes of denial, negotiation, coping, memory and despair.", "E": "Control stressful life events that relate to your life, especially at the family level, and your illness." }, "Correct Answer": "Negotiate the changes, provided that the therapeutic allows it, that the patient perform the least amount of behavior in the minimum possible times and sequentially setting goals or tasks.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c3a41527-2be0-491d-bfee-fabb2949a308", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to DSM-IV-TR, obsessive-compulsive disorder and obsessive personality disorder share nominal similarities, but how do clinical manifestations differ?", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions.", "B": "Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of obsessions without compulsions.", "C": "Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of compulsions.", "D": "The obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 6 months.", "E": "Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 1 year." }, "Correct Answer": "Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "69945cff-4058-40fd-9560-f0a386643742", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the individual is unable to remember important personal information, usually a traumatic or stressful event, what disorder can we think of, within the group of dissociative disorders (DSM-IV-TR)?", "Options": { "A": "Dissociative identity disorder.", "B": "Dissociative trance disorder.", "C": "The generalized amnesia.", "D": "The dissociative amnesia.", "E": "The dissociative leak" }, "Correct Answer": "The dissociative amnesia.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f2d554e4-d0d2-4c03-85e4-5603020da8b4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is true with respect to dyspareunia?", "Options": { "A": "This disorder only affects women.", "B": "The essential feature is the involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles of the external third of the vagina, against the introduction of the penis, fingers, tampons, or speculums.", "C": "This disorder appears throughout life, can not be acquired.", "D": "This disorder consists of genital pain during intercourse, although it may appear before or after intercourse.", "E": "This alteration does not cause discomfort in interpersonal relationships." }, "Correct Answer": "This disorder consists of genital pain during intercourse, although it may appear before or after intercourse.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0df7d765-43d4-4496-b9fa-635570aef014", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements regarding Eating Disorders is true?", "Options": { "A": "In restrictive type anorexia nervosa there are compensatory strategies of a non-purgative nature, such as dieting / fasting and intense exercise.", "B": "The patient with anorexia nervosa does not have episodes of binge eating in any case.", "C": "The patient with bulimia nervosa, unlike the patient with anorexia nervosa, does not intend to lose weight.", "D": "Alterations in eating behavior do not affect patients' cognition.", "E": "Interpersonal relationships are one of the few areas that are not altered in eating behavior disorders." }, "Correct Answer": "In restrictive type anorexia nervosa there are compensatory strategies of a non-purgative nature, such as dieting / fasting and intense exercise.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c54ccfe3-23f1-43bd-b819-7089b3223f0a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In clinical practice, the informal diagnosis of \"double depression\" is being used more and more frequently. What does this concept refer to?", "Options": { "A": "Patients who jointly present a depressive episode and a dysthymic disorder.", "B": "Patients who jointly present a mixed episode and a cyclothymic disorder.", "C": "Patients who jointly present a bipolar disorder and a major depressive disorder.", "D": "Patients who jointly present a major depressive disorder and a dysthymic disorder.", "E": "Patients who jointly present a cyclothymic disorder and a major depressive disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Patients who jointly present a major depressive disorder and a dysthymic disorder.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "250583b5-b7ef-4972-9b29-219b7e3cd5de", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the classification of mental and behavioral disorders (ICD-10), the group \"Neurotic disorders, secondary to stressful and somatoform situations\", is comprised of phobic anxiety disorders, other anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, reactions to severe stress and adjustment, other neurotic disorders and which one or more of the following?", "Options": { "A": "Somatoform disorders.", "B": "Dissociative disorders", "C": "Manic depressive episodes.", "D": "Dissociative disorders and somatoform disorders.", "E": "Bipolar disorder" }, "Correct Answer": "Dissociative disorders and somatoform disorders.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f59b4fdc-7609-43cd-94a9-aa9f666b3fb9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When should the diagnosis of distress disorder not be made, according to criterion C of the DSM-IV-TR?", "Options": { "A": "When panic attacks are recurrent.", "B": "When the crisis of anguish is unexpected.", "C": "When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of persistent worries of suffering new crises.", "D": "When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of possible implications or consequences.", "E": "When panic attacks are considered secondary to the direct physiological effects of a disease." }, "Correct Answer": "When panic attacks are considered secondary to the direct physiological effects of a disease.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "680bcf9b-34b3-4073-88be-82a838c6649e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Depersonalization disorder, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is part of:", "Options": { "A": "The schizophrenic disorders.", "B": "Dissociative disorders", "C": "Somatoform disorders.", "D": "Disorders of the mood.", "E": "Personality disorders" }, "Correct Answer": "Dissociative disorders", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b5d48e69-f65b-483c-a755-e692f208553f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the essential characteristic of dissociative disorders, according to the DSM-IV-TR?", "Options": { "A": "An alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, memory and perception of the environment, which may be this sudden or gradual, transitory or chronic alteration.", "B": "The presence of one or more identity or personality states that control the behavior of the subject recurrently with the inability to remember important personal information.", "C": "The persistent and recurrent sensation of distancing of the mental processes and of the own body with the conservation of the sense of reality.", "D": "The inability to remember important personal information of a traumatic nature.", "E": "The presence of sudden and unexpected trips away from home with the inability to remember one's past, confusion about one's identity and assumption of a new identity." }, "Correct Answer": "An alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, memory and perception of the environment, which may be this sudden or gradual, transitory or chronic alteration.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e1b84df0-1571-4e48-b84a-54cf45cc9fcf", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most common course of somatization disorder (DSM-IV-TR)?", "Options": { "A": "It is an acute disease.", "B": "It is a chronic disease that always remits completely.", "C": "It is a chronic and fluctuating disease that rarely remits completely.", "D": "It is very common for a year to pass and the individual suffering from this disorder no longer seek medical help for unexplained somatic symptoms.", "E": "It is not a fluctuating disease but it is not considered chronic." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a chronic and fluctuating disease that rarely remits completely.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "031da2b0-4d97-4d89-8769-c6d56f093932", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When criteria for the diagnosis of a type of phobia appear in which there is fear of situations such as public transport, tunnels, bridges, elevators, airplanes, cars or enclosures, having a peak of greater incidence in the second childhood and another half From the third decade of life, we can think about what diagnosis of the DSM-IV-TR?", "Options": { "A": "Social phobia.", "B": "Situational specific phobia.", "C": "Specific phobia environmental type.", "D": "Separation anxiety.", "E": "Anxiety crisis." }, "Correct Answer": "Situational specific phobia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "aa217b1e-c85b-4cb6-adfe-e61c1290fd01", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Criterion A for the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (DSM-IV-TR) is met for obsessions and compulsions, obsessions are defined by the following characteristics, except for one of them, what is the FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "Thoughts, impulses or recurrent and persistent images experienced, at some point of the disorder, as intruders and cause significant anxiety or discomfort.", "B": "Thoughts, impulses or images are not reduced to simple excessive concerns about real-life problems.", "C": "The person tries to ignore or suppress those thoughts, impulses or images or neutralize them.", "D": "The person does not recognize that these thoughts, impulses or obsessive images are the product of their mind.", "E": "The person recognizes that these thoughts, impulses or obsessive images are the product of his mind and do not come taxes." }, "Correct Answer": "The person does not recognize that these thoughts, impulses or obsessive images are the product of their mind.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "643eba21-0fda-4ce8-ac0f-4f872332120e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within which diagnosis, of the DSM-IV-TR, is premenstrual dysphoric disorder framed?", "Options": { "A": "As a mixed disorder of anxiety and depression.", "B": "As a depressive disorder not specified.", "C": "As a dysthymic disorder.", "D": "As a cyclothymic disorder.", "E": "Anxiety disorder not specified." }, "Correct Answer": "As a depressive disorder not specified.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a2a82a89-f8b0-4eb6-b132-a6ae5e4829e2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When two or more major depressive episodes occur, separated by a period of at least two months, during which the individual does not become depressed, what is diagnosed?", "Options": { "A": "Major depressive disorder.", "B": "Dysthymic disorder.", "C": "Cyclothymic disorder", "D": "Major recurrent depressive disorder.", "E": "Depressive episode" }, "Correct Answer": "Major recurrent depressive disorder.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1c6d593c-470b-4b16-a90a-6cd5e1fb1646", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what disorder of eating behavior, the personality of patients is characterized as impulsive people, with a tendency to make quick decisions and act unpredictably?", "Options": { "A": "Anorexia nervosa of restrictive type.", "B": "Pica.", "C": "Obesity.", "D": "Bulimia nervosa.", "E": "Night dining" }, "Correct Answer": "Bulimia nervosa.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d2ca7b88-6a99-4e6b-9310-79ac3d249a4d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following characteristics defines an endogenous depression?", "Options": { "A": "Its course is continuous.", "B": "There is an evening worsening.", "C": "There is an early awakening.", "D": "There is a good response to placebo.", "E": "A neurotic personality intervenes in the etiopathogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "There is an early awakening.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "042d265b-8110-4d57-86c9-d1d175cb7a66", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What mental disorder is defined by the presence of binge eating together with the use of inappropriate compensatory methods to avoid weight gain?", "Options": { "A": "Anorexia Nervosa without amenorrhea.", "B": "Binge eating disorder.", "C": "Bulimia nervosa.", "D": "Obesity.", "E": "Compulsive dining" }, "Correct Answer": "Bulimia nervosa.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2e0bbf66-be71-45af-8aab-6eec439c5da3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In anorexia nervosa, and in relation to menstrual / reproductive function, which of the statements is true according to the DSM-IV-TR criteria?", "Options": { "A": "The existence of amenorrhea is a basic diagnostic criterion.", "B": "We do not consider that the amorrea is significant until the patient has presented it for at least one year.", "C": "The amorrea, when it exists, is always primary, never secondary.", "D": "Amorrhea is a characteristic of this disorder but not a basic diagnostic criterion.", "E": "Without the presence of amorrea, anorexia nervosa can be diagnosed." }, "Correct Answer": "The existence of amenorrhea is a basic diagnostic criterion.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e681d95a-ac3e-4d51-b21d-7439e5036c27", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements regarding Bipolar II Disorder is true?", "Options": { "A": "The essential feature is a clinical course characterized by one or more manic episodes or mixed episodes.", "B": "The presence of a manic or mixed episode prevents the diagnosis from being made.", "C": "Episodes of mood disorder induced by substances or due to medical illness are considered valid to establish the diagnosis of bipolar II disorder.", "D": "The information that other people offer does not help much to establish the diagnosis.", "E": "Bipolar II disorder is characterized by the appearance of one or more major depressive episodes accompanied by at least one manic episode." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of a manic or mixed episode prevents the diagnosis from being made.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2379dbba-0080-47aa-ab1c-83014e0c95de", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is called brief, sudden, simple muscle contractions that resemble shocks or shocks that affect muscles or muscle groups?", "Options": { "A": "Hemiballismic movements.", "B": "Athetosic movements.", "C": "Spasmodic movements.", "D": "Myoclonic movements.", "E": "Dystonic movements." }, "Correct Answer": "Myoclonic movements.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2087d0ba-ad79-4e9f-9a68-0b39c0b2306a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Research Diagnostic Criteria (ICD-10) for the crisis of anguish:", "Options": { "A": "They are identical to the DSM-IV, there is no variation.", "B": "They are identical to those of DSM-IV, except that ICD-10 includes dry mouth and requires that at least one of the symptoms present be palpitations, sweating, tremors or dry mouth.", "C": "They differ in their entirety from those of the DSM-IV.", "D": "The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require the appearance of a minimum of crisis.", "E": "The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require a period of duration." }, "Correct Answer": "They are identical to those of DSM-IV, except that ICD-10 includes dry mouth and requires that at least one of the symptoms present be palpitations, sweating, tremors or dry mouth.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ecfda088-c23a-45fe-97de-774370067c39", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The brain alterations that characterize Alzheimer's disease are:", "Options": { "A": "Hyperactivation of the dopaminergic neurons of the basal ganglia, causing neuronal death.", "B": "Degeneration of the hippocampus, and of the cortex of the frontal and temporal lobes.", "C": "Deterioration of the serotonergic neurons of the parietal and occipital lobes.", "D": "Presence of Lewy bodies in all subcortical white matter.", "E": "Accumulation of denatured prion proteins that cause inflammation in the frontal and parietal lobes." }, "Correct Answer": "Degeneration of the hippocampus, and of the cortex of the frontal and temporal lobes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ce82ee72-2910-4760-88ef-1673fe7d58dd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The degenerative neurological disorder that occurs as a result of degeneration and loss of nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons is called:", "Options": { "A": "Phenylketonuria", "B": "Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy or TSE.", "C": "Multiple sclerosis.", "D": "Huntington's disease", "E": "Parkinson's disease" }, "Correct Answer": "Parkinson's disease", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6730423d-f0a3-4133-86cb-9efb8a75da19", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Driving aphasia is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "He speaks fluent and meaningful, relatively good compression and altered repetition.", "B": "He speaks not fluent, relatively good comprehension and repetition altered.", "C": "He speaks fluent with little meaning, altered compression and altered repetition.", "D": "He speaks not fluid, altered understanding and altered repetition.", "E": "He speaks fluent with little meaning, good comprehension and unaltered repetition." }, "Correct Answer": "He speaks fluent and meaningful, relatively good compression and altered repetition.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "707bf98d-7cfb-4704-b4ce-fa128a33601f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The inability to recognize faces, preserving the sense of sight, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Binocular disparity", "B": "Hemiplegia", "C": "Dysphasia", "D": "Prosopagnosia", "E": "Apraxia" }, "Correct Answer": "Prosopagnosia", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e2274eae-85bd-4b26-8728-81c4eef93f72", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a patient presents both a major depressive disorder and partner problems, the data currently available indicates that in these cases, between Beck behavioral therapy and Beck cognitive therapy, the psychological treatment of choice would be:", "Options": { "A": "Either of the two therapies, since both are equally effective in reducing depressive symptomatology and in improving the satisfaction of the couple.", "B": "Beck's cognitive therapy of depression, since it is more effective than couple's behavioral therapy in reducing depressive symptoms.", "C": "Behavioral couple therapy, since Beck's cognitive therapy is not effective for depression when there are couple problems.", "D": "Behavioral couples therapy, since it is just as effective as Beck's cognitive therapy in reducing depressive symptoms, but it improves the satisfaction of the couple more.", "E": "Beck's cognitive therapy, since couples behavioral therapy has not empirically demonstrated its efficacy for depression." }, "Correct Answer": "Behavioral couples therapy, since it is just as effective as Beck's cognitive therapy in reducing depressive symptoms, but it improves the satisfaction of the couple more.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "03b525d8-1a64-4c66-8e7f-e65e773279d9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the name of the set of dysregulations of the neurovegetative nervous system and of the basic psychic functions, which persist for a long period of time, months or years, after achieving abstinence?", "Options": { "A": "Cross tolerance", "B": "Korsakoff syndrome.", "C": "Acute intoxication.", "D": "Late withdrawal syndrome.", "E": "Dual disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Late withdrawal syndrome.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "474dbaee-00ed-4a18-b5e7-190d9e512a52", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What do you usually associate with the cataplexy characteristic of narcolepsy?", "Options": { "A": "With sleep paralysis.", "B": "With intense emotions.", "C": "With hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations.", "D": "With daytime sleepiness.", "E": "With irregular schedules." }, "Correct Answer": "With intense emotions.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1128fd07-cda2-4b58-b7c9-ccf691b0841b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What consonantal sounds of Castilian are later acquired due to their difficulty of articulation, causing a phonological disorder?", "Options": { "A": "African, liquid and nasal.", "B": "Fricatives, nasals and occlusives.", "C": "Liquids, fricatives and affricates.", "D": "Nasals, occlusives and affricates.", "E": "Occlusives, fricatives and liquids." }, "Correct Answer": "Liquids, fricatives and affricates.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7cf04718-f646-40d4-af48-608195abfbbd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The brainstem or brainstem is the part of the Nervous System formed by:", "Options": { "A": "The mesencephalon, the protuberance and the medulla oblongata.", "B": "The spinal cord and the 31 pairs of cranial nerves.", "C": "The thalamus and the spinal cord.", "D": "The telencephalon, with the cerebral hemispheres.", "E": "The corpus callosum and the limbic system." }, "Correct Answer": "The mesencephalon, the protuberance and the medulla oblongata.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "769287e0-c36a-4dee-8aee-aa6594bdbbc7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With what ethological concept is the phenomenon of \"attachment\" linked?", "Options": { "A": "Shooting signals", "B": "Die cut", "C": "Fixed patterns of adaptation.", "D": "The phenomenon reveries.", "E": "The drives." }, "Correct Answer": "Die cut", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "12101a63-3430-42b5-8899-156621f499db", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What allows to get a negative reinforcement?", "Options": { "A": "Decrease reinforced behavior.", "B": "Eliminate reinforced behavior.", "C": "Increase reinforced behavior.", "D": "Extinguish reinforced behavior.", "E": "It does not change the behavior." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase reinforced behavior.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0a419fed-bdf7-4441-9370-424b1d511a9d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the adaptive functions of emotions, indicate which emotion of the following \"arouses sympathy and attention\" for the interpersonal system:", "Options": { "A": "Sadness.", "B": "Joy.", "C": "Culpability.", "D": "Fear.", "E": "Disdain." }, "Correct Answer": "Sadness.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9b158094-101b-480d-9b25-0ff982508b84", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characteristic increases the veracity of self-reports?", "Options": { "A": "Request information about past events.", "B": "Request information about events about which the evaluated person has little experience.", "C": "Use generic and open questions.", "D": "Request information on topics that involve little to the evaluated.", "E": "Use specific and unambiguous questions." }, "Correct Answer": "Use specific and unambiguous questions.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "906d2d6d-7aa0-4a29-aa25-1f64e5e7304c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following anxiety disorders is a therapist more likely to use interoceptive exposure as a psychological treatment technique?", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "B": "Generalized anxiety disorder.", "C": "Panic disorder (or panic disorder)", "D": "Post-traumatic stress disorder.", "E": "Social phobia." }, "Correct Answer": "Panic disorder (or panic disorder)", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "94352182-ee5e-415f-8136-e4355574389e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alteration of the reading process in which the global recognition of the words is affected, being preserved the ability to recognize the letters of the words, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Direct dyslexia", "B": "Phonological dyslexia", "C": "Superficial dyslexia", "D": "Alexia pure.", "E": "Alexia anomic." }, "Correct Answer": "Superficial dyslexia", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e7950755-c739-485a-bfd5-a60dcc3287e5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What factors / differential variables in childhood determine the evaluation of children?", "Options": { "A": "Diversity and heterogeneity of psychological problems.", "B": "Disparity of information provided by different sources consulted (parents, teachers, etc.).", "C": "Influence of sex and age in the appearance of children's problems.", "D": "Shortage of instruments and evaluation techniques sensitive to the characteristics of the child.", "E": "Evolutionary character of the child, infantile plasticity that makes the child sensitive to the influences of the environment and interpretation by adults of the problem to be evaluated." }, "Correct Answer": "Evolutionary character of the child, infantile plasticity that makes the child sensitive to the influences of the environment and interpretation by adults of the problem to be evaluated.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1e1a1ccc-d715-4e11-a72a-ecc9e5a56a44", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main pharmacological treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is:", "Options": { "A": "Dopamine agonists.", "B": "NMDA receptor blockers.", "C": "Inhibitors of monoamine oxidase or MAOIs.", "D": "Selective serotonin or 5-HT reuptake inhibitors.", "E": "Neuroleptics" }, "Correct Answer": "Selective serotonin or 5-HT reuptake inhibitors.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1111211d-91f7-40c3-8806-0cb218ec0812", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An Au-Ag alloy:", "Options": { "A": "It is interstitial, and can occur in any composition.", "B": "It is substitutional, and can occur in any composition.", "C": "Gold and silver can not be alloyed.", "D": "A small amount of gold can be dissolved in silver, up to a limit of close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion.", "E": "A small amount of silver can be dissolved in the gold, up to a limit close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion." }, "Correct Answer": "It is substitutional, and can occur in any composition.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0dd24110-a08b-48f8-aa70-8c478c72c46d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Graphite is a conductor because:", "Options": { "A": "The valence band has electronic vacancies.", "B": "The driving band has electronic vacancies.", "C": "Both bands have electronic vacancies.", "D": "The banned band is very big.", "E": "The band gap is zero." }, "Correct Answer": "The band gap is zero.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "91bb3bda-b36b-4487-bff9-8e6108329d47", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is known as \"critical temperature\", TC, at temperature:", "Options": { "A": "To which a glass softens.", "B": "To which a glass melts.", "C": "Below which a solid does not show electrical resistance.", "D": "Below which a solid increases its electrical resistance.", "E": "To which a crystal melts." }, "Correct Answer": "Below which a solid does not show electrical resistance.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b0780a4e-e557-4c99-9bae-5441b3c93e04", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Vulcanization is a chemical reaction:", "Options": { "A": "What is done in the forges.", "B": "Which causes crosslinking of the polymer chains.", "C": "That desentrecuuza the polymer chains.", "D": "To prepare composite materials.", "E": "Which leads to the development of volcanoes." }, "Correct Answer": "Which causes crosslinking of the polymer chains.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9089cbb5-02e4-4cfc-8cb8-3541e4987674", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If the normal reduction potential of the pair Zn2 + / Zn is -0.76 V:", "Options": { "A": "Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 release oxygen.", "B": "Putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0 releases oxygen.", "C": "Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 give off hydrogen.", "D": "By putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0, hydrogen is evolved.", "E": "Zn2 + dismutates in aqueous solution at pH = 0." }, "Correct Answer": "By putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0, hydrogen is evolved.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "db8dfb8a-dcb9-4cf0-abdd-0764980b339f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tungsten is a very important element from the technological point of view, which is used, among other things, in the steel industry. But his interest extends to other scientific fields, due to:", "Options": { "A": "Which is one of the essential elements for life are human beings and animals.", "B": "Which is liquid in the range 27ºC-2500ºC, which explains its use in high temperature thermometers.", "C": "Its inability to react with oxygen even at such high temperatures as heating to red.", "D": "Its total resistance to fluoride even at temperatures as high as heating to red.", "E": "Its great mechanical resistance." }, "Correct Answer": "Its great mechanical resistance.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "95e18fe4-b3fd-4a21-9416-d607ad78b3c1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The atomic mass of carbon is:", "Options": { "A": "The mass of 6.02.1023 carbon atoms, all of them being from the 12C isotope.", "B": "The mass of 6,022,103 carbon atoms, averaged according to the natural abundance of its isotopes.", "C": "The twelfth part of the mass of a carbon atom of the 12C isotope.", "D": "The sum of the mass of 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons.", "E": "The mass of 12 protons." }, "Correct Answer": "The mass of 6,022,103 carbon atoms, averaged according to the natural abundance of its isotopes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b42c45bb-15bc-4773-b387-edc989cdaeea", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alkali halides, MX:", "Options": { "A": "They are solids that melt below 100ºC.", "B": "They form crystals of intense colors.", "C": "They can be obtained by reaction of the M2CO3 carbonates with the aqueous solutions of the HX hydrogen halides.", "D": "None of them can be found in nature.", "E": "They are liquid at room temperature." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be obtained by reaction of the M2CO3 carbonates with the aqueous solutions of the HX hydrogen halides.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "81fba4bc-53c6-4f7a-b9b8-284a3dafa2c3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these species is a free radical?", "Options": { "A": "The molecule NO.", "B": "The O2 molecule.", "C": "The N2O molecule.", "D": "The OH- anion.", "E": "The ClO- anion." }, "Correct Answer": "The molecule NO.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "525b0337-896f-4bce-b549-b0166c6dc06e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ammonia usually used in the laboratory:", "Options": { "A": "It is a pure compound, liquid at environmental temperature and pressure.", "B": "It is a gaseous ammonia solution in water, very diluted, because ammonia is very little soluble in water.", "C": "It is a solution of gaseous ammonia in water, very concentrated, because ammonia is very soluble in water.", "D": "It is a gaseous ammonia solution in ethanol, because pure gaseous ammonia is insoluble in water.", "E": "It is a saturated solution of ammonium chloride in water." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a solution of gaseous ammonia in water, very concentrated, because ammonia is very soluble in water.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "4f613211-a698-4d91-a408-354f9b85bc25", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The standard equilibrium constant for a reaction between ideal gases:", "Options": { "A": "It depends on the initial quantities of the reagents.", "B": "It takes different values ​​if the reaction is carried out at different pressures.", "C": "It depends on the volume of the vessel in which the reaction is carried out.", "D": "It only depends on the temperature.", "E": "It depends on the nature of the gases." }, "Correct Answer": "It only depends on the temperature.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "77ef06f1-953d-4de4-b670-d4771425cfb5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The antitumor agent cis-platinum:", "Options": { "A": "It is a flat square complex of Pt (II) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis.", "B": "It is a flat square complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis.", "C": "It is an octahedral complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia in cis and 4 chloride anions in the other positions.", "D": "It is an octahedral complex of Pt (II) with 2 chloride anions in cis and 4 ammonia molecules in the other positions.", "E": "It is an alkene with two Pt atoms in the two cis positions with respect to the double bond." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a flat square complex of Pt (II) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e4562773-25f5-477f-a852-1a8a725d9202", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sodium metal reacts violently with water because Na:", "Options": { "A": "Oxidize the water to oxygen, and the reaction is very exothermic.", "B": "It reduces the water to hydrogen, and the reaction is very exothermic.", "C": "Oxidizes the water to oxygen, and when a gas is generated, the entropy increases enormously.", "D": "It reduces the water to hydrogen, and the reaction is very endothermic.", "E": "It combines with water giving rise to an explosive hydride." }, "Correct Answer": "It reduces the water to hydrogen, and the reaction is very exothermic.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "17522511-77c7-4599-aedb-5c13286552f2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of molecules per unit cell is a structure centered on all faces is:", "Options": { "A": "A.", "B": "Two.", "C": "Three.", "D": "Four.", "E": "Six." }, "Correct Answer": "Four.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "31451cf2-e4be-4722-b6a8-149f3bd10cc9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regal water dissolves gold because of its two components:", "Options": { "A": "Sulfuric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorinated complex of Au3 +.", "B": "Hydrochloric acid increases the oxidizing power of nitric acid.", "C": "Nitric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorine complex of Au3 +.", "D": "Hydrochloric acid acts as an oxidant and nitric acid forms a soluble complex of Au3 +.", "E": "Nitric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorinated complex of Au2 +." }, "Correct Answer": "Nitric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorine complex of Au3 +.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "57df59f2-fd7e-4001-a6b5-5b284ad5fbe9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A light-emitting diode:", "Options": { "A": "It is the same as a photovoltaic cell.", "B": "It is the inverse of a photovoltaic cell.", "C": "It is the same as a photovoltaic cell.", "D": "It is the inverse of a photovoltaic cell.", "E": "It is equivalent to a photochemical cell." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the inverse of a photovoltaic cell.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "54d4ffad-5d8a-49e5-8ee6-50087be822f4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the most general case, the wave function of a quantum mechanical system:", "Options": { "A": "It is defined for each electron and only depends on the coordinates of that electron.", "B": "It depends on the spatial coordinates of all the particles that make up the system and time.", "C": "It never depends on time.", "D": "It is found as a solution to the equations of motion proposed by Newton.", "E": "It can always be decomposed into sum of equations for each of the particles that make up the system." }, "Correct Answer": "It depends on the spatial coordinates of all the particles that make up the system and time.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "01d38d32-f4d1-45e1-ae1d-f95ed04b026d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The equation of speed of a chemical reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It must be determined from kinetic measurements and can not be deduced directly from the stoichiometry of the reaction.", "B": "Allows the units of s-1 (s = second) to be assigned to the velocity constant.", "C": "It depends on the total reaction order that, in turn, is obtained from the stoichiometric coefficients of the products.", "D": "Report in detail about the reaction mechanism.", "E": "It depends on the experimental conditions of the process." }, "Correct Answer": "It must be determined from kinetic measurements and can not be deduced directly from the stoichiometry of the reaction.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "19d416ec-2946-46d1-9c00-145da0d8f395", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The nitrogen:", "Options": { "A": "It is a highly reactive gas at room temperature.", "B": "Nitrogen molecules are constituted by two atoms linked together by a single bond.", "C": "It has a higher reactivity than other isoelectronic molecules such as CO, CNo or NO +.", "D": "At a sufficient temperature, it reacts with H2 to give NH3.", "E": "It barely forms binary compounds with the rest of the elements of the Periodic Table." }, "Correct Answer": "At a sufficient temperature, it reacts with H2 to give NH3.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a2d8c918-6a85-408d-96c8-bef812c3b2fd", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number 0.0670 has:", "Options": { "A": "5 significant figures.", "B": "4 significant figures.", "C": "3 significant figures.", "D": "2 significant figures.", "E": "1 significant figure." }, "Correct Answer": "3 significant figures.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c71c2bfc-5351-4a09-a0eb-69abaa73cdae", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Pearson correlation coefficient:", "Options": { "A": "It is always greater than 1.", "B": "It is always less than 1.", "C": "It is between 0 and 1.", "D": "It is between -1 and 0.", "E": "It is between -1 and 1." }, "Correct Answer": "It is between -1 and 1.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "18941e99-d86f-441f-8b1f-260a13e2ef69", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Separations by capillary zone electropheresis (CZE) are characterized in that the electrophoretic medium:", "Options": { "A": "It is always formed by 1.0 M HCl.", "B": "It is always formed by NH3 1.0 M.", "C": "It is homogeneous throughout the capillary.", "D": "It is not homogeneous throughout the capillary.", "E": "It has a pH gradient throughout the entire capillary." }, "Correct Answer": "It is homogeneous throughout the capillary.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "af8f45a0-1a11-4378-9190-a6f3366db01c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Linear scanning polarography uses a working electrode of:", "Options": { "A": "Drops of mercury", "B": "Iodine drops", "C": "Platinum.", "D": "Calomelanos", "E": "Drops of cerium nitrate." }, "Correct Answer": "Drops of mercury", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8f78ba94-c22a-4900-a393-c98a81d1eca7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Iodine is poorly soluble in water ( 0.001M). Therefore, to obtain useful solutions as an analytical reagent it is dissolved in:", "Options": { "A": "0.1 M potassium nitrate", "B": "Perchloric acid 0.01 M.", "C": "Excess of calcium nitrate.", "D": "Potassium iodide.", "E": "Hot water." }, "Correct Answer": "Potassium iodide.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d84b4c2b-dec5-4af0-9e1c-d67a3ca53275", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determination of cyanide by the Liebig method is based on the addition of a silver nitrate standard solution:", "Options": { "A": "Until complete precipitation of silver cyanide.", "B": "Until the precipitation of silver cyanide begins.", "C": "Until the appearance of a red precipitate of silver chromate.", "D": "Until the AgCN complex is quantitatively formed.", "E": "Until the precipitation of silver iodide, yellow." }, "Correct Answer": "Until the precipitation of silver cyanide begins.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f93e39fe-ae13-4b9f-8155-8490c3a5d71a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the electromagnetic radiation passes from the air to a medium like glass its wavelength:", "Options": { "A": "It remains unchanged.", "B": "Increase approximately 10 nm.", "C": "Increase approximately 100 nm.", "D": "It decreases approximately 1 nm.", "E": "It decreases approximately 200 nm." }, "Correct Answer": "It decreases approximately 200 nm.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d4035a89-d3e2-46e3-a5ef-e5098c53327f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an evaluation the redox indicator In (ox) + ne-  In (network) is used, whose normal potential is E0. The color change will occur:", "Options": { "A": "To the potential of the equivalence point.", "B": "To the value of E0.", "C": "In the interval E0  0.059 / n.", "D": "In the interval E0 (ox) - E0 (network) if it is evaluated with a reducer.", "E": "At the potential of 0.059 / n." }, "Correct Answer": "In the interval E0  0.059 / n.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1f501520-d85a-45a0-a2a3-f5461c11c3d0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When an experimental design is carried out, it is fundamentally sought:", "Options": { "A": "Know better the average of the results obtained and repeated in an experiment.", "B": "Know better the median of the results obtained in an experiment.", "C": "Identify better the factors that can affect the experiment.", "D": "To better identify the regression equations in an experiment.", "E": "To know better the standard deviation of the different data in the experiment." }, "Correct Answer": "Identify better the factors that can affect the experiment.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "67df862e-8b7d-4cde-85cc-1d1eff72eb4b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The gas used to generate the ICP plasma (coupled induction plasma) is:", "Options": { "A": "Hydrogen for being diatomic, chemically inert and with a low ionization energy.", "B": "Oxygen because it is diatomic, highly reactive and with a high ionization energy.", "C": "Argon, being monatomic, chemically inert and with a high ionization energy.", "D": "Xenon, being monatomic, highly reactive and with a low ionization energy.", "E": "None of the above is correct, because the gas used is helium." }, "Correct Answer": "Argon, being monatomic, chemically inert and with a high ionization energy.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "789a6bc4-28c2-4e43-8f5d-27bb1321f382", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the titration curve of a diprotic acid, the three points whose pH only depends on the dissociation constants are:", "Options": { "A": "The starting point and the equivalence points.", "B": "The first point of equivalence and the two points of semi-neutralization.", "C": "The first semi-neutralization point and the two equivalence points.", "D": "The starting point, the first semi-neutralization point and the first equivalence point.", "E": "The starting point and the two semi-neutralization points." }, "Correct Answer": "The first point of equivalence and the two points of semi-neutralization.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0edce9d3-31f6-48ac-aa48-d93f29f02e67", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The validation of an analytical method includes:", "Options": { "A": "Validate the analytical process as a whole, validate the range of concentrations in which it is applied and validate the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied.", "B": "It only includes validating the range of concentrations in which it is applied.", "C": "It only includes validating the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied.", "D": "It is only necessary to validate the treatment stages of the samples prior to the analytical measurement.", "E": "It is only necessary to validate the instrumentation by means of suitable calibrations." }, "Correct Answer": "Validate the analytical process as a whole, validate the range of concentrations in which it is applied and validate the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "acb5ceb7-4f01-4066-a5a0-a03a39b5bd45", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an electrochemical cell, the supporting electrolyte serves to:", "Options": { "A": "That the principle of electroneutrality in the dissolution is fulfilled.", "B": "That their ions are electrolized preferably in order to prevent the consumption of electroactive substance.", "C": "That in the cell there is transport by migration, in order to achieve greater sensitivity.", "D": "That the solution has an adequate electrical conductivity.", "E": "Encourage transport by diffusion of the electroactive substance." }, "Correct Answer": "That the solution has an adequate electrical conductivity.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e211ed69-51b0-451b-8e39-88f9a6bc1c39", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The traceability of an analytical method can be demonstrated:", "Options": { "A": "Carrying out the study of its selectivity.", "B": "By comparison with a reference method, use of certified reference materials and / or analysis of added samples.", "C": "Checking that the limit of detection of it is very low.", "D": "Evaluating the linearity of the calibration, whose most appropriate criterion is the correlation coefficient.", "E": "Making replicated measurements of the patterns and carrying out the analysis of the variance." }, "Correct Answer": "By comparison with a reference method, use of certified reference materials and / or analysis of added samples.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "79a3aad2-db0a-4b36-845d-f98739c09747", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A selective calcium electrode is characterized by having:", "Options": { "A": "A membrane that is a solid crystal.", "B": "An internal solution of 0.1 M HCl", "C": "An internal silver electrode.", "D": "A membrane of silver salts.", "E": "An internal aqueous solution of CaCl 2 saturated with AgCl." }, "Correct Answer": "An internal aqueous solution of CaCl 2 saturated with AgCl.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ec41bf08-2ca5-4dc0-9c65-07ab827541c0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Potentiometric titration of chloride with a silver electrode, using a silver ion standard solution:", "Options": { "A": "It is based on the formation of silver complexes in the presence of a high concentration of chloride.", "B": "Follow the Nernst equation, in which the variation of the potential varies linearly with the concentration of silver ion.", "C": "It shows an equivalence point where pAg does not depend on the chloride concentration.", "D": "It gives rise to potential variations that depend on the amount of AgCl formed.", "E": "It provides a titration curve in which the jump of pAg does not depend on the concentration of chloride." }, "Correct Answer": "It shows an equivalence point where pAg does not depend on the chloride concentration.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fcdcdda9-85d1-41ce-a96a-d456d3062739", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alkaline error is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Error that is committed when a strong base is valued.", "B": "Error that presents a glass electrode when the medium is very basic.", "C": "Error that is committed when a strong acid is valued.", "D": "Error affecting a reference electrode.", "E": "Own error of liquid membrane electrodes." }, "Correct Answer": "Error that presents a glass electrode when the medium is very basic.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4ed853ae-a43c-4c19-8be0-d07cc310078c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The loss of linearity of the calibration line when the fluorescence intensity is used as an analytical parameter may be due to:", "Options": { "A": "Changes in solvent density as the concentration of fluorescent analyte increases.", "B": "Dissolved oxygen, due to its diamagnetic character, which favors intersystem crossing.", "C": "The presence of static inhibitors of the incident radiation.", "D": "Internal conversion, in which the energy absorbed can be transformed into heat energy.", "E": "Self-absorption, to the internal effect of bucket and to the formation of dimers and excimers." }, "Correct Answer": "Self-absorption, to the internal effect of bucket and to the formation of dimers and excimers.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c52e9cbd-8116-49de-b53c-aaaf232ab071", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A columbimétrica valuation:", "Options": { "A": "It is always done at controlled potential.", "B": "Always use a platinum macroelectrode.", "C": "It does not need a system indicating the end point.", "D": "You need the current to be controlled.", "E": "You always need the titrant to be added from a burette." }, "Correct Answer": "You need the current to be controlled.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "25036360-ec52-4f85-bed7-c795d8771abf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Liquid chromatography using linked stationary phases can be divided into normal phase and reverse phase phases. In this context it can be said that:", "Options": { "A": "The main separation mechanism in reverse phase is the distribution, while adsorption also plays a very important role in the normal phase.", "B": "In normal phase chromatography, a large number of non-polar stationary phases can be used.", "C": "The main separation mechanism in normal phase is the distribution, while the adsorption plays a very important role in the reverse phase.", "D": "In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is polar and the non-polar eluents.", "E": "In reverse phase chromatography, a large number of polar stationary phases can be used." }, "Correct Answer": "The main separation mechanism in reverse phase is the distribution, while adsorption also plays a very important role in the normal phase.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8ed2635a-f56f-4262-a47e-e253126e8862", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Many of the properties of liquid chromatography (HPLC) and capillary electrophoresis (CE) have to do with its flow profile. In this way, the flow profile is:", "Options": { "A": "Laminate in HPLC and turbulent in CE.", "B": "Straight in CE and turbulent in HPLC.", "C": "Hyperbolic in EC and parabolic in HPLC.", "D": "Laminar in CE and electroosmotic in HPLC.", "E": "Parabolic in HPLC and flat in CE." }, "Correct Answer": "Parabolic in HPLC and flat in CE.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e44764de-bf90-4db4-9f19-7a19066e0577", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The corrector Zeeman:", "Options": { "A": "It is widely used in Molecular Fluorescence to correct the internal filter effect.", "B": "It is a basic corrector in atomic absorption spectrometry, which is based on the property that atoms have in the form of atomic vapor of unfolding their electronic energy levels when subjected to an intense magnetic field, originating different emission lines for each transition electronics.", "C": "It is based on the phenomenon of self-absorption that occurs when the hollow cathode lamp is subjected to high currents and is widely used in atomic absorption spectrometry.", "D": "It is based on the emission of continuous radiation in the ultraviolet region of a deuterium lamp, used as a background corrector.", "E": "It is a corrector of chemical interferences, widely used in atomic emission spectrometry." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a basic corrector in atomic absorption spectrometry, which is based on the property that atoms have in the form of atomic vapor of unfolding their electronic energy levels when subjected to an intense magnetic field, originating different emission lines for each transition electronics.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e652353-93db-4998-95dd-de72deb0185c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When we inject 1 nanoliter (nL) sample we are referring to the injection of:", "Options": { "A": "10-1 L.", "B": "10-3 L.", "C": "10-6 L.", "D": "10-9 L.", "E": "10-12 L." }, "Correct Answer": "10-9 L.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7322b35d-be2d-4526-af2d-b96bbba2cc9c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "For the determination of polychlorinated biphenyls is an environmental sample by gas chromatography, the most appropriate detector would be:", "Options": { "A": "Of flame ionization.", "B": "Of electronic capture.", "C": "Thermoionic", "D": "Of photoionization.", "E": "Amperometric." }, "Correct Answer": "Of electronic capture.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a9133dfa-7203-47be-8946-bc01bf8210aa", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Gas chromatography combined with mass spectrometry (GC-MS) is the most commonly used chromatographic coupled technique. The main difficulty of the coupling is in:", "Options": { "A": "The analysis of molecular ions in the same place where they are generated.", "B": "The production of highly fragmented ions with accelerated electron generation.", "C": "The increase in the output flow rate of the chromatograph, which can not exceed nL / min.", "D": "The obtaining of the bidimensional spectrum that allows the separation in function of the relationship q / r.", "E": "The introduction into the high vacuum of the mass analyzer, of a compound that is at an atomospheric pressure." }, "Correct Answer": "The introduction into the high vacuum of the mass analyzer, of a compound that is at an atomospheric pressure.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5151b5c9-7c8c-482e-9704-97d26e6e0bc9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "For the analysis of traces of inorganic constituents, in samples of organic nature, a preliminary treatment of the sample is needed, which normally consists of:", "Options": { "A": "Dissolve the sample in cold water.", "B": "Dissolve the sample in hot water.", "C": "Dissolve the sample between 30 and 70 ºC.", "D": "Heat the sample between 400 and 700 ºC.", "E": "Heat the sample in 0.1 M hydrochloric acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Heat the sample between 400 and 700 ºC.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a4d72354-715f-48b4-b504-510f7ee7dc6e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Linear sweep voltammetry is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "To be a technique based on a stationary diffusion regime.", "B": "To be a voltammetric technique based on a pure diffusion regime.", "C": "Use a rotating electrode as working electrode.", "D": "Use a hanging drop electrode as the working electrode.", "E": "Have an electrode preconcentration stage." }, "Correct Answer": "To be a voltammetric technique based on a pure diffusion regime.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "eac19c9c-5c83-48a3-ab98-fde63aa331b3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In suppression ion chromatography:", "Options": { "A": "A single column is used and the conductivity of the mobile phase is kept very low.", "B": "The eluent must be able to be removed selectively after separation and prior to the conductometric measurement.", "C": "The eluent incorporates a regenerating solution of strong acid flowing in the same direction as the mobile phase.", "D": "Weak exchangers are used from polystyrene polymers.", "E": "A mobile phase with ionic conductivity gradient is used." }, "Correct Answer": "The eluent must be able to be removed selectively after separation and prior to the conductometric measurement.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "80cdf144-1c2f-4540-9e08-4636757f8adc", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Voltammetry of anodic redissolution:", "Options": { "A": "It is always carried out with mercury film electrodes.", "B": "It uses an oxidation process with chemical agents.", "C": "It is based on the formation of mercury salts in the electrode.", "D": "It does not need background electrolyte.", "E": "It has an electrodeposition stage." }, "Correct Answer": "It has an electrodeposition stage.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "993edfed-7bbb-4b72-9c88-440b6d0de335", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The near infrared is the area of ​​the electromagnetic spectrum comprised between:", "Options": { "A": "100-250 nm.", "B": "200-450 nm.", "C": "600-750 nm.", "D": "800-2500 nm.", "E": "3000-8000 nm." }, "Correct Answer": "800-2500 nm.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5e37da66-eb50-43f6-b1ac-cbad553a402b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The voltammetric methods of anodic redissolution:", "Options": { "A": "They are based on the preconcentration of analytes on the surface of an electrode and are characterized by their low sensitivity, since the surface of the electrode is very small.", "B": "They apply exclusively to the determination of traces of metals by oxidation on a mercury electrode.", "C": "They require the application of a stage of accumulation and another of redisolution in which intensity-time curves are recorded.", "D": "They are used for the determination of metals that, once deposited, are oxidized electrochemically.", "E": "They are based on the variation of the potential that the working electrode experiences as the deposited substance is redissolved." }, "Correct Answer": "They are used for the determination of metals that, once deposited, are oxidized electrochemically.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2e95b2d7-6b07-470b-8785-00e28bc5d11a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The thermal conductivity detector was one of the first used in gas chromatography and still has a lot of application. Consists in:", "Options": { "A": "A source that is heated by electricity, whose temperature at a constant electrical energy depends on the thermal conductivity of the gas that surrounds it.", "B": "A metallic surface on which ions collide, producing emission of electrons or other ions, with the consequent variation in conductivity.", "C": "An air / hydrogen flame where organic compounds are pyrolyzed producing ions that lead to a change in conductivity.", "D": "An emitter of beta radiation that allows the measurement of the conductivity of the eluent that leaves the chromatographic column.", "E": "A source of thermal ionization that produces positive and negative ions that change the conductivity of the gas passing through the detector." }, "Correct Answer": "A source that is heated by electricity, whose temperature at a constant electrical energy depends on the thermal conductivity of the gas that surrounds it.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f0a7b407-a84c-4320-a61e-c2dde4a7b03e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The electrolytic cells:", "Options": { "A": "They always have three electrodes.", "B": "They always have two compartments separated by a salt bridge.", "C": "They can have a single compartment.", "D": "They always have a reference electrode.", "E": "They always use platinum electrodes." }, "Correct Answer": "They can have a single compartment.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "aa8a31aa-983b-4dd6-a175-c1f837e680dc", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In some sample treatments, the solid phase extraction technique is used. Said technique:", "Options": { "A": "It has the advantage that solvents are not required.", "B": "It is applied by contacting the solid sample with the stationary phase contained in a cartridge.", "C": "It does not require the application of pressure or vacuum.", "D": "It allows carrying out the preconcentration of large volume samples.", "E": "It is characterized by the high consumption of solvents." }, "Correct Answer": "It allows carrying out the preconcentration of large volume samples.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f0805cf4-79f4-4d0b-a824-54f90d96630b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following transducers are not suitable in Atomic Mass Spectrometry?", "Options": { "A": "Electron multiplying channels.", "B": "Faraday Cup", "C": "Photo plates.", "D": "Scintillation detectors.", "E": "Photomultiplier tubes." }, "Correct Answer": "Photomultiplier tubes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e3ca4ce1-986e-41d1-9f7e-061fd9242bf4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The proteins can exhibit a fluorescent emission spectrum due to the presence of the following intrinsic fluorophores that absorb radiation in the UV-next region:", "Options": { "A": "Alanine, valine, glycine.", "B": "Tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine.", "C": "Serine, methionine, asparagine.", "D": "Cysteine, alanine, methionine.", "E": "None of the above is correct, proteins never exhibit fluorescence." }, "Correct Answer": "Tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e65bd064-5d83-449b-bf1d-0ac19210bc0f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a potentiometry at zero intensity the electrode:", "Options": { "A": "Indicator always measures balance potentials.", "B": "Indicator measures the half-wave potential.", "C": "Indicator can measure a mixed potential.", "D": "Reference is always a calomel platinum electrode.", "E": "Indicator is always a platinum electrode." }, "Correct Answer": "Indicator can measure a mixed potential.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "170c1189-e0a8-49c5-b95a-a2ca018c0927", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A microelectrode is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Give answers in steady state.", "B": "Always need an inert electrolyte.", "C": "Always need a potentiostatic system.", "D": "Do not need a reference electrode.", "E": "Always need agitation." }, "Correct Answer": "Give answers in steady state.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8782b050-4155-4e39-9ac4-a5f9f9f78d54", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A parameter of great importance in chromatography is the equivalent height of theoretical plate (H). The van Deemter equation describes the behavior of a filler column for gas-liquid chromatography, where H = A + (B / u) + Cu, so that:", "Options": { "A": "C is the parameter that is taken as a measure of the quality of the filling of the column.", "B": "A is the coefficient that collects the contribution of longitudinal diffusion.", "C": "B is the parameter that is related to the resistance to the transfer of matter that opposes the stationary phase.", "D": "u is the linear velocity of the mobile phase.", "E": "B is canceled in columns without filling." }, "Correct Answer": "u is the linear velocity of the mobile phase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8852cd0c-0846-4efe-8bf2-34f317866370", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ethidium bromide is a molecule that has a very low fluorescence yield in solution. However, its quantum yield increases remarkably when:", "Options": { "A": "It is atomized.", "B": "It is interspersed between consecutive base pairs of the DNA double helix.", "C": "The aqueous solution containing it is oxygenated.", "D": "It binds to a heavy metal forming a complex.", "E": "It is oxidized by the action of the enzyme glucoxaoxidase." }, "Correct Answer": "It is interspersed between consecutive base pairs of the DNA double helix.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "310a75fe-fd73-4c9b-99a2-b90d9f3d15a1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following detectors is used in Infrared Spectroscopy?", "Options": { "A": "Photomultiplier tube.", "B": "Flame ionization detector.", "C": "Potentiostat.", "D": "Proportional counter", "E": "Deuterated triglycine sulfate crystal." }, "Correct Answer": "Deuterated triglycine sulfate crystal.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fa39ba4c-da63-49f5-8d69-c3350c2e59a5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determination of mercury by the cold vapor generation technique is based on the reduction of mercury in acid solution and the entrainment of the elemental mercury obtained to the absorption cell for analysis by atomic absorption. The most commonly used reducers are:", "Options": { "A": "SnCl2, for inorganic mercury and Na BH4 for both organomercury compounds and inorganic mercury.", "B": "Citrate, both for inorganic mercury, and organomercuriales.", "C": "Glutathione, especially suitable for all mercury species.", "D": "CaH2, for organomercurials and KMnO4 for inorganic mercury.", "E": "Na2SO3, for all mercury species." }, "Correct Answer": "SnCl2, for inorganic mercury and Na BH4 for both organomercury compounds and inorganic mercury.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1062b8c9-7fa9-4fd2-963d-407759be5dfb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In chromatography, the dead time can be defined as:", "Options": { "A": "The time between the injection of a sample and the appearance of a solute peak in the detector.", "B": "The factor that indicates the amount of time a solute spends in the stationary phase in relation to the time spent in the mobile phase.", "C": "The time it takes for a non-retained species to pass through a chromatographic column.", "D": "The time it takes for the analyte to pass through the chromatographic detector.", "E": "The relationship between the average linear velocity and the packing length of the column." }, "Correct Answer": "The time it takes for a non-retained species to pass through a chromatographic column.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "96b382ef-f293-44fc-acb3-eda354d562ef", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is very common the use of rotary valves of 6 doors or routes, alternately switchable, for the injection of samples in liquid chromatography of high resolution. Which of the following answers is correct?", "Options": { "A": "In the injection position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column without passing through the loop.", "B": "In the loading position, the loop in charge of housing the sample remains open to the atmosphere whereby the sample can be deposited by means of a syringe.", "C": "In the loading position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column by previously passing through the loop.", "D": "In the loading position, the sample is inserted into the column without disturbing the moving phase step towards the loop.", "E": "In the injection position, the entire internal volume of the loop is directed to the waste while the mobile phase carries the sample." }, "Correct Answer": "In the loading position, the loop in charge of housing the sample remains open to the atmosphere whereby the sample can be deposited by means of a syringe.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8c77cbd7-1437-4af2-81f0-2ca4c05f5535", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A particle charged in solution moves when it is placed in an electric field. The speed acquired by the solute under the influence of the applied voltage is the product of the apparent mobility of the solute and the applied field. With regard to this mobility, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "A neutral particle of small size will have a smaller mobility than a neutral one of large size.", "B": "A macromolecular polymer will have greater mobility than the corresponding monomer.", "C": "A large particle with a small charge will have great mobility.", "D": "A small particle of great load will have great mobility.", "E": "A charged micelle will have less mobility than another micelle of the same size but neutral." }, "Correct Answer": "A small particle of great load will have great mobility.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "acedbb2a-feaa-444e-9fc2-d688f06ae1a9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the quantitative analysis by gas chromatography, to minimize the uncertainties that are introduced with the injection of the sample, the flow velocity and the variations in the conditions of the columns is used:", "Options": { "A": "Manual estimation of chromatographic peak heights.", "B": "The normalization of the areas.", "C": "The method of standard additions.", "D": "An external calibration", "E": "The internal pattern method." }, "Correct Answer": "The internal pattern method.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "13c2e0ca-d31a-477c-b88d-4cc9bd8c8ed2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The use of monolithic columns and continuous beds in liquid chromatography is already very common. To this end:", "Options": { "A": "Microporous membranes are used so that the interaction between a solute and the matrix takes place in the final part of the pore.", "B": "A separation medium is introduced with a greater degree of continuity than the stationary particle phase so that the mobile phase is forced to traverse the large pores of the medium, improving mass transport.", "C": "Monodisperse particles are used as a stationary phase in order to improve mass transfer.", "D": "Flexible organic gels are used from microporous polymers in order to decrease the flow rates.", "E": "Columns filled with small particles of polymerized silica are used." }, "Correct Answer": "A separation medium is introduced with a greater degree of continuity than the stationary particle phase so that the mobile phase is forced to traverse the large pores of the medium, improving mass transport.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bc11631d-a121-4574-ac7a-6aa466551951", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pH that provides a 0.01 M solution of benzoic acid (pKa = 4.2) is:", "Options": { "A": "1.1.", "B": "2.1.", "C": "3.1.", "D": "4.1.", "E": "4.2." }, "Correct Answer": "3.1.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "40dc8719-f6e0-4857-acef-7573fb923b7d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the technique of atomic absorption spectrometry, the use of an electrothermal atomizer instead of the flame provides:", "Options": { "A": "Greater accuracy", "B": "Greater precision.", "C": "Greater sample consumption", "D": "Longer analysis times.", "E": "Greater sensitivity" }, "Correct Answer": "Greater sensitivity", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fe75f833-24af-4fcf-a186-6cf25d4f36d2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reactivity of various carbonyl groups is determined by their relative stability. The order of reactivity towards nucleophiles is:", "Options": { "A": "Amides> Esters> Ketones> Aldehydes.", "B": "Aldehydes> Ketones> Esters> Amides.", "C": "Amides> Ketones> Aldehydes> Esters.", "D": "Aldehydes> Esters> Ketones> Amides.", "E": "Amides> Ketones> Esters> Aldehydes." }, "Correct Answer": "Aldehydes> Ketones> Esters> Amides.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c84fddda-3451-466d-96ea-74ac35842a69", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of a halogenated derivative with triphenylphosphine leads to a salt of:", "Options": { "A": "Sulfonium.", "B": "Diazonio.", "C": "Ammonium.", "D": "Pyridinium", "E": "Phosphonium" }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphonium", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "9fbcc87b-de1e-4912-826f-8e98c6c5317f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Baeyer-Villiger oxidation is an important procedure to transform ketones into:", "Options": { "A": "Acids", "B": "Aldehydes.", "C": "Esters.", "D": "Ethers", "E": "Alquenos" }, "Correct Answer": "Esters.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "70b1e9c5-d483-41ad-8109-aa5e6756403a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Primary amines give condensation reactions with aldehydes and ketones producing:", "Options": { "A": "Iminas.", "B": "Enaminas", "C": "Amides", "D": "Hydrazines", "E": "Purines." }, "Correct Answer": "Iminas.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bbb46449-019d-4124-b214-f3ae5ad3d75c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The first stage of the mechanism of dehydration of cyclohexanol with H2SO4 is:", "Options": { "A": "Loss of OH-.", "B": "Formation of an ester sulfate.", "C": "Protonation of alcohol.", "D": "Loss of H + by alcohol.", "E": "Elimination of H2O from alcohol." }, "Correct Answer": "Protonation of alcohol.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d3219ca2-03c4-43d9-b2c1-1f07e2ebde51", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many stereoisomers of 3-methylcyclohexane-1,2-diol can exist?", "Options": { "A": "Four.", "B": "5.", "C": "6", "D": "7", "E": "8" }, "Correct Answer": "8", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7693ca40-7d01-4934-8fc0-045d6034dd6a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The six-membered cyclic ether with an oxygen atom is called:", "Options": { "A": "Oxolane", "B": "Oxano", "C": "Dioxane", "D": "Oxirano.", "E": "Oxetano." }, "Correct Answer": "Oxano", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b46fed29-c5f9-436a-a4ed-259b9b8047ca", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of trans-2-butene with m-chloroperbenzoic acid (mCPBA) gives:", "Options": { "A": "A mixture of diastereoisomers.", "B": "(R) -3-Cloroperbenzoate 2-butyl.", "C": "cis-2,3-Dimethyloxacyclopropane.", "D": "trans-2,3-Dimethyloxacyclopropane.", "E": "() -3-Cloroperbenzoate 2-butyl." }, "Correct Answer": "trans-2,3-Dimethyloxacyclopropane.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1e10ecc4-0c9f-4b19-b95f-723a9924d93a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The dehydrogenation of alkylbenzenes is not a convenient laboratory method, but it is used in an industrial way to convert ethylbenzene to:", "Options": { "A": "Cumeno", "B": "Toluene", "C": "Styrene", "D": "Phenol.", "E": "Naphthalene" }, "Correct Answer": "Styrene", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bf355209-1443-40ef-b14f-99e69592b38d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyridazine is an aromatic heterocycle that contains in its structure:", "Options": { "A": "A nitrogen", "B": "Two nitrogens", "C": "Three nitrogens", "D": "Four nitrogens", "E": "No nitrogen" }, "Correct Answer": "Two nitrogens", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "34950884-af9b-4759-a17f-29c43d39a923", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the oxaciclohexane-type conformer of sugar -D - (+) - glucopyranose:", "Options": { "A": "One of the OH- groups is axial, but the remaining substituents are equatorial.", "B": "The CH2OH group is axial but the remaining groups are equatorial.", "C": "All groups are axial.", "D": "All groups are equatorial.", "E": "The CH2OH group is equatorial but the remaining groups are axial." }, "Correct Answer": "All groups are equatorial.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1dc0ddf9-5e04-4d98-8a30-6a801a644b7f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When cyclopentanone is reacted with pyrrolidine, it forms:", "Options": { "A": "Amine.", "B": "Amide.", "C": "Enamina.", "D": "Acetal", "E": "Oxima." }, "Correct Answer": "Enamina.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ef2cda93-e48e-4d71-956c-7601a3fa47f2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction in which a vinyl halide or aryl reacts with a terminal alkyne in the presence of cuprous iodide and a Pd (0) catalyst is known as the reaction of:", "Options": { "A": "Suzuki", "B": "Heck", "C": "Stille", "D": "Sonogashira.", "E": "Sharpless." }, "Correct Answer": "Sonogashira.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d7738a92-825d-4324-9476-7298cd17cec4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Histidine and histamine are two compounds with biological importance that have in common as a structural unit:", "Options": { "A": "Pyridine", "B": "Piperidine", "C": "Triazine", "D": "Phenol.", "E": "Imidazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Imidazole", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b4952c65-d7d5-4fe9-89e9-81c3dd268dab", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction conditions for transforming nonanamide into octanamine and carbon dioxide are:", "Options": { "A": "H2, metallic catalyst.", "B": "Excess of CH3I, K2 CO3.", "C": "Cl2, NaOH, H2O.", "D": "LiAlH4, diethyl ether and then hydrolysis.", "E": "CH2N2, diethyl ether." }, "Correct Answer": "Cl2, NaOH, H2O.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d1d7c645-0988-4c48-9194-299788422fac", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of nodes of the LUMO (unoccupied orbital of lower energy) of 1,3-butadiene is:", "Options": { "A": "None.", "B": "One.", "C": "Two.", "D": "Three.", "E": "Four." }, "Correct Answer": "Two.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "408a7c17-d989-4555-aeee-594814e35b21", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of 3-methylcyclohex-2-enone with lithium dibutyl caprate and subsequent addition of chlorotrimethylsilane gives:", "Options": { "A": "[(3-Butyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane.", "B": "[(1-Butyl-3-methylcyclohex-2-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane.", "C": "Nothing.", "D": "3-Butyl-3-methyl-2- (trimethylsilyl) cyclohexanone.", "E": "[(6-Butoxy-3-methylcyclohex-1-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane." }, "Correct Answer": "[(3-Butyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7ba0ee8f-b861-4969-a05e-a8d4a164323e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The selectivity in the nucleophilic opening that occurs in the substituted oxacyclopropanes is called:", "Options": { "A": "Enantioselectivity", "B": "Diastereoselectivity.", "C": "Regioselectivity", "D": "Mesoselectivity", "E": "None of them." }, "Correct Answer": "Regioselectivity", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c98086bc-50fa-41bd-afa3-6bcc308f662d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of 3-nitrobenzaldehyde with NaBH 4 in aqueous methanol gives:", "Options": { "A": "3-Aminobenzaldehyde.", "B": "3-nitrobenzoic acid.", "C": "1-Methyl-3-nitrobenzene.", "D": "3-Nitrobenzoate sodium.", "E": "(3-Nitrophenyl) methanol." }, "Correct Answer": "(3-Nitrophenyl) methanol.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6863b35f-39ff-4707-9799-3c345d6d4a4c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "At 30 ° C, butylamine reacts with ethyl acrylate in KOH / EtOH and gives:", "Options": { "A": "N-Butylprop-2-enamide.", "B": "Prop-2-potassium enoate.", "C": "3- (Butylamino) ethyl propanoate.", "D": "No new compound is formed.", "E": "Butene, ethanol and prop-2-enamide." }, "Correct Answer": "3- (Butylamino) ethyl propanoate.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2d5dfe67-4988-4683-9012-a05367f4519e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Reactions that use copper (I) salts as reagents to replace the nitrogen in the diazonium salts are called reactions of:", "Options": { "A": "Sandmeyer", "B": "Chichibabin", "C": "Peterson.", "D": "Gabriel.", "E": "Diels-Alder." }, "Correct Answer": "Sandmeyer", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "906a4fe1-6755-4ca9-8610-216a5bc19c9a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reactions in which the kinetics does not depend on the nucleophilic concentration, are reactions:", "Options": { "A": "Radicals", "B": "SN1.", "C": "Pericyclic.", "D": "SN2.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "SN1.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "88106f6c-bf87-414c-826c-bab0279bc6ef", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hydroxy acids can be esterified intramolecularly by forming:", "Options": { "A": "Lactams", "B": "Nitrones.", "C": "Imidas", "D": "Carbamates.", "E": "Lactones." }, "Correct Answer": "Lactones.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3cdebf00-89c2-4925-a39e-a0ec3151f556", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction conditions for the preparation of 2-methyl-1-methoxypropan-2-ol from 2,2-dimethyloxirane are:", "Options": { "A": "The reaction with methanol in an acid medium.", "B": "There is no effective synthetic route.", "C": "The reaction with methylmagnesium bromide and subsequent hydrolysis.", "D": "The reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol.", "E": "The reaction with triphenylphosphine." }, "Correct Answer": "The reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "99cbab98-be7e-4a50-b5e9-d6b5eff69ac4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cyclopentadiene is so reactive that leaving it at room temperature slowly dimerizes by a reaction of:", "Options": { "A": "Friedel-Crafts.", "B": "Diels-Alder.", "C": "Markovnikov.", "D": "Suzuki", "E": "Gabriel." }, "Correct Answer": "Diels-Alder.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "36170dfc-d651-43fa-bed3-755866cf427d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Friedel-Crafts alkylation reactions lead to products that:", "Options": { "A": "They facilitate diazotization reactions.", "B": "They facilitate the reactions of formation of ethers.", "C": "Activate the aromatic ring against other substitutions.", "D": "They deactivate the aromatic ring against other substitutions.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "Activate the aromatic ring against other substitutions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "db7ef81e-d5ab-45f2-a50d-8c802d74dffe", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The oxygen of the ethers as that of the alcohols can be protonated to generate:", "Options": { "A": "Iminium ion.", "B": "Alkaloxonium ions.", "C": "Peroxides", "D": "Piranos.", "E": "Enaminas" }, "Correct Answer": "Alkaloxonium ions.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4fb919e8-3c1e-4ff2-89b5-7465926eb3cb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The organometallic react with the nitriles giving:", "Options": { "A": "Amino acids.", "B": "Lactones.", "C": "Alcohols", "D": "Ketones", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "Ketones", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "984fb465-7537-4887-9a2c-925fd82b816c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Isopropyl alcohol is prepared from petroleum by hydration of:", "Options": { "A": "Isobutene", "B": "Eteno", "C": "Penteno", "D": "Buteno.", "E": "Propene" }, "Correct Answer": "Propene", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c0d5ced5-af9b-44f7-b6eb-f7f781c0aca9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Isoprene is:", "Options": { "A": "2-methyl-1,3-butadiene.", "B": "2-methyl-2-butene.", "C": "2-methyl-1-butene.", "D": "2-ethyl-1,3-butadiene.", "E": "2-ethyl-2-butene." }, "Correct Answer": "2-methyl-1,3-butadiene.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "587e4d6c-9921-4bd0-b93b-439a876f6b60", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the maximum number of stereoisomers of an aldohexose?", "Options": { "A": "two.", "B": "Four.", "C": "8", "D": "16", "E": "32" }, "Correct Answer": "16", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "19fe5ac2-118a-4a3f-900e-225def4c21ba", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of peroxycarboxylic acids with the carbonyl group of ketones produces:", "Options": { "A": "Acids", "B": "Esters.", "C": "Alcohols", "D": "Ethers", "E": "Amides" }, "Correct Answer": "Esters.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8902d308-0151-42f7-89c6-4ad7531ddc71", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lithium aluminum hydride reacts with the carboxylic acids to give:", "Options": { "A": "Esters.", "B": "Ketones", "C": "Tertiary alcohols.", "D": "Secondary alcohols", "E": "Primary alcohols." }, "Correct Answer": "Primary alcohols.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c2cc3577-bf0e-4e1d-95b4-c45c17e84534", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The groups with resonant electroacoustic effect are:", "Options": { "A": "Deactivators and ortho / para-leaders.", "B": "Activators and ortho / para-leaders.", "C": "Deactivators and meta-leaders.", "D": "Activators and meta-leaders.", "E": "Deactivators and do not orient to any position." }, "Correct Answer": "Activators and ortho / para-leaders.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9db2cef3-7166-4212-8607-b175f2f56404", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which halogens react with methane by a radical chain reaction generating haloamines?", "Options": { "A": "Fluor and chlorine.", "B": "Bromine and chlorine.", "C": "Fluor, chlorine and bromine.", "D": "Everyone.", "E": "Iodo." }, "Correct Answer": "Fluor, chlorine and bromine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7a177647-f6e0-4cb1-9c81-587f85dd2ad7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reduction of nitriles with diisobutyl aluminum hydride (DIBAL) provides, after the corresponding aqueous acid treatment:", "Options": { "A": "Amines", "B": "Acids", "C": "ketones.", "D": "Aldehydes.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "Aldehydes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fe348859-5198-48bf-89a1-295e65159087", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Markovnikov's rule predicts regioselectivity in the reactions of:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleophile substitution.", "B": "Electrophilic aromatic substitution.", "C": "Electrophilic addition.", "D": "Nucleophilic addition.", "E": "Oxidation of alcohols." }, "Correct Answer": "Electrophilic addition.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9ba5e1d7-41d3-4a97-93f1-827db1eb1fc9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lithium dialkyl-heptarate reacts with alkyl halides to produce, by formation of carbon-carbon bonds between the alkyl group of the halide and the alkyl group of the dialkyl acetate:", "Options": { "A": "Alcanes.", "B": "Alquenos", "C": "Alquinos.", "D": "Aromatics", "E": "Piranos." }, "Correct Answer": "Alcanes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f0dd7cc5-30a2-4e0a-bdf4-6e33cb92f5c2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The treatment of 1-hexyne with 1 mole of hydrogen bromide results in:", "Options": { "A": "1-bromo-1-hexene.", "B": "1-bromo-2-hexene.", "C": "1-bromo-3-hexene.", "D": "2-bromo-1-hexene.", "E": "2-bromo-2-hexene." }, "Correct Answer": "2-bromo-1-hexene.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4489cb70-c27b-483a-9852-cb47187c2344", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The chemistry of diazonium salts provides the main synthetic method for preparing aryl fluorides by a process called:", "Options": { "A": "Reorganization of Claisen.", "B": "Gabriel's reaction.", "C": "Diazotization reaction.", "D": "Sandmeyer reaction.", "E": "Schiemann reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Schiemann reaction.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "072c91a6-9ca8-4102-89f9-5b68f11f3510", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The terpene that contains 10 carbon atoms and is derived from two isoprene units is called:", "Options": { "A": "Diterpene", "B": "Monoterpene", "C": "Sesquiterpene", "D": "Triterpene", "E": "Meroterpeno." }, "Correct Answer": "Monoterpene", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5bb6f074-9916-4188-982d-7eef6bc890f1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Choose among the following phrases the one that most appropriately defines a concerted reaction:", "Options": { "A": "Reaction in a single stage in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time.", "B": "Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the slowest stage.", "C": "Reaction in which the speed of all stages is identical.", "D": "It is an equilibrium reaction in which K = 1.", "E": "Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the fastest stage." }, "Correct Answer": "Reaction in a single stage in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e19ed46a-5773-42b4-836f-111a8b87c463", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The liver converts ethanol into:", "Options": { "A": "Methanol", "B": "Acetone.", "C": "Acetaldehyde", "D": "Hydrogen peroxide.", "E": "Glycerol." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetaldehyde", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f2601d50-b1f1-40f9-8718-7dac7a60ef0d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The deoxyribonucleotides are synthesized:", "Options": { "A": "From the ribonucleotide triphosphate.", "B": "From the ribonucleotides diphosphate.", "C": "From NADPH.", "D": "By oxidation of ribonucleotides.", "E": "For DNA polymerase III." }, "Correct Answer": "From the ribonucleotides diphosphate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "120ffcac-5429-4deb-bd4e-055c01bce4c2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the enzymes contains manganese?", "Options": { "A": "Glutathione S-transferase.", "B": "Glutathione reductase.", "C": "Peroxidated glutathione.", "D": "Superoxide dismutase.", "E": "Catalase" }, "Correct Answer": "Superoxide dismutase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b7e1f213-f597-4246-9b5e-2c2159624951", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following types of enzymatic inhibition does the value of Vmax not decrease?", "Options": { "A": "Competitive", "B": "Not competitive", "C": "Acompetitive", "D": "Mixed", "E": "It decreases in all of them." }, "Correct Answer": "Competitive", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cc31e82d-d047-4323-9691-71960a8c87f2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the N-terminal end rule, the N-terminal residue of a protein determines:", "Options": { "A": "Its folding rate.", "B": "Its intracellular concentration.", "C": "Its intracellular location.", "D": "Your average life", "E": "Your translation rate" }, "Correct Answer": "Your average life", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "22a0a432-19b8-44da-8267-45a091a38bae", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glutathione fulfills everything that follows except:", "Options": { "A": "It is a dipeptide.", "B": "Eliminates peroxides and free radicals.", "C": "Participates in the detoxification of compounds.", "D": "Acts as a cofactor of some enzymes.", "E": "Protects against oxidative stress." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a dipeptide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "774fd4d4-24e8-434a-bff6-c1e3a4c43f20", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the characteristics of the amino acids, indicate which of the following statements is false:", "Options": { "A": "Amino acids are amphoteric substances that can act as acids or bases.", "B": "The side chains of the amino acids can be apolar, polar without charge or they can be charged at certain pH values.", "C": "The side chain of the wing can undergo a process of phosphorylation.", "D": "The proteins are constituted by Lamino Acids.", "E": "The amino acids Ser, Thr and Tyr can form ester bonds with a phosphate group." }, "Correct Answer": "The side chain of the wing can undergo a process of phosphorylation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "615cb51f-0bb4-4f5d-80c6-9be8779c47e2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "COMPLETE: in the Krebs cycle 4 oxidation reactions occur, in 3 of them the final acceptor electron is ___ and in the other is ___:", "Options": { "A": "FAD / FMN.", "B": "NAD + / FMN.", "C": "NADP + / FAD.", "D": "NAD + / FAD.", "E": "FAD / NAD +." }, "Correct Answer": "NAD + / FAD.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6a012e4a-e469-4c37-9724-fb7bd002d4d7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The unwinding and supercoiling of DNA are controlled by the:", "Options": { "A": "Helicasas", "B": "Topoisomerases", "C": "DNA ligases.", "D": "Telomerases", "E": "DNA polymerase" }, "Correct Answer": "Topoisomerases", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c508715a-5910-4257-8089-47ab56e7b84f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following definitions of fluorimetry is correct?", "Options": { "A": "Fluorimetry is less sensitive than spectrometry.", "B": "Fluorimetry is less specific than spectrometry.", "C": "Unsaturated cyclic molecules are frequently fluorescent.", "D": "The fluorescence is directly proportional to the temperature.", "E": "None of the options is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Unsaturated cyclic molecules are frequently fluorescent.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1b2f693f-80e4-4e64-8c6e-41666dea0c24", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following compounds provides nitrogen atoms to the purine and pyrimidine rings?", "Options": { "A": "Aspartate", "B": "Carbamoyl phosphate.", "C": "Carbon dioxide.", "D": "Glutamine", "E": "Tetrahydrofolate." }, "Correct Answer": "Aspartate", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "490d93ef-5f20-4269-bca2-dd46a7aba49a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What will be the charge of the glutamic amino acid at pH 7?", "Options": { "A": "It will not have a net charge.", "B": "It will have negative net charge.", "C": "It will have positive net charge.", "D": "Its side chain will be protonated.", "E": "Your α-amino group will be deprotonated." }, "Correct Answer": "It will have negative net charge.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cb2250e6-9382-4918-bcec-a594dab12a65", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The HDL:", "Options": { "A": "They are rich in triglycerides.", "B": "They lack minority apoproteins.", "C": "They transport cholesterol from the tissues to the liver.", "D": "They are activated by A-III.", "E": "They transport essential fatty acids." }, "Correct Answer": "They transport cholesterol from the tissues to the liver.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "644dc829-896a-41c5-8c16-b88b4bad379f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The great diversity of immunoglobulins is mainly due to the recombination of:", "Options": { "A": "Epitopes.", "B": "Light chains", "C": "Heavy chains", "D": "Exons", "E": "Introns" }, "Correct Answer": "Exons", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f1767c7d-eadf-4ef5-b919-b03bbd3a4d13", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term isocratic is used in high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) when:", "Options": { "A": "The mobile phase is at a constant temperature.", "B": "The stationary phase is in equilibrium with the mobile phase.", "C": "The mobile phase consists of a single solvent with a constant composition.", "D": "The flow rate of the mobile phase is regulated.", "E": "All the options are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The mobile phase consists of a single solvent with a constant composition.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8d2dffce-691e-4a4f-bf91-a459118d8f40", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) encompasses three processes. Select sequence order:", "Options": { "A": "Extension → Fusion → Denaturation.", "B": "Fusion → Denaturing → Extension.", "C": "Denaturing → Fusion → Extension.", "D": "Denaturing → Extension → Fusion.", "E": "Extension → Denaturation → Fusion." }, "Correct Answer": "Denaturing → Fusion → Extension.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9d4fd09c-cef4-496a-826f-73e94f7208b5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "All of the following statements that describe restriction endonucleases are true EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "They do not provide single chain ends in complementary pieces of DNA.", "B": "They are limited by the methylation of the recognition sequences.", "C": "They recognize palidromic sequences.", "D": "They break both chains in the DNA duplex.", "E": "They are specific to short symmetric sequences." }, "Correct Answer": "They do not provide single chain ends in complementary pieces of DNA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7f1a284e-bab6-4942-b570-b9cdd0ed577d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acetylation of histones affects transcription:", "Options": { "A": "Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery.", "B": "Preventing the remodeling of chromatin.", "C": "Facilitating the action of helicases.", "D": "Decreasing sensitivity to nuclear receptors.", "E": "Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7e864251-f93a-4097-9178-ce48f7f4638f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What group of amino acids, when they are part of the proteins, can be phosphorylated?", "Options": { "A": "Val, Ser, Thr.", "B": "Phe, Ala, Gly.", "C": "Val, Glu, Asp.", "D": "Tyr, Ser, Thr.", "E": "Lys, Ser, Ile." }, "Correct Answer": "Tyr, Ser, Thr.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "af15ad40-b5a3-4466-b018-829159d84425", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases:", "Options": { "A": "They participate in the synthesis of the TRANs.", "B": "They participate in the maturation of the precursors of the TRANs.", "C": "They are responsible for the synthesis of amino acids.", "D": "They are responsible for the interpretation of the genetic code.", "E": "They synthesize parts of the ribosomes." }, "Correct Answer": "They are responsible for the interpretation of the genetic code.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a7c17b10-af6e-436a-a53e-47aa15faa711", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A key reaction in the regulation of gene expression is acetylation / desatethylation in the histones of some of its residues:", "Options": { "A": "Serina", "B": "Threonine", "C": "Lysine", "D": "Tryptophan", "E": "To the girl." }, "Correct Answer": "Lysine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "501b0d3a-ace0-49a8-b790-c7ecf8b4f37b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "During DNA replication:", "Options": { "A": "The two strands are synthesized continuously.", "B": "Ribozymes intervene.", "C": "The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates are oxidized.", "D": "A primasa intervenes.", "E": "The two strands remain joined by hydrogen bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "A primasa intervenes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "60e215d2-3636-4dab-8dea-41affa602c2a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which amino acid serves as a starting point for the synthesis of porphyrins (heme group)?", "Options": { "A": "Valina", "B": "To the girl.", "C": "Asparagine", "D": "Lysine", "E": "Glycine" }, "Correct Answer": "Glycine", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "db69dacc-537e-4090-890f-954a472a496c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What pair of modified amino acids is very common in collagen?", "Options": { "A": "4-Hydroxy-proline and 5-Hydroxy-lysine.", "B": "Histamine and 5-Methyl-lysine.", "C": "Carboxyglutamate and 4-Hydroxy-proline.", "D": "S-Adenosyl-methionine and 5-Methyl-proline.", "E": "Methyl-Phenylalanine and Histamine." }, "Correct Answer": "4-Hydroxy-proline and 5-Hydroxy-lysine.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "241e95b2-0ae8-4e01-b5c5-63f054e9094a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The electron transport molecules:", "Options": { "A": "They are coenzymes of a nucleotide nature.", "B": "They exchange electrons in oxidation-reduction reactions.", "C": "They are molecules capable of oxidation and reduction.", "D": "FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) and FMN (flavin mononucleotides) are electron transport molecules.", "E": "All are true." }, "Correct Answer": "All are true.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7c797b9f-747c-4645-a339-84d16feb6ba5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these compounds directly donates the 2nd amino group to the urea cycle?", "Options": { "A": "Aspartic.", "B": "Glutamic", "C": "Glutamine", "D": "Glycine", "E": "Ornithine" }, "Correct Answer": "Aspartic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "97529e95-1e0b-4d13-9e88-4ec7ec3dc433", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The mitochondrial complex α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase needs all the following compounds EXEPT:", "Options": { "A": "CoA.", "B": "FAD.", "C": "NAD +.", "D": "NADP +.", "E": "Thiamine pyrophosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "NADP +.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "878c7e13-3f9a-40b8-8604-c0df962b064c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following strands of DNA has the same nucleotide sequence (except the change of T per U) as its primary transcript?", "Options": { "A": "The leading thread.", "B": "The Watson strand.", "C": "The Crick strand.", "D": "The mold thread.", "E": "The coding strand." }, "Correct Answer": "The coding strand.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1b3682cd-1b0c-46e7-ba1d-694e3db8b132", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term DOMAIN refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The ends of the polypeptide chains of a protein.", "B": "Compact segments of globular proteins, which are structurally independent and have specific functions.", "C": "Combinations of alpha helices and beta sheets without a particular function.", "D": "Each of the individual polypeptide chains of an oligomer.", "E": "The structure of fibrous proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "Compact segments of globular proteins, which are structurally independent and have specific functions.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "aa4efb02-96db-4e34-b5a4-062512cec07e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In prothrombin, the conversion reaction of glutamate to γ-carboxyglutamate is dependent on:", "Options": { "A": "Vitamin K.", "B": "Vitamin D.", "C": "Vitamin A.", "D": "Vitamin C.", "E": "Vitamin E." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamin K.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f303e7ee-60e1-41e1-a5f6-9ffe1dbc29e1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyruvate carboxylase is allosterically activated by one of the following compounds, what is it?", "Options": { "A": "Pyruvate.", "B": "Acetyl-CoA.", "C": "Malate.", "D": "Oxalacetate.", "E": "NAD +." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetyl-CoA.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "71810743-f96c-4f02-bf55-b5e4763d42bc", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following values ​​is closest to the estimated value for the standard free energy increase of ATP hydrolysis?", "Options": { "A": "- 1.4 Kcal / mol.", "B": "- 2.6 Kcal / mol.", "C": "+ 3.5 Kcal / mol.", "D": "- 7.0 Kcal / mol.", "E": "+ 7.0 Kcal / mol." }, "Correct Answer": "- 7.0 Kcal / mol.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e7105232-769e-43d2-a8b1-99e6833cee82", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What amino acids can be bound to a sugar by an O-glycosidic bond?", "Options": { "A": "Ser and Thr.", "B": "Cys and Ser.", "C": "Asn and Thr.", "D": "Lys and His.", "E": "Val and Leu." }, "Correct Answer": "Ser and Thr.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e306f277-1a66-44aa-8ed5-605db5bada44", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the alcaptonuria the defective enzyme can be:", "Options": { "A": "Dihydrobiopterin reductase.", "B": "Tyrosine aminotransferase.", "C": "p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase.", "D": "Homogentisic 1,2-dioxygenase.", "E": "Fumarilacetoacetasa." }, "Correct Answer": "Homogentisic 1,2-dioxygenase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "15d683ba-af8d-4040-95d0-f8058e6d12fd", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about the binding and release of oxygen by hemoglobin is correct?", "Options": { "A": "By binding to oxygen, the iron of the heme prothematic group is oxidized from Fe2 + to Fe3 +.", "B": "The decrease in pH and an increase in the concentration of BPG (2,3 bis phosphoglycerate) favor the release of oxygen by hemoglobin.", "C": "A high concentration of 2, 3 bis phosphoglycerate in erythrocytes promotes the binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.", "D": "The binding of oxygen to any of the four \"we\" occurs independently of the other three.", "E": "The binding of hemoglobin to oxygen follows a hyperbolic kinetics." }, "Correct Answer": "The decrease in pH and an increase in the concentration of BPG (2,3 bis phosphoglycerate) favor the release of oxygen by hemoglobin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "199f298d-f788-49e6-b6b1-b5c62accb31a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble:", "Options": { "A": "Vitamin E.", "B": "Vitamin D.", "C": "Vitamin K.", "D": "Vitamin B.", "E": "Vitamin A." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamin B.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "035a27e0-39f3-4ce7-89ab-d29e7900e051", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following steps is not part of gluconeogenesis?", "Options": { "A": "Oxalacetate to pyruvate.", "B": "Pyruvate to oxaloacetate.", "C": "Glucose-6-P to glucose.", "D": "Fructose-1, 6-bisP to fructose-6-P.", "E": "Oxalacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate." }, "Correct Answer": "Oxalacetate to pyruvate.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "023da639-92f5-453f-9fa1-69023a5e6610", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The carboxypeptidases A and B:", "Options": { "A": "They are endopeptidases.", "B": "They are excreted by exocrine cells of the intestine.", "C": "They are excreted by exocrine cells of the stomach.", "D": "They are synthesized by endocrine cells of the liver.", "E": "They are synthesized by exocrine cells of the pancreas." }, "Correct Answer": "They are synthesized by exocrine cells of the pancreas.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6a5cb894-4724-4956-aaa6-3568b47ae6b8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the peptide bond, indicate which of the following statements is FALSE:", "Options": { "A": "It has partial character of double bond.", "B": "Form a small dipole.", "C": "Its formation involves the elimination of a molecule of water.", "D": "The peptide chain rotates freely through the peptide bond.", "E": "In an amide link." }, "Correct Answer": "The peptide chain rotates freely through the peptide bond.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "88a015f7-024c-4a14-b285-79545cea64a9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In collagen, what is the amino acid that is repeated every three residues?", "Options": { "A": "Glycine", "B": "To the girl.", "C": "Proline", "D": "Lysine", "E": "Hydroxyproline" }, "Correct Answer": "Glycine", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9ea67878-abd5-4041-bb81-609bf2f86f01", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "An unknown enzyme that affects DNA has been isolated from E. coli. When a solution of this enzyme is mixed with supercoiled plasmid DNA, its only effect is to relax DNA. At the end of the exposure to the enzyme solution, the plasmid DNA is covalently closed and is still circular. This enzyme is one:", "Options": { "A": "Restriction endonuclease.", "B": "Primasa", "C": "Reverse transcriptase", "D": "Helicasa", "E": "Topoisomerase" }, "Correct Answer": "Topoisomerase", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "04d8b2a0-b592-4053-9074-df46edf7a76f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the control points of the expression of eukaryotic genes, indicate which of the following statements is false:", "Options": { "A": "Modification of the gene structure.", "B": "Regulation of transcription.", "C": "Ripening of RNA", "D": "Maturation of DNA.", "E": "Stability of RNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Maturation of DNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "269c0f10-ced0-4ca7-9b7a-81604b1a8892", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the net charge of an amino acid with a neutral R group for a pH value below its pI:", "Options": { "A": "Negative net charge.", "B": "Positive net charge.", "C": "Without charge.", "D": "It is necessary to know the exact pH value to answer this question.", "E": "It is necessary to know the concentration of the amino acid to answer this question." }, "Correct Answer": "Positive net charge.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7e537be2-782d-41aa-81ae-30ecce3cb427", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The RNA Polymerase I of eukaryotes transcribes the genes of:", "Options": { "A": "The precursors of mRNAs.", "B": "The precursors of the TRANs.", "C": "The ribosomal RNAs 18S, 5,8S and 28S.", "D": "All precursors of cellular RNAs.", "E": "The catalytic RNAs." }, "Correct Answer": "The ribosomal RNAs 18S, 5,8S and 28S.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c8e0ce02-0cdb-4e71-8989-b5313daac543", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The degree of fluidity of the biological membranes depends on the percentage of:", "Options": { "A": "Lipids with hill.", "B": "Glycolipids.", "C": "Sphingolipids", "D": "Free fatty acids.", "E": "Unsaturated fatty acids." }, "Correct Answer": "Unsaturated fatty acids.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5e76f6a9-87b7-4e34-a45e-2f040acd37aa", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Where does glycosylation take place in a eukaryotic cell?", "Options": { "A": "In the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi Apparatus.", "B": "Only in the Golgi Apparatus.", "C": "In the mitochondria and the Golgi Apparatus.", "D": "Only in the endoplasmic reticulum.", "E": "In the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "In the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi Apparatus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2db50caf-d9d5-45ea-bc1d-cc011c329b9b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what type of reaction does the cytochrome P-450 of the liver typically intervene?", "Options": { "A": "Hydration.", "B": "Reduction.", "C": "Hydrolysis.", "D": "Esterification", "E": "Hydroxylation" }, "Correct Answer": "Hydroxylation", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "21bba7c1-0f2f-4a4f-9d9d-dbd75197b85f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The clinical sensitivity of an analytical parameter (test) is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients.", "B": "A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.", "C": "A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease.", "D": "A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease.", "E": "A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease." }, "Correct Answer": "A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a65bdef1-ef42-4c82-a185-8c2ecafeb6d8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the relationship between turbidimetry and nephelometry?", "Options": { "A": "Nephelometry is the inverse of turbidimetry.", "B": "Turbidimetry is more sensitive than nephelometry.", "C": "Nephelometry can be measured with a conventional spectrophotometer.", "D": "Both technologies measure the dispersion of light.", "E": "Both technologies are the most sensitive and used in clinical laboratories." }, "Correct Answer": "Both technologies measure the dispersion of light.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fa2d8074-bc76-4b9e-b7bf-d3e94baf046f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "How does the increase in temperature affect the reaction between antigen and antibody?", "Options": { "A": "Increases the reaction rate and decreases binding affinity.", "B": "It decreases the reaction rate and increases the binding affinity.", "C": "Increases the reaction rate and binding affinity.", "D": "Decreases the reaction rate and binding affinity.", "E": "None of the above options is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Increases the reaction rate and decreases binding affinity.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0b52d330-65ec-4ecd-9d6d-a64667597ce6", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following modifications is not part of the maturation process suffered by the precursors of the tRNAs?", "Options": { "A": "Modification of bases.", "B": "Elimination of the 5'-end leader sequence.", "C": "Elimination of the final segment of the 3 'end.", "D": "Addition of CCA to the 3 'end.", "E": "Polyadenylation of the 3'-end." }, "Correct Answer": "Polyadenylation of the 3'-end.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e4b20839-157e-40e8-b12d-aa53f1795d50", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The proofreading activity of DNA Polymerase:", "Options": { "A": "It is a 5'-3'exonuclease activity.", "B": "It is a 3'-5'exonuclease activity.", "C": "It is a 5'-3'polymerizing activity.", "D": "It is an endonuclease activity.", "E": "It is a transesterification activity." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a 3'-5'exonuclease activity.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5e0bd03c-85c5-4a78-8d97-cfc9d7a8e467", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glycolysis is the only ATP-producing route in:", "Options": { "A": "Erythrocytes", "B": "Lymphocytes", "C": "Hepatocytes", "D": "Neurons", "E": "Adipocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Erythrocytes", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "710efb1e-7460-473a-8592-94f8e93d2802", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ribonucleotide reductase:", "Options": { "A": "Involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides.", "B": "It uses NADPH as a coenzyme.", "C": "It is an enzymatic system.", "D": "Acts in collaboration with the thioredoxin.", "E": "All the above is true." }, "Correct Answer": "All the above is true.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fb6fbdf5-e645-4cdc-bfa9-8bede48b6476", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "On which of the following enzymes does citrate exert a positive allosteric effect?", "Options": { "A": "Pyruvate kinase.", "B": "Acetyl CoA carboxylase.", "C": "Fosfofructoquinasa.", "D": "Fatty acid synthetase.", "E": "Enolasa" }, "Correct Answer": "Acetyl CoA carboxylase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d2422d57-6c3c-4ba1-961b-f185a8845935", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glucagon increases the activity of:", "Options": { "A": "Protein kinase A.", "B": "Acetyl-CoA carboxylase.", "C": "Pyruvate kinase.", "D": "Glycogen synthase.", "E": "Fosfofructoquinasa-1." }, "Correct Answer": "Protein kinase A.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "379ef497-730d-444a-8590-83b1491192f8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The aminotransferases:", "Options": { "A": "They participate only in the synthesis of amino acids.", "B": "They participate only in the degradation of amino acids.", "C": "They participate in the synthesis and degradation of amino acids.", "D": "Your heart levels are very low.", "E": "None of the previous answers is true." }, "Correct Answer": "They participate in the synthesis and degradation of amino acids.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "200cdb19-0652-4934-b8c2-f141d405ec4e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase catalyses the dehydrogenation reaction dependent on:", "Options": { "A": "NADPH.", "B": "FMN", "C": "NAD +.", "D": "FAD.", "E": "CoA." }, "Correct Answer": "FAD.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "88d8b78f-6cd3-45ed-9706-7019ddbe896c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Nitric Oxide (NO) is synthesized from the amino acid:", "Options": { "A": "Arginine", "B": "Asparagine", "C": "To the girl.", "D": "Aspartate", "E": "Valina" }, "Correct Answer": "Arginine", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cb88d2fb-ed97-45f5-af9a-e9836236fc3c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the enzymes mentioned below does not intervene in glycogen metabolism:", "Options": { "A": "Glycogen synthase.", "B": "Glycogen phosphorylase.", "C": "Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "D": "Phosphoglucomutase", "E": "UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bb5bd0f7-1291-483c-89fc-6266cd7d75af", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is not included among the lipids found in biological membranes:", "Options": { "A": "Isopentenyl pyrophosphate.", "B": "Phosphatidylinositol.", "C": "Sphingomyelin", "D": "Phosphatidic acid.", "E": "Phosphatidylethanolamine." }, "Correct Answer": "Isopentenyl pyrophosphate.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "14115fdb-ea70-43b0-a514-1c4cec39f003", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A non-immunogenic low molecular weight molecule, which is when coupled to an antigenic carrier protein, is a:", "Options": { "A": "Glycoconjugate.", "B": "Paratope", "C": "Isotype.", "D": "Epitope.", "E": "Hapteno." }, "Correct Answer": "Hapteno.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "eaf08672-db89-4b69-846a-60f476c40bbf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the many molecules of high energy phosphate compounds that are formed as a consequence of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, a molecule is synthesized at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does it produce you?", "Options": { "A": "Citrate → α-ketoglutarate.", "B": "Succinyl-CoA → succinate.", "C": "Succinate → fumarate.", "D": "Fumarate → malate.", "E": "Malate → oxaloacetate." }, "Correct Answer": "Succinyl-CoA → succinate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "70463b4a-3b8a-4c7c-9955-f115ccdb86a9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What does it mean that hemoglobin binds O2 cooperatively?", "Options": { "A": "That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin drives the binding of other subunits to form a complete protein hemoglobin.", "B": "That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of the same subunit to bind more O2 molecules.", "C": "That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of other subunits for O2.", "D": "That the union of an O2 molecule to a protein hemoglobin causes the union of another O2 molecule to another protein different hemoglobin.", "E": "None of this is true." }, "Correct Answer": "That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of other subunits for O2.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "404e054d-ba9d-4156-8e0e-70deff40ebac", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term \"correction\" (or editing) of the RNA refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The process of self-correction of RNA synthesized by RNA Polymerase.", "B": "The process of cutting and splicing the introns.", "C": "The maturation process of the 5 'and 3' ends of the RNA.", "D": "The change in the nucleotide sequence of RNA after transcription that does not obey a maturation process.", "E": "The process of repairing errors in the DNA that is going to be transcribed." }, "Correct Answer": "The change in the nucleotide sequence of RNA after transcription that does not obey a maturation process.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c20353d2-7b14-4393-a410-7017fc18f262", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A clathrate is:", "Options": { "A": "A type of covalent interaction.", "B": "The formation of a regular water network around non-polar molecules.", "C": "The formation of a regular network of water around polar molecules.", "D": "The structure of a lipid network around a protein.", "E": "A nucleoprotein complex." }, "Correct Answer": "The formation of a regular water network around non-polar molecules.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8b6e7bae-6eb8-4892-867c-5c6e8b503cb7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cyclic electronic flow of photosynthesis:", "Options": { "A": "It uses the components of photosystem II together with plastocyanin and cytochrome b6f.", "B": "Generates ATP and NADPH.", "C": "It occurs in situations in which NADPH is in short supply.", "D": "It generates ATP without reducing NADP +.", "E": "Free O2." }, "Correct Answer": "It generates ATP without reducing NADP +.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8a531abf-62d2-4248-9c3d-4d622392d917", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The α-keratin consists of:", "Options": { "A": "Two dextrorotative α-propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix.", "B": "Two dextrorotary propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix.", "C": "Two levorotylar helices coiled to form a levorotatory helix.", "D": "Two levógiras α helices coiled to form a dextrorotatory helix.", "E": "One helix α levorotatory and one dextrorotatory coiled to form a levorotatory helix." }, "Correct Answer": "Two dextrorotative α-propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "69b78f83-a6da-494f-95a9-f94c7c4603c2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the amino acid that, under physiological conditions, has an uncharged side chain:", "Options": { "A": "Arginine", "B": "Aspartic acid.", "C": "Glutamic acid.", "D": "Lysine", "E": "Threonine" }, "Correct Answer": "Threonine", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f74c8074-871d-40ef-b52c-b3de63bef2f5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The clinical specificity of an analytical parameter (test), with respect to a certain pathology, is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients.", "B": "A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.", "C": "A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease.", "D": "A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease.", "E": "A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease." }, "Correct Answer": "A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8dfc2c05-2ff3-4e0a-8819-b072a359feb0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Linolenic acid (18: 39, 12, 15) is a fatty acid:", "Options": { "A": "Polyunsaturated.", "B": "Saturated.", "C": "Polysaturated", "D": "With triple link.", "E": "Branched." }, "Correct Answer": "Polyunsaturated.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "54e1f67c-7c2a-4eed-9e00-1ae747ffea8b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Transcription factors:", "Options": { "A": "They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A.", "B": "They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription.", "C": "They join the DNA.", "D": "They are organized into nucleosomes.", "E": "They regulate DNA mutilation." }, "Correct Answer": "They join the DNA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f3ddec01-1ba1-4b13-8f9d-f5affb602d97", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The metal that appears most frequently in the active site of metalloproteases is:", "Options": { "A": "Calcium.", "B": "Magnesium.", "C": "Selenium.", "D": "Sodium.", "E": "Zinc." }, "Correct Answer": "Zinc.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "51594dda-5408-4f44-9e5e-cc8acc25e866", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Aminoacyl-tRNAs:", "Options": { "A": "They are the precursors of the RANs.", "B": "They are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of amino acids.", "C": "They are part of the ribosomes.", "D": "They are the tRNAs loaded with the amino acid specified by its anticodon sequence.", "E": "They are synthesized by RNA Polymerase II." }, "Correct Answer": "They are the tRNAs loaded with the amino acid specified by its anticodon sequence.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e1f45e5e-d522-4191-9b24-ceebf3eb16f7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following products of the degradation of triacylglycerols and subsequent oxidation can undergo gluconeogenesis?", "Options": { "A": "Propionyl CoA.", "B": "Acetyl CoA", "C": "All the ketone bodies.", "D": "Some amino acids", "E": "-Hydroxybutyrate." }, "Correct Answer": "Propionyl CoA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ebc6cadd-2ed0-411d-8a93-63b3103bb56a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The standard free energy of activation of a reaction is:", "Options": { "A": "The difference in free energy between the basal state of the products and the substrates.", "B": "The difference of the enthalpy minus the entropy of the system.", "C": "The basal energy of the substrates in a catalyzed reaction.", "D": "The additional free energy that molecules must reach to reach the state of transition.", "E": "The energy released from a catalysed reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "The additional free energy that molecules must reach to reach the state of transition.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bdfe5887-0d03-4025-85ed-537db8b5fa39", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is regulated by:", "Options": { "A": "Mitochondrial steroid hormones.", "B": "Apoptosis", "C": "Thermogenin", "D": "The cytochrome c.", "E": "The cellular energy charge." }, "Correct Answer": "The cellular energy charge.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c2e42fa2-ab15-4bdd-bf83-5fd9ebe69f2d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The carbon skeleton of proline enters the citric acid cycle in the form of:", "Options": { "A": "Fumarate", "B": "Isocitrate.", "C": "α-Cetuglutarate.", "D": "Oxalacetate.", "E": "Succinate" }, "Correct Answer": "α-Cetuglutarate.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1a7fa286-c6cc-4a8f-b833-2581e2d33e4c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pyruvate carboxylase activity depends on the positive allosteric effector:", "Options": { "A": "Succinate", "B": "AMP.", "C": "Isocitrate.", "D": "Citrate.", "E": "Acetyl CoA" }, "Correct Answer": "Acetyl CoA", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c41934cf-9e38-46a3-b73e-fe0c9ff747a4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The key regulatory enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway is regulated positively by:", "Options": { "A": "NADH", "B": "ADP.", "C": "GTP", "D": "NADP +.", "E": "FADH." }, "Correct Answer": "NADP +.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "505bce78-c8bb-4953-a646-67fe21104141", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ribonuclease H hydrolyzes specifically:", "Options": { "A": "The DNA with DNA matching complementary sequence.", "B": "RNA with DNA matching of complementary sequence.", "C": "The RNA primer in the replication.", "D": "RNA without pairing with DNA of complementary sequence", "E": "Certain introns in the maturation process." }, "Correct Answer": "RNA with DNA matching of complementary sequence.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d336ffca-5fc4-4974-a187-471af63cebe3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When it is said that the genetic code is \"degenerate\", it means that:", "Options": { "A": "There are several stop and start codons.", "B": "The genetic code of eukaryotes is different from that of bacteria.", "C": "A codon encodes several amino acids.", "D": "Most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon.", "E": "None of the above options." }, "Correct Answer": "Most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7d12107e-9e8f-4a51-b1ea-60b3a901659c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the urea cycle:", "Options": { "A": "Enzymes that participate are located in the mitochondria.", "B": "Genetic defects can be treated with benzoate.", "C": "An intermediate metabolite is N-acetylglutamate.", "D": "Lysine is synthesized.", "E": "Carbamylphosphate synthetase II intervenes." }, "Correct Answer": "Genetic defects can be treated with benzoate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cce33ec3-c0e3-48ba-9c12-9da8d684595d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The DNA link number:", "Options": { "A": "It is the number of hydrogen bonds of a double-stranded DNA.", "B": "It is the number of optimal matings in a double-stranded DNA.", "C": "It is the number of phosphoester bonds in a single-stranded DNA.", "D": "It is a topological property and defines the degree of supercoiling of a DNA.", "E": "It is the number of turns in double-stranded DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a topological property and defines the degree of supercoiling of a DNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1347160e-18bd-43a1-a48f-440bf1350b9b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the path that leads in the liver to acetoacetate biosynthesis from acetyl CoA, which of the following substances is the immediate precursor of acetoacetate?", "Options": { "A": "3-Hydroxybutyrate", "B": "Acetoacetyl CoA.", "C": "3-Hydroxybutyrate CoA.", "D": "Mevalonic acid.", "E": "3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl. CoA." }, "Correct Answer": "3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl. CoA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8ee28b12-86ab-448f-978a-02a820011174", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these compounds is a product generated directly by the pentose route?", "Options": { "A": "NADP +.", "B": "NADPH.", "C": "NADH", "D": "Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.", "E": "CoA." }, "Correct Answer": "NADPH.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "597b47c9-1ff9-493e-ad36-d79e40cf1356", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these vitamins are isoprenoid compounds?", "Options": { "A": "Vitamins A, B2, C and D.", "B": "Vitamins A, B2 and Folic acid.", "C": "Vitamins A, K and biotin.", "D": "Vitamins D, E and C.", "E": "Vitamins A, D, E and K." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamins A, D, E and K.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a7fe0d1c-b829-4665-893a-94a6898cb911", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The repeating element of the DNA structure is called:", "Options": { "A": "Spiceosome", "B": "Nucleosome", "C": "Chromosome.", "D": "Replisome", "E": "Primosoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleosome", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7df14b0a-7af2-468b-bbb7-bc47cc9b695b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The binding of an allosteric activator to an allosteric enzyme typically results in:", "Options": { "A": "Decrease the Vmax.", "B": "The transition to a less soluble state.", "C": "Decrease the Km by its substrate.", "D": "The transition to hyperbolic kinetics.", "E": "The dissociation of its subunits." }, "Correct Answer": "Decrease the Km by its substrate.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2e809bbc-4f83-48d3-8d0e-ef1ee87bbcaf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The secretion of insulin by pancreatic cells is regulated positively by:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibition of hexokinase IV.", "B": "Activation of K + channels.", "C": "Inactivation of Ca ++ channels.", "D": "High concentration of ATP.", "E": "Low blood glucose levels" }, "Correct Answer": "High concentration of ATP.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "42b198fa-b72a-4067-824f-dd498ded77c2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "How is it possible that during the replication of the bacterial DNA the guide (or forward) and delayed strands are synthesized in a coordinated way?", "Options": { "A": "The guide strand is synthesized in the 5'-3'direction and the delayed one in the 3'-5'direction.", "B": "The holoenzyme DNA Polymerase III contains two copies of the catalytic core of the enzyme.", "C": "Proteins bound to the delayed strand control the synthesis speed of the guide strand.", "D": "Specific enzymes control the opening of the replication fork.", "E": "The helicase controls the speed of synthesis in both strands." }, "Correct Answer": "The holoenzyme DNA Polymerase III contains two copies of the catalytic core of the enzyme.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1d36cfc3-2c6c-4233-a7f5-4cc710a8010b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct statement:", "Options": { "A": "At low pO2, myoglobin is more saturated with O2 than hemoglobin.", "B": "CO2 increases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2.", "C": "2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate is strongly bound in oxygenated hemoglobin.", "D": "The tissues that produce lactate release more O 2.", "E": "At high pO2, hemoglobin has 2 subunits." }, "Correct Answer": "At low pO2, myoglobin is more saturated with O2 than hemoglobin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ee502200-b265-4594-9bc7-3bcfeae68649", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glucagon affects blood glucose by:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibit the degradation of hepatic glycogen.", "B": "Activate hepatic glycolysis.", "C": "Activate hepatic gluconeogenesis.", "D": "Inhibit the mobilization of fatty acids.", "E": "Inhibit hepatic ketogenesis." }, "Correct Answer": "Activate hepatic gluconeogenesis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f719702b-7634-40a0-9461-021f7f1757e8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these phrases about gluconeogenesis is not correct?", "Options": { "A": "In gluconeogenesis enzymatic reactions different from glycolysis are used.", "B": "Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursors that are carbohydrates.", "C": "Gluconeogenesis has as main substrates lactate, amino acids, propionate and glycerol.", "D": "Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the cytosol.", "E": "Gluconeogenesis uses specific enzymes to avoid three irreversible reactions in glycolysis." }, "Correct Answer": "Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursors that are carbohydrates.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a0be9f31-82ca-4f00-819a-68ede5ae7e9d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The particles of recognition of the signal have as function:", "Options": { "A": "Break the signal sequence.", "B": "Detect cytosolic proteins.", "C": "Direct the signal sequences to the ribosomes.", "D": "Link the ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum.", "E": "Join the mRNA to the ribosomes." }, "Correct Answer": "Link the ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1937f78f-28ae-4c36-bfcf-857d71c2fb85", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which coenzyme is involved in the synthesis of nitric oxide (NO)?", "Options": { "A": "NADH", "B": "NADPH.", "C": "FAD.", "D": "CoA.", "E": "Thiamine." }, "Correct Answer": "NADPH.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e32ac018-61d6-4f28-9490-3e9216abe7cf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The prozone effect of a turbidimetric analysis can be detected by measuring the absorbance:", "Options": { "A": "After an ultracentrifugation.", "B": "Previous concentration of the sample.", "C": "After dilution of the sample.", "D": "Once the sample was treated with SDS.", "E": "Two consecutive times." }, "Correct Answer": "After dilution of the sample.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1a97cf8b-0891-46d2-9d8c-84e24f4b0d29", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The DNA Girasa is:", "Options": { "A": "A eukaryotic Topoisomerase I.", "B": "A eukaryotic Topoisomerase II", "C": "A prokaryotic Topoisomerase I", "D": "A prokaryotic Topoisomerase II.", "E": "A prokaryotic Helicasa." }, "Correct Answer": "A prokaryotic Topoisomerase II.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2ceb0c1b-688d-4d0b-bf4b-30e08972ed10", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What enzyme is present in complex II that participates in oxidative phosphorylation?", "Options": { "A": "Coenzyme Q: cytochrome c oxidoreductase.", "B": "NADH dehydrogenase.", "C": "Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase.", "D": "ATP synthase.", "E": "Cytochrome c oxidase." }, "Correct Answer": "Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "aa7df5d5-73f5-4dc8-91c9-e68077fe1015", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following enzyme complexes catalyzes the reduction of molecular oxygen to water during oxidative phosphorylation?", "Options": { "A": "ATP synthase.", "B": "Cytochrome c oxidase.", "C": "NADH-Q oxide-reductase.", "D": "Q-cytochrome c-oxide-reductase.", "E": "Succinate-Q reductase." }, "Correct Answer": "Cytochrome c oxidase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "37afe938-1a6e-4151-85c6-3a2d7bd6c7c7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of which of the following structural arrangements in a protein suggests that it is a regulatory protein for DNA binding:", "Options": { "A": "Plate .", "B": "Disordered region.", "C": "Helix .", "D": "Chaperones", "E": "Finger of zinc." }, "Correct Answer": "Finger of zinc.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "17147d7f-870d-4692-a54b-1e33edd0dd0d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The chemical reactions of the splicing process of the introns during the maturation of the pre-mRNAs consists of:", "Options": { "A": "An oxidation-reduction reaction.", "B": "A transesterification reaction.", "C": "Two sequential transesterification reactions.", "D": "Three sequential transesterification reactions.", "E": "A transesterification reaction followed by another oxidation reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Two sequential transesterification reactions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "09439835-e852-4269-9394-110fda6824f3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "DNA fotoliasa:", "Options": { "A": "Repairs cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers in the presence of visible light.", "B": "It binds to DNA specifically in purine dimers.", "C": "It contains three chromophores.", "D": "It is present in all eukaryotic cells.", "E": "It breaks the bonds that link pyrimidine rings and then dissociates in the presence of visible light." }, "Correct Answer": "Repairs cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers in the presence of visible light.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f52af987-3788-48fb-a18a-c2bd97c860ce", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In protein biosynthesis:", "Options": { "A": "The information contained in the two DNA chains is translated.", "B": "The messenger RNA is translated in the 5'-3'direction.", "C": "Initiation occurs in the promoter sequence.", "D": "Start with the most abundant amino acid.", "E": "Start with different amino acid according to the protein to be synthesized." }, "Correct Answer": "The messenger RNA is translated in the 5'-3'direction.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "584e53de-1532-4ca4-aa25-480b7c821c27", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The new proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in:", "Options": { "A": "Golgi apparatus.", "B": "Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "Free polysomes.", "D": "Nucleus.", "E": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum." }, "Correct Answer": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0728c8a3-f880-4852-a92f-d7ea0ec86072", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "During a prolonged fast:", "Options": { "A": "The low level of blood sugar decreases the secretion of glucagon and increase the insulin.", "B": "Decreases the concentration of acetyl-CoA.", "C": "The main fuel of the organism happens to be the fatty acids and the ketone bodies.", "D": "The proteins are degraded and replenished immediately.", "E": "The brain and the heart use fatty acids as fuels." }, "Correct Answer": "The main fuel of the organism happens to be the fatty acids and the ketone bodies.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d245a3ce-6e33-4706-8833-5ebc37a40465", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following answers is correct regarding a tRNA?", "Options": { "A": "The tRNA has an anticodon that recognizes the template DNA.", "B": "The amino acid is attached to the 5'-end.", "C": "It contains a polyA tail at its 3 'end.", "D": "It may contain pseudouridin and inosine.", "E": "It serves as a gene for some viruses." }, "Correct Answer": "It may contain pseudouridin and inosine.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7409ce27-8a8a-42e4-b40d-91bf1a0bc451", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements regarding the double-stranded DNA molecule is true?", "Options": { "A": "All the hydroxyl groups of the pentoses participate in the bonds.", "B": "The bases are perpendicular to the axis.", "C": "Each chain is identical.", "D": "Each chain is parallel.", "E": "Each chain replicates itself." }, "Correct Answer": "The bases are perpendicular to the axis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c69568f3-0a25-4454-b531-bb0e8fc87859", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Relating to topoisomerases:", "Options": { "A": "They are enzymes that convert the D-amino acids into L-amino acids.", "B": "They are enzymes that synthesize DNA.", "C": "They are enzymes that participate in the union of the subunits of the ribosome.", "D": "They are enzymes that denature DNA.", "E": "DNA gyrase is a special toposiomerase." }, "Correct Answer": "DNA gyrase is a special toposiomerase.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d4d0cfad-11b1-4098-bba9-8f230e7ee99d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "An exergonic reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It is always spontaneous.", "B": "It is always endothermic.", "C": "It is done at a great speed.", "D": "G is positive.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "It is always spontaneous.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7d6fa88b-163b-48de-b7a3-4cd80b65bc64", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what units is usually expressed the coefficient of molar absorptivity?", "Options": { "A": "mL mol-1 cm.", "B": "L mol-1 cm-3.", "C": "Photons per mole.", "D": "M-1 cm-1.", "E": "It is dimensionless." }, "Correct Answer": "M-1 cm-1.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "67f37862-072d-4060-9d03-ef5bc96eb602", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which compound acts as a sulfhydryl buffer and as an antioxidant?", "Options": { "A": "Glycogen", "B": "Glutamic acid.", "C": "Glucagon.", "D": "Glutathione", "E": "Ascorbic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Glutathione", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "baa7b70d-2677-4e0c-a6aa-630bfc9826f1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Heating of 4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid with dilute sulfuric acid gives:", "Options": { "A": "4-Methoxy-3,5-dinitrophenol.", "B": "3,5-Diamino-4-methoxybenzenesulfonic acid.", "C": "4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid anhydride", "D": "2-Methoxy-1,3-dinitrobenzene.", "E": "An organic cation" }, "Correct Answer": "2-Methoxy-1,3-dinitrobenzene.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "33369744-301d-4e59-a06d-7ec594924373", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the homogeneous nucleation:", "Options": { "A": "If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius less than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if its size increases.", "B": "If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius smaller than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved.", "C": "If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius greater than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved.", "D": "If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius equal to the critical, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved.", "E": "There is no relationship between the critical radius and the tendency to grow in size or redissolve." }, "Correct Answer": "If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius smaller than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "db0ae72b-f47d-423f-bbf0-579ab8737e32", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the Urea Cycle, where is the hydrolysis of ATP required?", "Options": { "A": "In the formation of Citrulline.", "B": "In the Ornithine formation.", "C": "In the formation of Urea.", "D": "In the formation of Carbamoyl-Phosphate.", "E": "3 and 4 are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "In the formation of Carbamoyl-Phosphate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "97fc7e0d-4df5-4996-b687-e8d5f2a965a7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ferrous oxide, known as wustite (FeO) is non-stoichiometric because it contains:", "Options": { "A": "Excess iron", "B": "Oxygen excess", "C": "Iron defect.", "D": "Oxygen defect.", "E": "Defect of iron and oxygen." }, "Correct Answer": "Iron defect.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "abc9af7a-f6e8-48ce-ba1e-55516a2163d0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the nucleophiles listed below has a greater reactivity to the bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction?", "Options": { "A": "Hydroxide.", "B": "I last.", "C": "Ammonia.", "D": "Water.", "E": "Acetic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "I last.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f98b215a-1e4e-4cc3-90a7-1d26dfaafcd9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The three-dimensional arrangement of a protein corresponds to:", "Options": { "A": "Its primary structure", "B": "Its secondary structure.", "C": "Its tertiary structure.", "D": "Its quaternary structure.", "E": "With its primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure." }, "Correct Answer": "Its tertiary structure.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5b61db4a-66da-4bf0-8400-a74bc5f2b121", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "It gives the plasma membrane high water permeability:", "Options": { "A": "Aquaporins.", "B": "Ionic channels.", "C": "Na + / K + -ATPase.", "D": "Cl / HCO3 exchanger.", "E": "Its lipid composition." }, "Correct Answer": "Aquaporins.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2c159e08-1a5b-43b6-ba70-98a251b00e34", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The action potential starts in the membrane of the initial segment of the axon by:", "Options": { "A": "Be the place where the synapse occurs.", "B": "Have a higher excitation threshold.", "C": "Present high concentration of voltage-dependent channels.", "D": "Present Na + channels regulated by ligand", "E": "Start there the axon myelin sheath." }, "Correct Answer": "Present high concentration of voltage-dependent channels.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ec13e0c2-8bac-43fd-95e9-62328b99e0f9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A potential receiver:", "Options": { "A": "It is produced by the opening of voltage-dependent channels.", "B": "Increase its frequency if the intensity of the stimulus increases.", "C": "It occurs after the binding of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptor.", "D": "They occur if the trigger threshold is exceeded.", "E": "It can be exciter or inhibitor." }, "Correct Answer": "It can be exciter or inhibitor.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "45ce7dea-1e1a-438e-8b8a-b2a8e0407ff2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In smooth muscle fibers:", "Options": { "A": "The functional unit is the sarcomere.", "B": "The contraction is regulated by troponin.", "C": "The autonomous system always innervates all fibers.", "D": "Actinamyosin cross bridges do not form.", "E": "There may be hormone receptors." }, "Correct Answer": "There may be hormone receptors.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ccc4aeb5-6b4f-472a-b772-68304b052829", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the tendon reflex of Golgi:", "Options": { "A": "It is monosynaptic.", "B": "The receptors are in series with the extrafusal muscle fibers.", "C": "It is mediated by afferent fibers type la and ll.", "D": "Activates α-motor neurons that innervate the muscle in which the receptor is located.", "E": "It is very sensitive to changes in muscle length." }, "Correct Answer": "The receptors are in series with the extrafusal muscle fibers.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "76a11a70-663e-48ce-bc5b-fe6871156d01", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the parasympathetic system:", "Options": { "A": "The preganglionic neuron is in thoracic spinal cord.", "B": "Postganglionic neurons have short axons.", "C": "Postganglionic fibers release noradrenaline.", "D": "Postganglionic neurons have muscarinic receptors.", "E": "Numerous neurons innervate vascular smooth muscle of the extremities." }, "Correct Answer": "Postganglionic neurons have short axons.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bf306b2a-0b1e-4711-926e-e687bc1fce6b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are secondary interoceptor mechanoreceptors:", "Options": { "A": "The corpuscle of Pacini and Ruffini.", "B": "The taste buds.", "C": "The receptors of the vestibular apparatus.", "D": "The hair cells of the organ of Corti.", "E": "The muscle bones." }, "Correct Answer": "The receptors of the vestibular apparatus.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "108e7c3d-7bf9-462d-b402-e8cf8d5ffd8b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Spatial discrimination of tactile stimuli:", "Options": { "A": "It increases with the size of the receiving fields.", "B": "It increases if the convergence of the afferent pathways is large.", "C": "Increase if there is lateral inhibition", "D": "It is independent of the density of innervation.", "E": "It depends only on the type of activated receiver." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase if there is lateral inhibition", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "68cfd6ae-d9be-465a-8680-49e0c799310d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The optical path partially decimates in:", "Options": { "A": "The optical band.", "B": "The geniculate body.", "C": "The optic chiasm", "D": "The retina.", "E": "The optical disc." }, "Correct Answer": "The optic chiasm", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "01c04151-2168-4c07-8c72-3306de4428db", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the human eye:", "Options": { "A": "Photoreceptors contact the vitreous humor.", "B": "The accommodation is due to the increase in the curvature of the cornea.", "C": "The pigmentary epithelium participates in the regeneration of rhodopsin.", "D": "The cones and rods are distributed homogeneously throughout the retina.", "E": "The greatest refractive power is in the lens." }, "Correct Answer": "The pigmentary epithelium participates in the regeneration of rhodopsin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f427f379-e83c-40c2-8ca2-16213bbfda9b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the human ear:", "Options": { "A": "The stereocilia of the sensory cells are bathed in perilymph.", "B": "The abutment fits over the round window.", "C": "The sensory cells are on the Reissner membrane.", "D": "The synaptan receptor cells with fibers from the eighth cranial nerve.", "E": "The helicotrema communicates the middle and tympanic ramps." }, "Correct Answer": "The synaptan receptor cells with fibers from the eighth cranial nerve.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a07e7483-77e9-4d8a-be57-2f89ebc363ba", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "After the intake increases the release of:", "Options": { "A": "Insulin.", "B": "ACTH.", "C": "Cortisol", "D": "Adrenaline from the adrenal medulla.", "E": "GH" }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c6c722d1-c2e4-422b-bd41-5efd2f09e4b8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Motor cranial nerves:", "Options": { "A": "They have their somas in the dorsal ganglia of the cervical region.", "B": "They originate in the brainstem.", "C": "They receive the name of the medullary region through which they exit.", "D": "They belong only to the somatic nervous system.", "E": "They originate in the cerebral cortex." }, "Correct Answer": "They originate in the brainstem.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "068e61e8-ca4a-4883-b4eb-7d4468264b2e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main function of the cerebellum is:", "Options": { "A": "Coordinate complex muscle movements.", "B": "Coordinate endocrine and nervous responses.", "C": "Control digestion, circulation and breathing.", "D": "Control the wake-sleep cycle.", "E": "Control the intake." }, "Correct Answer": "Coordinate complex muscle movements.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "daa96033-3475-4c82-8795-0af3d0dd5315", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Controls the passage of substances to the central nervous system:", "Options": { "A": "Meninges.", "B": "Choroid plexus.", "C": "Hemato-encephalic barrier.", "D": "White substance", "E": "Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Hemato-encephalic barrier.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "881d7b34-0718-4ff7-bc7b-c7c203283769", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They send efferent projections from the cerebellar cortex the:", "Options": { "A": "Purkinje cells.", "B": "Climbing fibers", "C": "Granular cells.", "D": "Horizontal cells.", "E": "Mossy fibers." }, "Correct Answer": "Purkinje cells.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "03ea9451-f3d7-40a8-b51d-31cddc1d680f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The sensory signals arrive mainly at the layer of the cerebral cortex number:", "Options": { "A": "II.", "B": "III.", "C": "IV.", "D": "V.", "E": "SAW." }, "Correct Answer": "IV.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5860536f-a94c-485e-8e39-5baeb84584bf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cells of the sinus node present:", "Options": { "A": "Stable membrane potential.", "B": "Contractile capacity", "C": "Depolarization faster than Purkinje fibers.", "D": "Depolarization mediated by Ca2 + channels.", "E": "Long plateau." }, "Correct Answer": "Depolarization mediated by Ca2 + channels.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f714e89a-d7bf-4944-9fdf-49f404f2324d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A hemorrhage:", "Options": { "A": "Activates the arterial baroreceptors.", "B": "It produces peripheral vasoconstriction.", "C": "Reduce ADH levels.", "D": "Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis.", "E": "Releases natriuretic atrial peptide." }, "Correct Answer": "It produces peripheral vasoconstriction.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "551bf369-5d5d-4dfc-85ac-f307e3b11af3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Vasconstricts systemic arterioles:", "Options": { "A": "Low pO2.", "B": "Low pH.", "C": "Angiotensin II.", "D": "Acetylcholine", "E": "Nitric oxide." }, "Correct Answer": "Angiotensin II.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "54b3c20a-3ebb-4a09-a336-c26ab65451eb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Increase the stroke volume if:", "Options": { "A": "Increase afterload.", "B": "Increase the preload.", "C": "The sympathetic is inhibited.", "D": "Decreases venous return.", "E": "Increase heart rate" }, "Correct Answer": "Increase the preload.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c2aec893-dc37-4718-a4af-80be3e2591df", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cardiac output decreases the increase of:", "Options": { "A": "The volemia.", "B": "The venous return.", "C": "Vagal activity.", "D": "The end-diastolic volume.", "E": "The myocardial contractility." }, "Correct Answer": "Vagal activity.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "62672174-afaf-4d75-879a-8055e6765542", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An increase in blood pressure between 80 and 150 mmHg increases diuresis because:", "Options": { "A": "The glomerular filtration increases exponentially.", "B": "Decreases the peritubular reabsorption of water.", "C": "The efferent arteriole contracts.", "D": "Proportionally increases renal blood flow.", "E": "The afferent arteriole contracts." }, "Correct Answer": "Decreases the peritubular reabsorption of water.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "162bb158-c3c4-4380-b041-71cdec0a5971", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The atrial syncytium is separated from the ventricular by:", "Options": { "A": "The atrio-ventricular valves.", "B": "The semilunar valves.", "C": "The fibrous skeleton.", "D": "The interventricular septum.", "E": "The Beam of His." }, "Correct Answer": "The fibrous skeleton.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d50181a8-192a-4372-99b1-7816ec738a33", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The papillary muscles:", "Options": { "A": "They contract atrio-ventricular valves.", "B": "They prevent the reflux of blood to the atria.", "C": "They avoid the eversion of the semilunar valves.", "D": "They form the interventricular septum.", "E": "They are formed by visceral smooth muscle." }, "Correct Answer": "They prevent the reflux of blood to the atria.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2555b529-4d68-4fe3-876f-0fd677ee9285", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The first level of heart rate and respiratory control is:", "Options": { "A": "The cerebral cortex", "B": "Spinal cord.", "C": "The cerebellum", "D": "The bulb.", "E": "The hypothalamus" }, "Correct Answer": "The bulb.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a935fb10-9adb-4ac8-8766-7b580a037138", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pulmonary surfactant:", "Options": { "A": "It is secreted by type I pneumocytes.", "B": "Stabilizes the alveoli.", "C": "Its main component is albumin.", "D": "Increases the surface tension of the alveolus.", "E": "It is only in the small alveoli." }, "Correct Answer": "Stabilizes the alveoli.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f205e89d-1a41-4d98-97a4-e0202ddd46d6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The functional residual capacity is volume:", "Options": { "A": "Residual plus expiratory reserve.", "B": "Pulmonary after forced expiration.", "C": "Residual.", "D": "Maximum that can be inspired.", "E": "Current plus expiratory reserve." }, "Correct Answer": "Residual plus expiratory reserve.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "df819015-a4cc-40e3-b8fb-1483a4401e59", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The stimulation of the carotid bodies:", "Options": { "A": "Decreases the pH of arterial blood.", "B": "PCO2 decreases in arterial blood.", "C": "Increases the arterial concentration of bicarbonate.", "D": "Increases the urinary excretion of sodium.", "E": "Lowers blood pressure" }, "Correct Answer": "PCO2 decreases in arterial blood.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ce2af7a2-2b92-4d45-8f49-a6a6fa45b8d2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that:", "Options": { "A": "It enters (or exits) the lungs in each breath.", "B": "It enters (or exits) in the airways every minute.", "C": "It remains in the alveoli after a normal expiration.", "D": "Enter (or exit) in the lung exchange zones in one minute", "E": "It remains in the alveoli after a forced expiration." }, "Correct Answer": "Enter (or exit) in the lung exchange zones in one minute", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0cb516a9-f269-44db-ba40-c6bf62f2fa7f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the thick ascending branch of the loop of Henle:", "Options": { "A": "Water is reabsorbed.", "B": "The tubular liquid is diluted.", "C": "Water reabsorption depends on ADH.", "D": "The reabsorption of urea depends on ADH.", "E": "Aldosterone stimulates Na + reabsorption." }, "Correct Answer": "The tubular liquid is diluted.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "aa72adc1-fae7-44bc-82ab-04b48d288d66", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the kidney, sympathetic stimulation increases:", "Options": { "A": "The renal excretion of sodium.", "B": "The renal excretion of water.", "C": "The radius of the afferent arteriole.", "D": "Glomerular filtration.", "E": "The release of renin." }, "Correct Answer": "The release of renin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "837aa4d6-b3d8-4a54-85c6-92f681a578e3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "ADH increases the osmolality of the renal interstitial medium because it increases:", "Options": { "A": "The permeability to urea in the collector tube.", "B": "The water permeability of the ascending loop of Henle.", "C": "The flow in the straight vessels.", "D": "The reabsorption of NaCl in the collecting tubule.", "E": "The renal excretion of water." }, "Correct Answer": "The permeability to urea in the collector tube.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1e8b506c-4f86-43c6-950e-829e84bf3a0f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In biliary secretion there are:", "Options": { "A": "Carboxypeptidase", "B": "Trypsin", "C": "Chymotrypsin", "D": "Lecithin.", "E": "Elatasa" }, "Correct Answer": "Lecithin.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "37b135e5-8d8d-467f-8d0e-4a08563f17ca", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main stimulus for secretion of secretin is the presence in the duodenum of:", "Options": { "A": "acid pH", "B": "Carbohydrates", "C": "Proteins", "D": "Hypoosmolar chimo.", "E": "Hyosmolar chyme." }, "Correct Answer": "acid pH", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a8d5718c-12de-4ba3-a334-84a3c304a494", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glucagon stimulates:", "Options": { "A": "Glycogen synthesis", "B": "Formation of fat deposits.", "C": "Protein synthesis.", "D": "Insulin secretion", "E": "Glucolysis" }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin secretion", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bd7f7039-2b93-40f6-ba1d-0ad9b44f576b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Somatomedin IGF-1 causes:", "Options": { "A": "Secretion of GHRH.", "B": "Protein catabolism.", "C": "Hyperglycemia", "D": "Activation of osteoblasts", "E": "GH secretion" }, "Correct Answer": "Activation of osteoblasts", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c93ff9c9-e640-4d42-833a-dbeca2850cb1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An increase in ACTH stimulates the synthesis and release of:", "Options": { "A": "Aldosterone", "B": "Cortisol", "C": "Thyroxine", "D": "CRH", "E": "TRH" }, "Correct Answer": "Cortisol", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "98decce5-91f1-4eb6-92b8-2cdb22aaff81", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Angiotensin II:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by the action of renin on angiotensin I.", "B": "Inhibits the secretion of aldosterone.", "C": "It inhibits the secretion of ADH.", "D": "Induces renal reabsorption of Na +.", "E": "Reduce thirst" }, "Correct Answer": "Induces renal reabsorption of Na +.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a9e53029-379d-4151-817d-3026f567509b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is under the control of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis the secretion of:", "Options": { "A": "Cortisol", "B": "Insulin.", "C": "Calcitonin", "D": "Glucagon.", "E": "Parathormone." }, "Correct Answer": "Cortisol", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "132a5f25-4835-484f-b8eb-e5c201a41d90", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The secretion of GH or growth hormone:", "Options": { "A": "It stops at 20 years old.", "B": "It last for ever.", "C": "During the day it is greater than at night.", "D": "It is stimulated by somatostatin.", "E": "It is stimulated by the substances." }, "Correct Answer": "It last for ever.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cc60e685-219d-4099-9e62-556ec49a5ddf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The anterior pituitary gland:", "Options": { "A": "It is part of the hypothalamus.", "B": "It is regulated hormonally.", "C": "It communicates with the neurohypophysis.", "D": "It releases ADH and oxytocin.", "E": "It is formed by neurons." }, "Correct Answer": "It is regulated hormonally.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "eb50ff2e-baa6-4cf4-b5fe-4ae6b627063f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Stimulates lipogenesis and glycogen synthesis:", "Options": { "A": "Insulin.", "B": "Glucagon.", "C": "Cortisol", "D": "Adrenalin.", "E": "GH" }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "aea518b7-35bc-4d78-8c61-6fefd77dcdae", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ribosomal proteins bind to the rRNA in the:", "Options": { "A": "Nuclear pore complex.", "B": "Cytoplasm.", "C": "Nucleoplasm.", "D": "Nucleolo.", "E": "Citosol" }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleolo.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ed75f65a-f6bf-461d-8235-dbed5f0cdb7a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Proteins that do not fold properly in the endoplasmic reticulum are degraded into:", "Options": { "A": "Golgi complex.", "B": "Endosomes", "C": "Lysosomes", "D": "Citosol", "E": "Nucleus." }, "Correct Answer": "Citosol", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "988e13b4-8eeb-421c-b04e-754d3b86f9b6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The synthesis of membrane phospholipids occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "Citosol", "B": "Polyribosomes", "C": "Endoplasmic reticulum.", "D": "Golgi complex.", "E": "Peroxisome" }, "Correct Answer": "Endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9ad18df2-0bde-4c0c-bf41-1f32d2f14256", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ARP2 / 3 complex:", "Options": { "A": "It is an intermediate filament nucleator agent.", "B": "It is located in the centrosome.", "C": "It is responsible for the branching of the actin filaments.", "D": "It is part of the nuclear sheet.", "E": "Involved in the formation of transport vesicles." }, "Correct Answer": "It is responsible for the branching of the actin filaments.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c3c713dd-653e-4910-a31f-c1474ed37f1c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The microvilli contain a beam of:", "Options": { "A": "Microtubules", "B": "Actin filaments.", "C": "Intermediate filaments", "D": "Spectrine", "E": "Collagen fibers." }, "Correct Answer": "Actin filaments.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9b4a681d-39c3-4c13-a711-a9b56141c13d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Anaphase A is characterized by the shortening of microtubules:", "Options": { "A": "Kinetochore", "B": "Polar", "C": "Interpolar", "D": "Astral", "E": "Longitudinal" }, "Correct Answer": "Kinetochore", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a9174d0b-0211-4fa8-a3a0-daf7388f7afa", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The p53 factor induces:", "Options": { "A": "Survival.", "B": "Proliferation.", "C": "Senescence", "D": "Apoptosis", "E": "Increase." }, "Correct Answer": "Apoptosis", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "01ee43fb-1ff5-4fba-81ba-31a98f464ad6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They join the epithelial cells to each other:", "Options": { "A": "Cadherins.", "B": "Integrins", "C": "Fibronectins.", "D": "Elastins.", "E": "Laminins" }, "Correct Answer": "Cadherins.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f05972aa-cc07-431d-b0da-1be70f802e7d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term \"own lamina\" is equivalent to:", "Options": { "A": "Basal sheet.", "B": "Internal elastic sheet.", "C": "Nuclear sheet.", "D": "Reticular sheet.", "E": "Loose connective tissue." }, "Correct Answer": "Loose connective tissue.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f0db09f0-f92e-46d9-aff5-95899050e315", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is absent from connective tissues:", "Options": { "A": "Goblet cell.", "B": "Adipocy", "C": "Mastocito", "D": "Lymphocyte", "E": "Eosinophilic" }, "Correct Answer": "Goblet cell.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7f62c2dd-b9f6-4927-8675-3d0da798419a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The feet of the following are an integral part of the blood-brain barrier:", "Options": { "A": "Astrocytes", "B": "Timocytes.", "C": "Podocytes", "D": "Ependymal cells.", "E": "Oligodendrocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Astrocytes", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "60aca655-21d1-4870-a6cc-b9eebd11c4c2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tissue is avascular:", "Options": { "A": "Epithelial.", "B": "Conjunctive.", "C": "Osseous.", "D": "Muscular.", "E": "Nervous." }, "Correct Answer": "Epithelial.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7ba0b7eb-3433-44d2-8992-162c2be6fd88", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Derived from blood monocytes:", "Options": { "A": "Protoplasmic astrocyte.", "B": "Fibrous astrocyte.", "C": "Oligodendrocyte", "D": "Microgliocyte", "E": "Satellite cell." }, "Correct Answer": "Microgliocyte", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "47b34d3e-815d-4830-af19-807a3fc098bc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The transmembrane proteins that bind to intracellular and extracellular proteins are:", "Options": { "A": "Ocludines.", "B": "Cadherins.", "C": "Actins.", "D": "Integrins", "E": "Desmocolinas." }, "Correct Answer": "Integrins", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "949b6540-c194-4f3a-b26c-c44264b2e8d2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Dense neat or patterned connective tissue is part of:", "Options": { "A": "Hemopoietic stroma.", "B": "Tendons", "C": "Digestive mucosa", "D": "Mucosa of the uterus.", "E": "Sclera" }, "Correct Answer": "Tendons", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d0b06aac-b953-4fd4-91ba-c8e20ece8867", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The intestinal villi:", "Options": { "A": "They extend throughout the entire intestine.", "B": "They are not in the large intestine.", "C": "They are visible only to the electron microscope.", "D": "They contain only absorbent cells.", "E": "They lack glasses in their own lamina." }, "Correct Answer": "They are not in the large intestine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a88eca6d-a299-4630-903e-cd1388597a09", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Merkel cells are:", "Options": { "A": "Secretors of neuropeptides and sensory.", "B": "Secretors of mucus.", "C": "Migratory", "D": "From Schwann.", "E": "Fibroblasts." }, "Correct Answer": "Secretors of neuropeptides and sensory.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d74e23aa-40b5-4319-80b6-c79a944370ca", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The secretion of the sebaceous glands is:", "Options": { "A": "Merocrine", "B": "Apocrine", "C": "Paracrine", "D": "Holocrine", "E": "Endocrine" }, "Correct Answer": "Holocrine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4525a024-4fe5-4da3-a0ce-9da8c078966f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has superficial cells with abundant glycogen:", "Options": { "A": "Language.", "B": "Esophagus.", "C": "Thin skin", "D": "Vagina.", "E": "Thick skin." }, "Correct Answer": "Vagina.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "691b8268-87c9-441b-b03c-8628d6cefb5b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The nucleosomes are:", "Options": { "A": "Only in hetrochromatin.", "B": "Only in euchromatin.", "C": "Only in the chromosomes.", "D": "In euchromatin, in heterochromatin and in chromosomes.", "E": "In all types of chromatin, but not in chromosomes." }, "Correct Answer": "In euchromatin, in heterochromatin and in chromosomes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7aa5e7d4-f6dc-42c5-a07a-f34b503d0eb7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Contains abundant glycogen:", "Options": { "A": "Hepatocytes", "B": "Plasma cells.", "C": "Lymphocytes", "D": "Baited cells.", "E": "Fibroblasts." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepatocytes", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "080a099a-b1a8-4094-9b70-b2244d2d9dc1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Dyneins are proteins:", "Options": { "A": "Motorboats", "B": "Responsible for the dynamism of the extracellular matrix.", "C": "Exclusive of the cilia.", "D": "Exclusives of the flagella.", "E": "Actin type" }, "Correct Answer": "Motorboats", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7a2f57b7-7f43-42f0-8252-ab82ac863884", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the receptor-mediated endocytosis intervenes:", "Options": { "A": "Only the clathrin.", "B": "Only the adaptin.", "C": "Adaptine and clathrin.", "D": "Chaperones", "E": "Only the proteins of the membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "Adaptine and clathrin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "df65cad2-3094-476b-9086-c0e6644c2a44", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Classify proteins and regulate their traffic to their cell destinations:", "Options": { "A": "Golgi apparatus.", "B": "Ribosomes", "C": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "D": "Mitochondria", "E": "Lysosomes" }, "Correct Answer": "Golgi apparatus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bffee9dd-61db-44bc-a4d9-982abbca9136", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In skeletal muscle, they have the capacity to regenerate, although limited, the cells:", "Options": { "A": "Of smaller size.", "B": "Satelite.", "C": "Endomysial fibroblasts.", "D": "Of the glia of the motor plates.", "E": "Anyone." }, "Correct Answer": "Satelite.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2d6903cd-552e-4e3b-a8c7-dfb557272705", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most important proteoglycan in hyaline cartilage is:", "Options": { "A": "Agrecano", "B": "Chondroitin sulfate 4.", "C": "Heparin.", "D": "Versicano", "E": "Dermatan sulfate." }, "Correct Answer": "Agrecano", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "58d4ab5f-6e87-4769-b9be-cf8c41672b4f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It allows to compare proportions of two independent samples the statistical test:", "Options": { "A": "From McNemar.", "B": "Of Snedecor.", "C": "Of the median.", "D": "Exact Fisher.", "E": "U of Mann-Whitney." }, "Correct Answer": "Exact Fisher.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bf2e1197-fde1-432a-acbe-6388eae2f342", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a 3% false-positive test is observed in a diagnostic test, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "The sensitivity is 97%.", "B": "The specificity is 97%.", "C": "The positive predictive value is 97%.", "D": "The specificity is 3%.", "E": "The sensitivity is 3%." }, "Correct Answer": "The specificity is 97%.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7c0ffd2b-56eb-4414-8bc3-88a85adb20da", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The arithmetic mean and not the median:", "Options": { "A": "It is a measurement of location.", "B": "All the values ​​of the sample are involved in its calculation.", "C": "It is dimensionless.", "D": "It is not influenced by extreme values.", "E": "None is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All the values ​​of the sample are involved in its calculation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1b3a0855-14c5-4bea-a722-4f56e46a4ecf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a hypothesis test, the beta error is called the probability of:", "Options": { "A": "Accept a null hypothesis being true.", "B": "Reject a null hypothesis being false.", "C": "Accept an alternative hypothesis being true.", "D": "Reject an alternative hypothesis being false.", "E": "Accept a null hypothesis being false." }, "Correct Answer": "Accept a null hypothesis being false.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7bd69b8b-d1f7-40b0-b3f5-61170116d49f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Are concepts that refer to the same probability the level of:", "Options": { "A": "Confidence and type II error:", "B": "Significance and type I error", "C": "Significance and specificity.", "D": "Confidence and sensitivity", "E": "Significance and type II error." }, "Correct Answer": "Significance and type I error", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "42fc7cf3-0112-47ec-b3a3-7ea589a731b1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "African trypanosomes (T. Rhodesiense and T. Gambiense) are transmitted by insects of the genus:", "Options": { "A": "Glossina", "B": "Triatoma.", "C": "Panstrongylus.", "D": "Rhodnius.", "E": "Phlebotomus." }, "Correct Answer": "Glossina", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fe58fd42-c297-4899-8566-46deef6b477a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizonts can be found in:", "Options": { "A": "Reticulocytes", "B": "Liver cells.", "C": "Renal cells", "D": "Lymphocytes", "E": "Eosinophils" }, "Correct Answer": "Liver cells.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2de1826d-b03e-4f24-ae9d-213a18646b75", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We can find sputum eggs of:", "Options": { "A": "Clonorchis sinensis.", "B": "Paragonimus westermani.", "C": "Hepatic fasciola.", "D": "Schistosoma japonicum.", "E": "Dicrocoelium dendriticum." }, "Correct Answer": "Paragonimus westermani.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8b4d4f17-1c2c-4dce-835d-7aad70cb67c4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The genus Anisakis is a:", "Options": { "A": "Digestive trematode.", "B": "Monogenetic trematode.", "C": "Nematode", "D": "Platelminto.", "E": "Arthropod." }, "Correct Answer": "Nematode", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3b834694-9958-43a3-9448-d62b8ec54a6c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The vector of tularemia is a / a:", "Options": { "A": "Coleoptera.", "B": "Louse.", "C": "Flea.", "D": "Tick.", "E": "Mosquito." }, "Correct Answer": "Tick.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ca787217-1af9-40f5-a3b5-242fa9ba0875", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In general, viruses that have a naked capsid:", "Options": { "A": "They are stable against drying.", "B": "They are commonly released from the host cell by budding.", "C": "They are very sensitive to detergents.", "D": "They are very sensitive to the conditions in the intestinal tract.", "E": "They can not be neutralized by host antibodies." }, "Correct Answer": "They are stable against drying.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e0859b7f-f351-4177-884a-dde1f9f7f333", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The virion of retroviruses:", "Options": { "A": "It has helical shape.", "B": "It has an icosahedral form.", "C": "It contains a single copy of its genome.", "D": "It contains two copies of its genome.", "E": "It contains a segmented genome." }, "Correct Answer": "It contains two copies of its genome.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d848a887-8f5e-4526-9b4c-d07b60cc6a89", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hepatitis B virus:", "Options": { "A": "It has circular double-stranded RNA as a genetic material.", "B": "It has circular single-stranded RNA as a genetic material.", "C": "It is transmitted by air.", "D": "Encode a reverse transcriptase.", "E": "It does not have tissue tropism." }, "Correct Answer": "Encode a reverse transcriptase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "574cd781-8390-4bc7-ae2b-f37ef9e9df33", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In latent human herpes simplex virus infections, viral particles typically remain in:", "Options": { "A": "Neurons.", "B": "The B lymphocytes", "C": "The T lymphocytes", "D": "The myeloid cells", "E": "The granulocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Neurons.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5629f5b9-ec22-42d4-895a-f5e421f364f6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The enzymes present inside the virion of the poxviruses are necessary for the replication of their genetic material because:", "Options": { "A": "Its genome is single-stranded DNA (-).", "B": "Its genome is single-stranded RNA (-).", "C": "They replicate in the cell cytoplasm.", "D": "It contains a very high percentage of unusual nitrogenous bases such as inosine.", "E": "At the beginning of the infection, a blockage of the transcriptional system of the host cell occurs." }, "Correct Answer": "They replicate in the cell cytoplasm.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cf3a047e-5568-4c91-b043-6b066e59c9e9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The virions of the Arenavirus contain:", "Options": { "A": "A linear single-stranded RNA molecule.", "B": "Two equal molecules of linear double-stranded RNA.", "C": "Two different molecules of linear single-stranded RNA.", "D": "Two distinct molecules of single-stranded circular RNA.", "E": "Two identical molecules of single-stranded circular RNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Two distinct molecules of single-stranded circular RNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "694ff8ef-9ff9-408f-9462-966186e0a22b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Inhibits the integrase of HIV the:", "Options": { "A": "Efavirenz.", "B": "Tenofovir", "C": "Ritonavir", "D": "Emtricitabine.", "E": "Raltegravir" }, "Correct Answer": "Raltegravir", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1cfe0f28-bd26-4c92-9d21-fe4289b9f03c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the coronaviurs, the assembly of the virions takes place in the (the):", "Options": { "A": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "B": "Mitochondrial matrix.", "C": "Nucleus.", "D": "Citosol", "E": "Cytoplasmic membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d47dcd92-0d12-4508-98c5-b38e8ed7aafb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The respiratory syncytial virus is a:", "Options": { "A": "Ortomixovirus.", "B": "Filovirus.", "C": "Parvovirus.", "D": "Togavirus.", "E": "Paramyxovirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Paramyxovirus.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1969ddc1-d8ac-4749-b1bf-e8caf0818787", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To multiply, the rhabdoviruses enter the host cell by:", "Options": { "A": "Viropexy", "B": "Endocytosis", "C": "Depopolimerization of the virion as a consequence of the interaction with the cellular receptor.", "D": "Direct translocation", "E": "Opsonic phagocytosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Endocytosis", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cc5cfec6-ef0c-411d-ade7-42ae49478c61", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "All RNA (-) viruses present:", "Options": { "A": "Segmented genome.", "B": "Lipid envelope.", "C": "Helical nucleocapsid", "D": "Icosahedral nucleocapsid.", "E": "Reverse transcriptase." }, "Correct Answer": "Lipid envelope.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ce76dbbc-e68f-4cbc-b4af-266f8ccd3a2f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They synthesize a single polyprotein precursor of all the proteins necessary for the rest of the multiplication cycle:", "Options": { "A": "Coronavirus.", "B": "Picornavirus", "C": "Rotavirus.", "D": "Paramyxovirus.", "E": "Calcivirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Picornavirus", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "da9ae25a-d8a9-47dc-b47f-05bf803636f7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following are zoonotic:", "Options": { "A": "Rotavirus.", "B": "Paramyxovirus.", "C": "Cytomegalovirus.", "D": "Arenavirus.", "E": "Parvovirus." }, "Correct Answer": "Arenavirus.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9416f476-18fd-4f0f-b064-1a4976b541c9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To replicate, paramyxoviruses must introduce their genetic material into the cell and one:", "Options": { "A": "DNA polymerase RNA dependent.", "B": "DNA polymerase dependent DNA.", "C": "RNA polymerase dependent RNA.", "D": "DNA polymerase dependent DNA.", "E": "They do not require the introduction of viral enzymes." }, "Correct Answer": "RNA polymerase dependent RNA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7a6465b2-0270-415b-8da6-a365d26570a9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reovirus .:", "Options": { "A": "They are released from the cell by budding.", "B": "They replicate their genetic material in the cell nucleus.", "C": "They have a lipid envelope.", "D": "They form virions resistant to acid pH.", "E": "They are transmitted by blood." }, "Correct Answer": "They form virions resistant to acid pH.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9227f9a5-1fb3-4659-9050-736378e69845", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most appropriate microscopy to identify Treponema pallidum in exudates from syphilitic lesions is:", "Options": { "A": "Clear field without staining.", "B": "Clear field with simple staining.", "C": "Dark field", "D": "Phase contrast.", "E": "Polarized light" }, "Correct Answer": "Dark field", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "18991940-17c3-48fa-bb92-d56f457853bd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acid-resistant alcohol staining is positive in bacteria of the genus:", "Options": { "A": "Mycoplasma.", "B": "Helicobacter", "C": "Borrelia.", "D": "Mycobacterium", "E": "Clostridium" }, "Correct Answer": "Mycobacterium", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0ea3942c-dd2e-4e82-87f0-6c008c2f099a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "HEPA filters are used for the sterilization of:", "Options": { "A": "Organic liquids", "B": "Air.", "C": "Culture broth", "D": "Antibiotics", "E": "Sugar solutions" }, "Correct Answer": "Air.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ceb62ae6-bf10-4424-8eb7-6dc00813b534", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If after 200 microliters of a 10-4 dilution (10 exp. -4) of a broth on an agar plate grows 100 colonies, the estimated number of colony forming units per mL of broth is:", "Options": { "A": "0.2 x 104", "B": "2 x 106", "C": "5 x 104", "D": "5 x 105", "E": "5 x 106" }, "Correct Answer": "5 x 106", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "346a540b-ec8f-40b5-86b2-3984dfe055e7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The non-selective medium commonly used for the growth of gonococcus (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) is:", "Options": { "A": "Chocolate agar.", "B": "Agar blood.", "C": "Mannitol saline agar.", "D": "Nutritious agar", "E": "MacConkey agar." }, "Correct Answer": "Chocolate agar.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bc85591e-a220-45e9-985a-8cf52c72f4e3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On a blood agar plate, a greenish or brown halo around a bacterial colony indicates that the bacteria produces:", "Options": { "A": "A siderophore.", "B": "α hemolysis.", "C": "Coagulase", "D": "β galactosidase.", "E": "Neutral metabolites" }, "Correct Answer": "α hemolysis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7f25c703-f8f7-4f4c-8d03-5cd90648040c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If, by adding a drop of H2O2 to a bacterial suspension, bubbles (O2) are generated, the bacteria produce:", "Options": { "A": "Cytochrome C oxidase.", "B": "Oxygenase", "C": "Superoxide dismutase.", "D": "Catalase", "E": "Anhydrase" }, "Correct Answer": "Catalase", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "12c3df37-04a3-4fb7-9efa-8b6070ad74fd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The component of the Gram-negative bacteria directly responsible for the endotoxic activity is:", "Options": { "A": "Lipid A.", "B": "The porinas.", "C": "The penicillin binding proteins.", "D": "The O antigen", "E": "The lipoproteins." }, "Correct Answer": "Lipid A.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b646c50e-a3ce-449a-9f55-0e3d32386ef5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A characteristic component of murein or peptidoglycan in most bacterial species is:", "Options": { "A": "The dipicolinic acid.", "B": "L-glutamic acid", "C": "The D-alanine.", "D": "The mannosamine.", "E": "The diaminoglycoside" }, "Correct Answer": "The D-alanine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ae835dc5-3397-4eb6-a040-c4982e88033e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The process of bacterial sporulation occurs:", "Options": { "A": "Both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.", "B": "After the depletion of certain essential nutrients.", "C": "When unfavorable environmental factors such as UV light or heat appear.", "D": "During the exponential growth.", "E": "By budding of a stem cell." }, "Correct Answer": "After the depletion of certain essential nutrients.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "afea0d22-467a-4a7e-8021-7811a0dc00aa", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The tetracyclines act on the:", "Options": { "A": "DNA polymerase", "B": "Transpeptidation of the peptidoglycan in the wall.", "C": "RNA polymeres", "D": "30S subunit of the ribosome.", "E": "DNA gyrase." }, "Correct Answer": "30S subunit of the ribosome.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d14a0f51-3e05-4d4d-8871-165563ba8483", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following are obtained only by chemical synthesis:", "Options": { "A": "Penicillins", "B": "Cephalosporins.", "C": "Macrolides", "D": "Aminoglycosides", "E": "Quinolones" }, "Correct Answer": "Quinolones", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ed1bd3e1-fa49-483d-9efc-c3ddb4047fa8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The phosphotransferase (PTS) system of many bacteria:", "Options": { "A": "It is commonly employed to incorporate medium sugars.", "B": "Participates in oxidative phosphorylation.", "C": "Participates in phosphorylation at the substrate level.", "D": "Consume directly ATP.", "E": "Dephosphorylates substrates as a step prior to transport." }, "Correct Answer": "It is commonly employed to incorporate medium sugars.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "53ca8f6b-0c6d-4a0b-9b96-c37810b44d24", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A plasmid contains necessarily:", "Options": { "A": "Genes of resistance to antibiotics.", "B": "Origin of replication.", "C": "Integrons", "D": "Genes of transfer by conjugation.", "E": "Transposons." }, "Correct Answer": "Origin of replication.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1e9c0578-05ea-45ee-a660-70a2318bf3a9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To control the expression of certain genes according to population density, bacteria use systems of:", "Options": { "A": "Strict response", "B": "Two components", "C": "Perception of the quorum.", "D": "Densitometric adaptation.", "E": "Negative activation" }, "Correct Answer": "Perception of the quorum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "967de3c2-14d6-4f69-bfed-acf01f81594d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Enterobacteriaceae are bacteria:", "Options": { "A": "Able to breathe and ferment.", "B": "Cytochrome C oxidase positive.", "C": "Mobiles with polar flagellation.", "D": "Lacking lipopolysaccharide.", "E": "Always associated with the intestine of mammals." }, "Correct Answer": "Able to breathe and ferment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8b1b73f1-5930-4bde-ba69-feaeda500254", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:", "Options": { "A": "Able to ferment a large variety of sugars.", "B": "Often resistant to many antibiotics for medical use.", "C": "Responsible for toxi-alimentary infections.", "D": "Part of the normal microbiota of the skin.", "E": "A commensal bacterium of the digestive tract." }, "Correct Answer": "Often resistant to many antibiotics for medical use.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e267a506-da66-4527-a442-fe0123367ed1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The producers of many antibiotics for medical use are:", "Options": { "A": "Myxobacteria", "B": "Cyanobacteria", "C": "Spirochetes", "D": "Streptomycetes", "E": "Alpha proteobacteria." }, "Correct Answer": "Streptomycetes", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "51b4d91c-9e9d-4655-8ff0-ac844ba01ead", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mycoplasmas:", "Options": { "A": "They do not contain phospholipids in their membrane.", "B": "They have a positive Gram type wall.", "C": "They contain mycolic acids.", "D": "They grow quickly in simple means.", "E": "They are naturally insensitive to penicillin." }, "Correct Answer": "They are naturally insensitive to penicillin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "dfb5e2da-aed6-4b3e-819c-3e3e87459cc3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Neisseria meningitidis is:", "Options": { "A": "A gram-negative bacillus.", "B": "Normally resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics.", "C": "An anaerobic coconut.", "D": "An encapsulated diplococcus.", "E": "Mobile by peritric flagellation." }, "Correct Answer": "An encapsulated diplococcus.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ce6e3b38-bd22-496b-934a-ab84c7f97af3", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In humans, Lactobacillus acidophilus is part of the normal microbiota of:", "Options": { "A": "The female genital tract", "B": "The bucco-pharynx.", "C": "The urinary tract", "D": "The skin.", "E": "The respiratory tract" }, "Correct Answer": "The female genital tract", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d4946f7e-a65c-4fd7-b8ff-59e319a658bc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Streptococcus sobrinus and Streptococcus mutants are responsible for:", "Options": { "A": "Dental cavities.", "B": "Burns infections.", "C": "Rheumatic fever", "D": "Atypical rhinitis.", "E": "Otitis stockings." }, "Correct Answer": "Dental cavities.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "fa870e93-be4d-402d-9888-546caad4ae7f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is an obligate intracellular pathogen:", "Options": { "A": "Neisseria gonorrhoeae.", "B": "Treponema pallidum", "C": "Chlamydia trachomatis.", "D": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "E": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Chlamydia trachomatis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "abc16a6e-3e09-4864-aba3-b9fc8ff351df", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is associated with gastric ulcers and cancers:", "Options": { "A": "Clostridium botulinum.", "B": "Yersinia enterocolitica.", "C": "Salmonella enterica", "D": "Helicobacter pylori.", "E": "Shigella sonnei." }, "Correct Answer": "Helicobacter pylori.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "60855aa9-18c3-4ca9-bfa4-b6cc3e791ab5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a Gram positive pathogen involved in pharyngitis and rheumatic fever:", "Options": { "A": "Staphylococcus aureus.", "B": "Micrococcus luteus.", "C": "Moraxella catarrhalis.", "D": "Haemophilus influenzae.", "E": "Streptococcus pyogenes." }, "Correct Answer": "Streptococcus pyogenes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "22e52eda-26dc-4977-9fe3-a5661ffe27ca", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are reservoirs of Q fever (Coxiella burnetti):", "Options": { "A": "Bats", "B": "Poultry.", "C": "Rodents", "D": "Dogs.", "E": "Cows, sheep and goats." }, "Correct Answer": "Cows, sheep and goats.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1aec978a-be3f-440f-9098-d5348a11f99f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a genus of strict anaerobic bacteria that produce endospores and that contain pathogenic species:", "Options": { "A": "Bacteroides.", "B": "Bacillus.", "C": "Clostridium", "D": "Corynebacterium", "E": "Mycobacterium" }, "Correct Answer": "Clostridium", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f1d588ac-75a7-4de8-882d-362beb27e626", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a disease caused by a pathogenic foodborne bacterium:", "Options": { "A": "The listeriosis", "B": "Lyme disease", "C": "Tularemia", "D": "Scarlet fever", "E": "The impetigo." }, "Correct Answer": "The listeriosis", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6bfcbf84-723b-44dd-99ac-27c6982d01a0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A rat pathogen that has fleas as vectors of transmission to humans is:", "Options": { "A": "Rickettsia rickettsii.", "B": "Yersinia pestis", "C": "Borrelia burgdorferi.", "D": "Ehrlichia ewingii.", "E": "Brucella abortus." }, "Correct Answer": "Yersinia pestis", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5295ec33-cc09-435b-a8c3-e845622a3d60", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A positive coagulase test is typical of:", "Options": { "A": "Staphylococcus aureus.", "B": "Staphylococcus epidermidis.", "C": "Haemophilus influenzae.", "D": "Neisseria meningitidis.", "E": "Escherichia coli" }, "Correct Answer": "Staphylococcus aureus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5f70c13b-d070-47fd-a515-7b0b357161b2", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Unlike receptors of adaptive immunity, those of innate immunity are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Have a clonal distribution.", "B": "Its greatest diversity", "C": "Be identical in cells of the same lineage.", "D": "Recognize and react against own molecules.", "E": "Being only on the cell surface." }, "Correct Answer": "Be identical in cells of the same lineage.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dac66da1-c23f-4cf0-bd00-4f7f9754a593", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Toll-like receptors (TLRs) mainly recognize:", "Options": { "A": "Proteins", "B": "Superantigens.", "C": "Non-polymorphic histocompatibility antigens.", "D": "Various components of microbes.", "E": "Tolerógenos." }, "Correct Answer": "Various components of microbes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e063b1b6-12ee-496c-8bcb-cbeaaa672128", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the characteristic components of the adaptive immune system are:", "Options": { "A": "The epithelial cells.", "B": "The macrophages.", "C": "The NK lymphocytes.", "D": "C-reactive protein", "E": "The B lymphocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "The B lymphocytes", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d9d65cf5-c6af-4c33-923d-6b8c77e9e105", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are primary lymphoid organs:", "Options": { "A": "Spleen and lymph nodes", "B": "The spleen and bone marrow.", "C": "The thymus and the bone marrow.", "D": "The pineal gland", "E": "Peyer's plates and tonsils." }, "Correct Answer": "The thymus and the bone marrow.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "61e6b0c1-4c89-4d50-8a11-49d30e577848", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Generates hydrogen peroxide in the phagosome:", "Options": { "A": "Myeloperoxidase", "B": "Carbonic anhydrase.", "C": "NADPH oxidase.", "D": "Cytochrome C oxidase.", "E": "Superoxide dismutase." }, "Correct Answer": "Superoxide dismutase.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a2b9c6de-8206-4a88-9e58-8add044dde27", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The complement is produced mostly in:", "Options": { "A": "Lymphocytes", "B": "Lymph nodes", "C": "Thymus", "D": "Spleen.", "E": "Liver." }, "Correct Answer": "Liver.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "79a263cb-6d5e-4816-976d-e94ebfd66961", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the activation of the serum complement, the assembly of the Membrane Attack Complex begins with:", "Options": { "A": "C9", "B": "C5b.", "C": "C3a.", "D": "C6", "E": "C8." }, "Correct Answer": "C5b.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f0ef9b73-ecb5-4c00-8f2e-48e27441960c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "HLA class I molecules are expressed in:", "Options": { "A": "Leukocytes", "B": "Erythrocytes", "C": "All nucleated cells.", "D": "Antigen presenting cells.", "E": "NK lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "All nucleated cells.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "de0e3b7b-59c7-44ec-a9dd-25dd8cc4255e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The class I genes of the Major Histocompatibility Complex:", "Options": { "A": "They are few", "B": "They are very polymorphic.", "C": "They express their alleles according to allelic exclusion.", "D": "They are expressed in all the cells of the organism.", "E": "They code glycolipids." }, "Correct Answer": "They are very polymorphic.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "caa33c19-1a4e-4252-9a92-ef0b12fa84fd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The loss of MHC class I makes the cells susceptible to lysis by:", "Options": { "A": "NK lymphocytes.", "B": "Tc lymphocytes.", "C": "Macrophages", "D": "Th lymphocytes", "E": "Complement." }, "Correct Answer": "NK lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a165ea86-77cc-4abd-ae53-306c82a165cf", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a costimulatory molecule that is expressed in the antigen-presenting cells:", "Options": { "A": "CD25.", "B": "CD20.", "C": "CD42.", "D": "CD18.", "E": "CD80." }, "Correct Answer": "CD80.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "91259de0-e5c7-4be4-a47d-3d69cde6f37d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD is observed for the first time in lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "Early Pro-B.", "B": "B mature.", "C": "Late Pro-B.", "D": "Pre-B.", "E": "B immature" }, "Correct Answer": "B mature.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6042dc19-83b0-4c3d-86db-ba1859afce48", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the process of maturation of the affinity of the B lymphocytes in the germinal centers, they act as accessory cells:", "Options": { "A": "Macrophages", "B": "Th1 lymphocytes.", "C": "Mastocytes", "D": "Follicular dendritic cells.", "E": "Langerhans cells." }, "Correct Answer": "Follicular dendritic cells.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e0bd7cea-2a07-4b97-a497-5d948f720d26", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What serum immunoglobulin will synthesize an activated B lymphocyte that has not been stimulated through CD40 ?:", "Options": { "A": "Any.", "B": "IgE", "C": "IgM", "D": "IgA", "E": "IgG" }, "Correct Answer": "IgM", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "29747b7d-d1b7-49f0-a245-ac56aa922c50", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "They are receptors involved in phagocytosis dependent on opsonization:", "Options": { "A": "KIR.", "B": "TLR1.", "C": "MR.", "D": "CR1", "E": "TCR" }, "Correct Answer": "CR1", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2511d331-f403-4134-8840-d6c172c98d07", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main mediators of the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicdiad are:", "Options": { "A": "The eosinophils.", "B": "The NK lymphocytes.", "C": "The mast cells", "D": "The neutrophils.", "E": "The CD8 + lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "The NK lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "dc0d2b4c-10c1-4301-95de-7e4498547565", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With the same affinity of its Fab, the avidity is:", "Options": { "A": "IgM", "B": "IgE", "C": "IgA", "D": "IgG", "E": "IgD." }, "Correct Answer": "IgM", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "127571af-283d-4835-b758-87dd3f7f1d17", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of chains of the IgG is:", "Options": { "A": "one.", "B": "two.", "C": "3.", "D": "Four.", "E": "5." }, "Correct Answer": "Four.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "79bb6574-8389-44c3-a16c-3a8fb444613e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Immunoglobulin isotype change affects:", "Options": { "A": "The constant regions of the heavy chains.", "B": "The constant regions of the light chains.", "C": "The totality of heavy chains.", "D": "The entire immunoglobulin molecule.", "E": "The hypervariable regions of the heavy chains." }, "Correct Answer": "The constant regions of the heavy chains.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d32a72f5-2ce6-4522-8011-87d585007e1e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The so-called poly-Ig receptor:", "Options": { "A": "Facilitates the transport of IgA through the mucosal epithelium.", "B": "Mediates the transport of IgG through the placenta.", "C": "Stabilizes the polymer structure of an IgM.", "D": "It is expressed on the surface of B lymphocytes.", "E": "It is expressed on the surface of tissue macrophages." }, "Correct Answer": "Facilitates the transport of IgA through the mucosal epithelium.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9b9510f9-d089-4e9f-8fb5-7a787804c6b7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an indirect ELISA (\"Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay\"):", "Options": { "A": "The antigen must be previously denatured.", "B": "Specific antibodies can be quantified.", "C": "The antigen is \"sandwiched\" between two antibody preparations.", "D": "The antibody specific for the antigen is conjugated to an enzyme.", "E": "Antigens are quantified in solution." }, "Correct Answer": "Specific antibodies can be quantified.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2f989baa-d66d-49c8-a6aa-2b35c2b1db5a", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The humanized antibodies:", "Options": { "A": "They have very low affinity.", "B": "They contain CDRs of a mouse monoclonal antibody.", "C": "They have totally murine VH and VL domains.", "D": "They have totally human VH and VL domains.", "E": "They have human light chains." }, "Correct Answer": "They contain CDRs of a mouse monoclonal antibody.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "13cc4f30-db0e-4cd9-8cd0-f9aa07d4ab0d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a Th1 cytokine:", "Options": { "A": "IL-1.", "B": "IL-2.", "C": "IL-3.", "D": "IL-4.", "E": "IL-5" }, "Correct Answer": "IL-2.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6200370c-013e-4ff5-9f40-32339f2f0f8d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "IL-10 is a cytokine:", "Options": { "A": "Immunosuppressant.", "B": "Proinflammatory", "C": "Associated with Th2 responses.", "D": "Which activates Th1 lymphocytes.", "E": "Produced by CD8 lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Immunosuppressant.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a7de7c14-5efa-482a-8b1f-06b467f6b304", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Immediate hypersensitivity reactions or allergy are mediated by:", "Options": { "A": "Autoantibodies", "B": "Antigen-antibody complexes.", "C": "IgE", "D": "Th1 lymphocytes.", "E": "Th17 lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "IgE", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cb537126-d1f1-4b58-8b1a-9b5bf0b12394", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The majority of regulatory T lymphocytes express high levels of:", "Options": { "A": "Molecules of the B7 family.", "B": "CD8.", "C": "The alpha chain of the receptor for IL-2.", "D": "IL-17.", "E": "Perforin" }, "Correct Answer": "The alpha chain of the receptor for IL-2.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5fcb25a5-4a92-4ff4-8e1c-0dfed3b1741f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "T-independent antigens:", "Options": { "A": "They are mostly proteins.", "B": "They induce maturation of the affinity of the specific antibodies.", "C": "Induce isotype change of specific antibodies.", "D": "They are usually polymeric antigens.", "E": "They induce intense secondary responses." }, "Correct Answer": "They are usually polymeric antigens.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e3ac21ae-9f53-46ae-80c5-55d61e9aa532", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR):", "Options": { "A": "Experience change of class.", "B": "Does not experience affinity maturation.", "C": "It transmits signals to the T lymphocyte on its own.", "D": "It has two sites of antigen recognition such as antibodies.", "E": "Performs effector functions mediated by its constant regions." }, "Correct Answer": "Does not experience affinity maturation.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8fc09cd4-66d7-42df-af9a-b67d7b0a1169", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Th1 lymphocytes:", "Options": { "A": "They produce interferon gamma (IFN-γ).", "B": "They mediate allergic diseases.", "C": "Activate mast cells", "D": "They are very active against extracellular bacteria.", "E": "They recruit neutrophils at the sites of antigen recognition." }, "Correct Answer": "They produce interferon gamma (IFN-γ).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "87fd1d4e-f3de-4ac2-9277-fcb4d1da9148", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From a tissue to which oligomycin is added, it can be expected that:", "Options": { "A": "Consume oxygen and produce ATP.", "B": "Do not consume oxygen and produce ATP.", "C": "Consume oxygen and do not produce ATP.", "D": "Increase the production of ATP.", "E": "Neither consume oxygen nor produce ATP." }, "Correct Answer": "Neither consume oxygen nor produce ATP.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8316e1eb-baf7-4e3e-8c97-42e1bbad4748", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The exergonic reactions of metabolism:", "Options": { "A": "Consume free energy.", "B": "They are thermodynamically favorable.", "C": "They are always quick reactions.", "D": "They do not require the action of enzymes.", "E": "They have high values ​​of activation energy." }, "Correct Answer": "They are thermodynamically favorable.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0048a137-fac8-4758-99db-78b830748db1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Stimulates the separation of DNA strands during replication:", "Options": { "A": "Primasa", "B": "DNA ligase.", "C": "The single chain DNA binding proteins.", "D": "Helicasa", "E": "DNA polymerase I." }, "Correct Answer": "Helicasa", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5de48cd7-d34f-4e7c-98a3-b94efea2187d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has been transcribed and it is also translated:", "Options": { "A": "mRNA.", "B": "rRNA.", "C": "Introns", "D": "tRNA.", "E": "Promoter." }, "Correct Answer": "mRNA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b93167f8-6ba8-4d18-be92-6bebd3dfb523", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The promoter region of a gene is:", "Options": { "A": "The place of completion of the transcript.", "B": "The binding site of RNA polymerase during the initiation of mRNA synthesis.", "C": "The place of recognition to process primary transcripts.", "D": "A sequence located in the 5 'region of all mRNAs to initiate translation.", "E": "A sequence that is eliminated during RNA splicing." }, "Correct Answer": "The binding site of RNA polymerase during the initiation of mRNA synthesis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9e075477-79ee-4ba4-9bd7-15eeba516f67", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the respiratory chain:", "Options": { "A": "Ferrosulfurized proteins contain heme groups.", "B": "The heme groups are in carotenoids.", "C": "Cytochromes contain iron and sulfur groups.", "D": "Ubiquinones transport protons and electrons.", "E": "All transporters carry two electrons." }, "Correct Answer": "Ubiquinones transport protons and electrons.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a3083357-fbdb-459d-ace3-fd5686a5a1e4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is an amino acid whose side chain contains an amine:", "Options": { "A": "Lysine", "B": "Glutamine", "C": "Cysteine", "D": "Serina", "E": "To the girl." }, "Correct Answer": "Lysine", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7f8bce7c-b5c2-495c-92c7-d9c09551825e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the absence of oxygen, the mitochondrial citric acid cycle is inhibited because:", "Options": { "A": "Increases the concentration of ADP, an inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase.", "B": "The phosphorylations at the substrate level can not be produced.", "C": "No pyruvate available.", "D": "ATP synthase is inhibited.", "E": "The necessary coenzymes can not be reoxidized." }, "Correct Answer": "The necessary coenzymes can not be reoxidized.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d993294c-d933-4580-9ca1-f3c008ae9818", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ketogenic amino acids:", "Options": { "A": "They may contribute to the synthesis of glucose.", "B": "They are intermediaries of the urea cycle.", "C": "They are the substrate of reactions catalyzed by transketolase.", "D": "They can produce acetyl-coenzyme A.", "E": "They are eliminated in the form of ketoses." }, "Correct Answer": "They can produce acetyl-coenzyme A.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0f79301f-2fc8-454a-8b05-4503a553e6eb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The chemosmotic theory:", "Options": { "A": "It was proposed by Singer and Nicholson.", "B": "Explains the mechanism of phosphorylation at the substrate level.", "C": "It requires that the membranes in which it forms are closed compartments.", "D": "It does not explain the synthesis of ATP in photosynthesis.", "E": "It has nothing to do with redox reactions." }, "Correct Answer": "It requires that the membranes in which it forms are closed compartments.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "70984b86-e76e-41be-a342-c0fccb4f8ee1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Gluconeogenesis is active in:", "Options": { "A": "Brain and nervous tissue.", "B": "Liver and renal cortex.", "C": "Erythrocytes", "D": "Testicles and renal medulla.", "E": "Skeletal muscle" }, "Correct Answer": "Liver and renal cortex.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ce4afcc5-7d43-4bca-bdd3-d707c4a4830c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Creatine phosphate:", "Options": { "A": "It is a low-energy hydrolysis compound.", "B": "It is a compound of energy storage in the kidney.", "C": "It is formed from ornithine.", "D": "It is a compound of energy storage in the muscle.", "E": "It is formed from tyrosine." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a compound of energy storage in the muscle.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4f8c8c94-d26b-4ff2-8c78-11d0359f0584", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cause of phenylketonuria is a hereditary deficit of:", "Options": { "A": "Homogentisate dioxygenase.", "B": "Tyrosine aminotransferase.", "C": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase.", "D": "Dihydropteridine oxidase.", "E": "Tryptophan dioxygenase." }, "Correct Answer": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d703fef6-f57e-4341-84ed-ead6ed5c198d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Von Gierke's disease is an enzyme deficit:", "Options": { "A": "Muscle glycogen phosphorylase.", "B": "Branching enzyme.", "C": "Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase.", "D": "Glucose 6-phosphatase.", "E": "Glycogen synthase." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucose 6-phosphatase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8048f4e1-76c7-40a5-b45f-7fb3388f5cf4", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For humans, the essential amino acids are:", "Options": { "A": "All proteins.", "B": "The non-protein.", "C": "The basic pH7.", "D": "Those that are not substrates of any transaminase.", "E": "Those who do not synthesize them." }, "Correct Answer": "Those who do not synthesize them.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "543fd7de-b544-4da8-a8b3-88c5e6331bd0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It keeps the strands of the DNA duplex separated during replication:", "Options": { "A": "Primasa", "B": "DNA ligase.", "C": "SSB protein.", "D": "Helicasa", "E": "DNA Polymerase I." }, "Correct Answer": "SSB protein.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "56c0f39e-2fbc-4981-a480-eb17cf87852e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In glycolysis:", "Options": { "A": "Hexokinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to different hexoses.", "B": "Phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes a reaction that provides ATP.", "C": "All intermediates are phosphorylated compounds of six carbons.", "D": "It provides ATP, but it does not use it.", "E": "Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor." }, "Correct Answer": "Hexokinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to different hexoses.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "01cd23a6-aca6-457f-80f7-00232d48c669", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Enzymatic regulation by reversible covalent modification:", "Options": { "A": "It involves the breaking of the peptide bond.", "B": "It requires the action of another enzyme.", "C": "It always involves phosphorylation reaction.", "D": "It never affects allosteric enzymes.", "E": "The enzyme never comes in two forms." }, "Correct Answer": "It requires the action of another enzyme.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3a7c84ce-5ca7-41b3-9a40-75169aeffba5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Does not block the flow of electrons in oxidative phosphorylation:", "Options": { "A": "Cyanide.", "B": "Antimycin A.", "C": "CO.", "D": "2,4-DNP.", "E": "Amital." }, "Correct Answer": "2,4-DNP.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cfadefb8-5d4f-40a5-9cd8-26e2a640d927", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glucagon and adrenaline have in common:", "Options": { "A": "Activate the degradation of glycogen in liver and muscle.", "B": "Facilitate the entry of glucose into all cells of the body.", "C": "Activate the synthesis of fatty acids.", "D": "Always free yourself to the blood.", "E": "Activate glycolysis." }, "Correct Answer": "Activate the degradation of glycogen in liver and muscle.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e480926b-92e7-481c-94a0-9e8796d1b3b9", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In general, allosteric enzymes:", "Options": { "A": "They join the effectors in the active center.", "B": "They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors.", "C": "They originate hyperbolic curves of speed versus substrate concentration.", "D": "They change their conformation when they join the effectors.", "E": "They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited." }, "Correct Answer": "They change their conformation when they join the effectors.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "437f3b26-5046-4a1a-8863-126906cd7fad", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "RNA polymerases are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Begin RNA synthesis without the need for primers.", "B": "Synthesize RNA in the 3 '-> 5' direction.", "C": "A lower error rate than DNA polymerases.", "D": "Incorporate ribonucleotides without the need for a mold.", "E": "Enter T instead of U." }, "Correct Answer": "Begin RNA synthesis without the need for primers.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3b902c6d-1fd5-4deb-b119-6bb98dcea469", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Topoisomerases:", "Options": { "A": "They modify the degree of DNA supercoiling.", "B": "They are a type of DNA polymerases.", "C": "They bind to the single-stranded DNA to prevent the double helix from forming.", "D": "They exhibit exonuclease activity.", "E": "They synthesize dNTPs." }, "Correct Answer": "They modify the degree of DNA supercoiling.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "efd05058-2da8-444c-af89-e7ca1e35b205", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Urea:", "Options": { "A": "It is transported to the liver for elimination.", "B": "It is degraded to ammonium in the urea cycle.", "C": "It is apolar and easily forms crystals.", "D": "It is obtained from arginine.", "E": "It has two ketone groups and one amino group." }, "Correct Answer": "It is obtained from arginine.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3ce05ce8-580b-49a2-99e6-69224f02d2ba", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Each cycle of oxidation of fatty acids:", "Options": { "A": "Consume two molecules of NADH.", "B": "It generates two molecules of FADH2.", "C": "It produces a dehydration.", "D": "Releases an acetyl-CoA.", "E": "Consume ATP." }, "Correct Answer": "Releases an acetyl-CoA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ea35181e-a4e6-4af3-b5d5-3c5d0d1d39a8", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "ATP synthase:", "Options": { "A": "It generates ATP by a mechanism of rotational catalysis.", "B": "It is found in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "It synthesizes ATP when electrons flow through it.", "D": "It presents an electron channel.", "E": "Consume ATP by hydrolysis coupled to electron transport." }, "Correct Answer": "It generates ATP by a mechanism of rotational catalysis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3080b20c-1d94-4d3a-8d04-b17faf33000e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the stages of the citric acid cycle, it is required:", "Options": { "A": "NADP +.", "B": "FAD.", "C": "Acetyl-coenzyme A carboxylase.", "D": "Glucose.", "E": "At least one transaminase." }, "Correct Answer": "FAD.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a0d53f9a-1dd6-4099-9e0d-6ef0102a9db1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The soluble globular proteins are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Present aromatic and aliphatic amino acids on its surface.", "B": "Present an inner apolar core.", "C": "Being partially deployed giving rise to structures that are not very compact.", "D": "Present in its interior acidic and basic amino acids.", "E": "A high degree of hydration inside." }, "Correct Answer": "Present an inner apolar core.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d0f2a38f-bffd-4b6e-b9ad-b641e829025c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase:", "Options": { "A": "Catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation.", "B": "It is a monomeric enzyme of low molecular mass.", "C": "It is located in the cytoplasm.", "D": "Catalyzes the production of ethanol.", "E": "Consume ATP." }, "Correct Answer": "Catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "47688ac5-3148-4600-b900-c68cfd0a9f52", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Phosphofructokinase-1:", "Options": { "A": "Participates in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.", "B": "It catalyzes an easily reversible reaction.", "C": "It is an enzyme with allosteric regulation.", "D": "Directly transfers a Pi to fructose6P.", "E": "Produce ATP." }, "Correct Answer": "It is an enzyme with allosteric regulation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e9df9f76-2ff6-4c6e-90b8-9f9c89c86481", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cyclization of monosaccharides:", "Options": { "A": "It is an enzymatically catalyzed reaction.", "B": "It gives rise to enantiomers D and L.", "C": "It happens in the trios and tetrosas.", "D": "Generates a new asymmetric C, called anomeric C.", "E": "In ketoses it is produced by the formation of a hemiacetal bond." }, "Correct Answer": "Generates a new asymmetric C, called anomeric C.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7d971ba5-8e79-4b17-aa3d-a7facdf997df", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "D-glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone:", "Options": { "A": "They present an asymmetric carbon.", "B": "They are aldosas.", "C": "They are enantiomers.", "D": "They present optical activity.", "E": "They have the same formula." }, "Correct Answer": "They have the same formula.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e285cd75-5081-4979-9310-17b2226ea9be", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The activation energy of a reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It is not modified by the action of enzymes.", "B": "It is the energy necessary to reach the state of transition.", "C": "It is lower than the energy of the substrates.", "D": "It is lower than the energy of the products.", "E": "It is an average of the value of ΔG of the reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the energy necessary to reach the state of transition.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3b1a06e1-1725-428b-9789-efa9478c7513", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is characteristic of the alpha helix:", "Options": { "A": "Present 3.6 amino acid residues per turn.", "B": "Be levorotatory", "C": "Be stabilized by intrachain disulfide bridges.", "D": "Present ionic bonds between amino and ketone groups loaded with peptide bonds.", "E": "Have the side chains of the amino acids inwards." }, "Correct Answer": "Present 3.6 amino acid residues per turn.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ef8e4b39-deff-440e-a658-6b6144a42a06", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The denaturation of proteins:", "Options": { "A": "It is accompanied by the loss of their activity.", "B": "It supposes the rupture of peptide bonds.", "C": "It is always an irreversible process.", "D": "Alter its primary structure.", "E": "It is carried out by chaperone proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "It is accompanied by the loss of their activity.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5b8ce1bf-6149-4bf1-8d26-210b778ab84f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The conversion of pyruvate into ethanol and CO2 by yeasts:", "Options": { "A": "It produces an extra amount of ATP.", "B": "Reduce the NAD +.", "C": "Reoxidates the NADPH that forms in glycolysis.", "D": "It allows glycolysis to continue even in the absence of oxygen.", "E": "Allows CO2 to be used in the synthesis of fatty acids." }, "Correct Answer": "It allows glycolysis to continue even in the absence of oxygen.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "286a5e89-76ce-4bb4-827e-a25ca0b2c66c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The completion of the translation:", "Options": { "A": "It takes place in AUG codons.", "B": "It is produced by incorporation of an empty tRNA.", "C": "It occurs when the ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA.", "D": "It does not consume energy.", "E": "It is mediated by proteins with structure similar to tRNA." }, "Correct Answer": "It is mediated by proteins with structure similar to tRNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8a7670f7-657d-4f49-ab7f-2f98d2cf5866", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is well associated with its function:", "Options": { "A": "Ribosomal RNA - messenger preRNA processing.", "B": "Messenger RNA - amino acid binding.", "C": "MicroRNA - inhibition of the translation of messenger RNA.", "D": "Transfer RNA - structural component of the ribosome.", "E": "Small interference RNA - processing of ribosomal RNA." }, "Correct Answer": "MicroRNA - inhibition of the translation of messenger RNA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b2340686-2b77-4d92-937a-f7fb3af158f6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In eukaryotes, the DNA polymerase β:", "Options": { "A": "It is a polymerase of family B.", "B": "It carries out the synthesis and repair of mitochondrial DNA.", "C": "Replicate DNA with injuries.", "D": "It is involved in the repair of nuclear DNA.", "E": "The synthesis of nuclear DNA begins." }, "Correct Answer": "It is involved in the repair of nuclear DNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c204c360-ec77-42b6-a410-64d9af18b8eb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the analysis of a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that:", "Options": { "A": "The trait appears more frequently in males.", "B": "The unaffected people do not transmit the trait.", "C": "The trait tends to skip generations.", "D": "The affected people have both affected parents.", "E": "The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents." }, "Correct Answer": "The unaffected people do not transmit the trait.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a043105a-a4ce-4805-b841-e63e021fd98e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What effect would chromatin have on neutralizing the positive charge of histones ?:", "Options": { "A": "The DNA would change charge.", "B": "Histones would bind more closely to DNA.", "C": "The DNA would be supercoiled.", "D": "The histones would separate from the DNA.", "E": "The histones would be grouped together." }, "Correct Answer": "The histones would separate from the DNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "948959c0-4d0a-467d-add3-a023093efedd", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of ploidy defines an individual 2n2 ?:", "Options": { "A": "Double monosomy.", "B": "Tetrasomy", "C": "Trisomy", "D": "Nulisomy", "E": "Triploidy" }, "Correct Answer": "Nulisomy", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "da4ae819-94e7-4a67-9bf3-3998983dfa47", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Under physiological conditions, the secondary structure of the most frequent DNA in the cells is:", "Options": { "A": "B-DNA.", "B": "Z-DNA.", "C": "A-DNA.", "D": "G-DNA.", "E": "H-DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "B-DNA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2f97061e-116b-480a-8673-d12b8146ac43", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Corresponds to a gene mutation by transversion:", "Options": { "A": "T → C.", "B": "A → T.", "C": "G → A.", "D": "C → T.", "E": "A → G." }, "Correct Answer": "A → T.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ebeba053-7ee5-45a6-a0f0-e0d60f1300ad", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A neutral gene mutation:", "Options": { "A": "Change a coding codon by another synonym without altering the amino acid sequence of the protein.", "B": "A coding codon changes with a different one and the protein is functionally different.", "C": "It generates a non-functional protein.", "D": "It changes the amino acid sequence of the protein without altering its function.", "E": "Suppresses the effect of a previous mutation." }, "Correct Answer": "It changes the amino acid sequence of the protein without altering its function.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8e9d4a11-dc7a-4a6f-8013-d21437c86811", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The approximate percentage of the human genome that encodes proteins is a:", "Options": { "A": "25%", "B": "10%", "C": "two%", "D": "6%", "E": "8%" }, "Correct Answer": "two%", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0af0c37b-0ae7-4121-b0eb-34db00f5a9e0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In DNA the sequences of 10 to 60 nucleotides repeated in tandem are called:", "Options": { "A": "Pseudogenes", "B": "LINES.", "C": "SINES", "D": "Microsatellites", "E": "Minisatellites." }, "Correct Answer": "Minisatellites.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4663fcee-adc8-4002-bafb-fa65df167bbc", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Secondary chromosomal constrictions contain:", "Options": { "A": "Single sequence DNA", "B": "Ribosomal genes.", "C": "Genes micro-RNAs.", "D": "Centromeric DNA.", "E": "Genes of histomnas." }, "Correct Answer": "Ribosomal genes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8fed0c51-c9c9-48cc-9f89-b51eba6a230e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The set of all the RNA molecules of a cell transcribed from a genome are called:", "Options": { "A": "Proteome", "B": "Metagenome", "C": "Transcriptome.", "D": "Mebaoloma", "E": "Methyloma" }, "Correct Answer": "Transcriptome.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "51096ee5-6538-46b8-8c55-893de1ef22cb", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To detect small deletions or duplications at the genomic level, the technique of choice would be:", "Options": { "A": "Karyotype of bands G.", "B": "Genomic microarrays.", "C": "Expression microarrays.", "D": "PCR", "E": "RT-PCR." }, "Correct Answer": "Genomic microarrays.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4ca82632-5f73-46de-bceb-eb89e4dcfaa0", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The R-bands of human metaphase chromosomes:", "Options": { "A": "They contain DNA rich in AT pairs.", "B": "They have high gene density.", "C": "They contain poor DNA in GC pairs.", "D": "They replicate at the end of phase S.", "E": "They have low gene density." }, "Correct Answer": "They have high gene density.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d816e9bb-9738-4890-a72a-ba226c297685", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "ASO-PCR is a technique of:", "Options": { "A": "Detection of mutations without identifying the type.", "B": "Detection of specific mutations.", "C": "Sequencing", "D": "DNA amplification.", "E": "Molecular cytogenetics" }, "Correct Answer": "Detection of specific mutations.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8e2bf09a-027f-4917-8681-12ecb31bd838", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The phase of meiosis where the pairs of homologous chromosomes are aligned along the equatorial plane is called:", "Options": { "A": "Profase I.", "B": "Metaphase II.", "C": "Profase II.", "D": "Metaphase I.", "E": "Prometaphase I." }, "Correct Answer": "Metaphase I.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ca6b17f3-76ba-4ecd-92c2-d6a7fd45b40b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many DNA molecules does a diploid cell contain 2n = 46 during the G2 phase ?:", "Options": { "A": "92", "B": "2. 3.", "C": "46", "D": "44", "E": "twenty-one." }, "Correct Answer": "92", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "117acb15-501a-4a61-9998-688d5057b218", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of epistasia explains the dihybrid phenotypic ratio of 13: 3 ?:", "Options": { "A": "Double dominant.", "B": "Simple recessive", "C": "Recessive dominant double.", "D": "Double recessive", "E": "Simple dominant." }, "Correct Answer": "Recessive dominant double.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "82435bab-afaf-4b68-bbf6-7581e9e3e138", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which vector would be used to clone a DNA fragment up to 15 Kb ?:", "Options": { "A": "BAC.", "B": "Plasmid", "C": "Cosmic", "D": "YAK.", "E": "Phage" }, "Correct Answer": "Plasmid", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "68b4b0a5-2bfb-41dd-b2e0-3b9d1a9feb57", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A karyotype 45, XX, rob (15; 21) (q10; q10) can correspond to:", "Options": { "A": "A girl with Down syndrome with a Robertsonian translocation.", "B": "A girl with Angelman syndrome.", "C": "A healthy woman with a Robertsonian translocation.", "D": "A healthy woman with Turner syndrome.", "E": "A healthy male carrier of a Robertsonian translocation." }, "Correct Answer": "A healthy woman with a Robertsonian translocation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9bba04f6-9018-4080-ab37-127fd8bcdf5f", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The three human chromosomes estimated to contain fewer genes are:", "Options": { "A": "21, 22 and Y.", "B": "18, 22 and Y.", "C": "18, 21 and Y.", "D": "13, 21 and Y.", "E": "13, 22 and Y." }, "Correct Answer": "18, 21 and Y.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "893707dc-bc98-4007-8a68-d322e19785b1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The repeated sequence of human telomeres is:", "Options": { "A": "5'-GGGATT-3'.", "B": "3'-CCCTAA-5'.", "C": "5'-CCCCAA-5 '.", "D": "5'-CCTTAA-3.", "E": "5'-CCCTAA-3 '." }, "Correct Answer": "5'-CCCTAA-3 '.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b8a2b23e-12be-4d75-a06a-bdae1981d187", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What hormone causes ovulation ?:", "Options": { "A": "The FSH.", "B": "The LH.", "C": "Estrogens", "D": "Progesterone", "E": "The prostaglandins." }, "Correct Answer": "The LH.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "62b01a92-5057-485a-85d5-dba55366af3c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Usually the training of sperm occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "The seminiferous tubules.", "B": "The epididymis", "C": "The male urethra.", "D": "The vagina", "E": "The uterus." }, "Correct Answer": "The uterus.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0f55d647-0846-4c64-a03e-73d5f46a0d84", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The floor of the amniotic cavity is:", "Options": { "A": "Trophoblast.", "B": "Hypoblast.", "C": "Epiblast", "D": "Endometrium", "E": "Myometrium" }, "Correct Answer": "Epiblast", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "50d8fd66-5447-45ad-84aa-f5cd2e0dccd6", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The first morphological sign of human gastrulation is:", "Options": { "A": "Formation of the neural tube.", "B": "Formation of the primitive line.", "C": "Implantation.", "D": "Compaction", "E": "Ovulation." }, "Correct Answer": "Formation of the primitive line.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ef62390e-ecdf-4fa4-9538-6ce83859817b", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Inhibin:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibits the secretion of FSH.", "B": "Blocks the secretion of estrogen.", "C": "Stimulates the secretion of GnRH.", "D": "The adenohypophysis produces it.", "E": "Stimulates the secretion of LH." }, "Correct Answer": "Inhibits the secretion of FSH.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8f9bf267-76f4-4131-bee0-94ea2561ddf5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Neuraminidase of the influenza virus:", "Options": { "A": "It is found inside the capsid and is released after entering the cell.", "B": "Its function is to facilitate the encapsulation of genetic material.", "C": "It is one of the spicules of the envelope.", "D": "It is not antigenic.", "E": "It facilitates the adsorption of the virus to the cell." }, "Correct Answer": "It is one of the spicules of the envelope.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9dd2c161-2cfb-425a-8245-21230eb925d1", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Bacteria of the species Haemophilus influenzae:", "Options": { "A": "They grow in the middle of MacConkey.", "B": "Causes meningitis in children.", "C": "They are anaerobic Gram positive bacilli.", "D": "They are anaerobic Gram positive cocci.", "E": "They are hemolytic." }, "Correct Answer": "Causes meningitis in children.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "496416ec-b254-4784-ae4c-722b276d6aa7", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Somatic recombination for the generation of diversity in B lymphocytes occurs in:", "Options": { "A": "Bone marrow.", "B": "Ganglion.", "C": "Peripherally blood.", "D": "Thymus", "E": "Spleen." }, "Correct Answer": "Bone marrow.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eba50a7d-b2ca-475c-9c48-452e01d04d1d", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The typical red cells of sickle cell anemia are:", "Options": { "A": "Dianocitos.", "B": "Drepanocytes", "C": "Dacryocytes", "D": "Ovalocitos.", "E": "Acanthocytes" }, "Correct Answer": "Drepanocytes", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9dd18e1f-325d-4322-837b-978324f9a548", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a stop codon for translation:", "Options": { "A": "AUG.", "B": "UAU", "C": "UUU", "D": "UAC.", "E": "UAA" }, "Correct Answer": "UAA", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "91cc3595-33e4-4a75-807b-f72247256c6c", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Histidine is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Present an indole group in its structure.", "B": "Present a unique N in its structure.", "C": "A side chain of aromatic character.", "D": "A side chain that can take or release protons at physiological pH.", "E": "Being a protein involved in inflammation." }, "Correct Answer": "A side chain that can take or release protons at physiological pH.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "19674ea8-cc51-403f-8b1b-2a66d50738a5", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cells of the seminiferous tubules that support and nourish the germ cells are:", "Options": { "A": "The cells of Leydig.", "B": "The Sertoli cells.", "C": "The primary spermatocytes.", "D": "Secondary spermatocytes", "E": "The spermatids." }, "Correct Answer": "The Sertoli cells.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "60ee2283-1060-4f55-9014-4fbe7868790e", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The degrees of freedom of the intragroup variance in a 1-way Anova comparing 4 groups of 10 individuals each are:", "Options": { "A": "38", "B": "39", "C": "3.", "D": "40", "E": "36" }, "Correct Answer": "36", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b456baa6-b8b4-4137-8772-e3ea762e8252", "topic_name": "biology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The period of 1 to 2 years after puberty, in which the growth of the skeleton is completed and the reproductive functions are established, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Postpubescence", "B": "Prepubescence", "C": "Adolescence.", "D": "Menarchy", "E": "Premenarquía." }, "Correct Answer": "Postpubescence", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dfb19a44-8528-4f88-b025-440390904f75", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "The enteric nervous system consists of the submucosal plexus and the myenteric plexus.", "B": "The myenteric plexus has sensory and motor neurons.", "C": "The myenteric plexus regulates the movements of the mucosa and the secretion of glands and the submucosal plexus regulates gastric motility.", "D": "1 and 2 are correct.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "1 and 2 are correct.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bdc7756b-81e2-454b-a037-7071696bb2d4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In neurons once an action potential has started, a second action potential can not be triggered for a short period of time, regardless of the intensity of the stimulus applied. This period of time is known as:", "Options": { "A": "Synaptic delay.", "B": "Threshold depolarizing period.", "C": "Absolute refractory period.", "D": "Relative refractory period.", "E": "Spatial sumary." }, "Correct Answer": "Absolute refractory period.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "139587c8-3f1c-4f3f-b0a9-1fd5af8cfc12", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "How does the cerebellum participate in the control of movement ?:", "Options": { "A": "Monitor the intention of the movement.", "B": "Control posture and balance", "C": "Compare the movement made with the planned one.", "D": "Send corrective feedback signals to the motor neurons of the cortex if necessary.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7c945415-b284-43ee-92df-b3b373b0a4ff", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following statements about dead space of the airway is correct:", "Options": { "A": "It is the air that occupies the airway and is used in the exchange of gases.", "B": "In an adult person it is about 3250 ml.", "C": "In each respiratory cycle the air from the dead space is poor in O2.", "D": "It is the lung area that is not ventilated and therefore does not contain gases.", "E": "It includes airways and alveoli that do not participate in the exchange of gas with blood." }, "Correct Answer": "It includes airways and alveoli that do not participate in the exchange of gas with blood.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f5ea928d-d7bd-447e-85ab-a076406c0f37", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the hearing and balance processes, indicate which statement is correct:", "Options": { "A": "The sounds are perceived in the organ of Corti and the balance in ampullary crests and maculae.", "B": "The auditory signal is processed in the cerebellum.", "C": "The inner ear is full of air.", "D": "Otoliths are composed of quartz.", "E": "All answers are false." }, "Correct Answer": "The sounds are perceived in the organ of Corti and the balance in ampullary crests and maculae.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a8b45239-d6ad-4303-b4ce-724a7e1235aa", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The rhythmic movements like walking or running are:", "Options": { "A": "Reflex movements.", "B": "Voluntary movements", "C": "Initiated and terminated by the cerebral cortex.", "D": "A combination of reflex and voluntary movements.", "E": "3 and 4 are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "3 and 4 are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "254e2c5a-3ad5-4b20-b3ff-2dbdfde72815", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During the exchange process in the capillaries, the net active force that attracts fluid from the interstitial space back into the capillaries is:", "Options": { "A": "Gravity.", "B": "Osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid.", "C": "Colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma.", "D": "Hydrostatic blood pressure.", "E": "Glomerular hydrostatic pressure." }, "Correct Answer": "Colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6524c451-5000-4b48-b957-ea264a2f41a2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding the hormonal control of reproduction:", "Options": { "A": "The gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) of the pituitary gland controls the secretion of two gonadotropins from the anterior lobe of the hypothalamus.", "B": "The gonadotropins are the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH).", "C": "FSH acts mainly on endocrine cells, stimulating the synthesis of sex hormones.", "D": "LH is necessary, together with steroid sex hormones, to initiate and maintain gametogenesis.", "E": "All the above are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The gonadotropins are the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "77f64bbd-2f37-43c2-bdb5-d29405ea183e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following factors influences the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ?:", "Options": { "A": "Blood pressure", "B": "The renal blood flow.", "C": "Self-regulation by myogenic responses and tubuloglomerular feedback.", "D": "Hormones such as Angiotensin II and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "25721b36-71cf-4998-bc92-35ef8c2ac4d4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cells of the stomach that are responsible for the secretion of hydrochloric acid are:", "Options": { "A": "The main cells.", "B": "The G cells", "C": "The parietal cells.", "D": "The enterocytes.", "E": "The mucosites of surface." }, "Correct Answer": "The parietal cells.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e396a996-0577-4c08-ba78-f41097bf9325", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is considered a normal response of the cardiovascular system originated in the baroreceptors as a consequence of hypotension ?:", "Options": { "A": "Increase in systemic vascular resistance.", "B": "Increase in parasympathetic stimulation.", "C": "Decrease in heart rate", "D": "Decreased stroke volume.", "E": "Decrease in cardiac output" }, "Correct Answer": "Increase in systemic vascular resistance.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3467b81c-e93c-4321-b4a3-286d1a45b7cd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct answer regarding the forces that influence the filtration through the capillaries of the renal glomeruli (Glomerular Filtration) that takes place in the renal corpuscle:", "Options": { "A": "The hydrostatic pressure of the blood circulating in the glomerular capillaries favors filtration to the Bowman's capsule.", "B": "The colloid osmotic pressure due to the plasma proteins within the glomerular capillaries favors filtration towards the Bowman capsule.", "C": "The hydrostatic pressure of the liquid inside the Bowman's capsule favors filtration into Bowman's capsule.", "D": "The net gradient of the sum of these three pressures is 100 mm Hg in favor of filtration.", "E": "All the above are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "The hydrostatic pressure of the blood circulating in the glomerular capillaries favors filtration to the Bowman's capsule.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c25b5add-2617-4443-b2b8-483ad3d84535", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to practically all of the nursing literature, which is considered the first secular school of regulated nurse training in the world:", "Options": { "A": "The Kaiserwerth Institute of Nursing Education.", "B": "The school of nurses of the Saint Thomas Hospital in London.", "C": "The Catalina de Siena Foundation for the teaching of nursing.", "D": "Royal School of Nurses of Saint Elizabeth of Hungary.", "E": "Civil Institution of the Nursing Sisters of La Merced." }, "Correct Answer": "The school of nurses of the Saint Thomas Hospital in London.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f9333bbf-10b6-4118-8176-52a6dbfc4c1b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In 1916, in the House of Health of Santa Cristina in Madrid, the Regulation was approved for the first:", "Options": { "A": "School of Midwives of Spain.", "B": "School of Military Nurses.", "C": "Royal Certificate of Ministers.", "D": "Collegiate of Surgeons and Bleeders.", "E": "Board of Nursing Training Board." }, "Correct Answer": "School of Midwives of Spain.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eb343105-9659-47c3-b52e-0b22d9033849", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "At the beginning of the Christian World, it is NOT considered a characteristic of the care that was carried out to treat the sick person as:", "Options": { "A": "An evangelical mandate for Christians.", "B": "A way to imitate the life of Jesus.", "C": "A human consideration related to the activities of helping the patient in their needs.", "D": "An opportunity for redemption for the patient and for those who provide it.", "E": "A person in need of technical assistance exclusively." }, "Correct Answer": "A person in need of technical assistance exclusively.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "296820c8-495e-4df1-8754-5c52f1217457", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During the nineteenth century, the reform movement greatly influenced the development of Spanish nursing at that time, being one of the most relevant figures:", "Options": { "A": "Sara Barton.", "B": "Concepción Arenal.", "C": "María Teresa Junquera.", "D": "María de Madariaga", "E": "María de Maeztu." }, "Correct Answer": "Concepción Arenal.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9c4693d1-f227-4b89-b88a-942ffadef062", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22, regulates:", "Options": { "A": "The Plans of Studies of Diploma in Nursing.", "B": "Accreditation minimums for the transformation of ATS Schools into Nursing Diploma Schools.", "C": "The professional competences of the Diploma in Nursing.", "D": "The Own Titles of Advanced Nursing.", "E": "The Nursing Specialties." }, "Correct Answer": "The Nursing Specialties.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "127fcbea-aedc-47c9-b574-7b273928bee6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During the second half of the 20th century there are several theoretical nurses who develop different definitions about nursing. Which of the following characteristics can be considered common to all of them ?:", "Options": { "A": "It focuses on the patient.", "B": "It focuses on the disease.", "C": "It is a feminine profession.", "D": "It has meaning from an interprofessional perspective.", "E": "All can be considered common to all definitions." }, "Correct Answer": "It focuses on the patient.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d31c35da-be3e-4a18-b55e-0937242ee2bc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Raile and Marriner in their studies on the theoretical works in nursing, review different aspects among which are those referred to semantics and structure. This analysis of the concrete theoretical framework refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The simplicity", "B": "The generality", "C": "The empirical precision.", "D": "The deductible consequences.", "E": "The clarity." }, "Correct Answer": "The clarity.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "060f5177-1505-4200-952d-868f974c084c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The conception of the person from a holistic perspective has achieved all its meaning from the works belonging to the School:", "Options": { "A": "Of the caring.", "B": "Of health promotion.", "C": "Of the desired effects.", "D": "Integrality", "E": "Of the unitary human being." }, "Correct Answer": "Of the unitary human being.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "35df7355-3352-4960-b30e-5c8257310c59", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The basis of Watson's theory is the nurse practice focused on:", "Options": { "A": "The 10 fundamental needs.", "B": "The 10 factors of care.", "C": "The 8 self-care requirements.", "D": "The 4 modes of adaptation.", "E": "The 21 nursing problems." }, "Correct Answer": "The 10 factors of care.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "36a248e7-62f5-4ee7-8767-2fedf496ffdb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following theorists is considered to be the founder of transcultural nursing ?:", "Options": { "A": "Madeleine M. Leininger.", "B": "Rosemarie Rizzo.", "C": "Dorothy Johnson.", "D": "Martha E. Rogers.", "E": "Ramona T. Mercer." }, "Correct Answer": "Madeleine M. Leininger.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "23604ff5-8c9f-4e88-9d24-aaa1dac33f15", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When using the Callista Roy model in practice, the organization of the factors that influence the person's responses are grouped as stimuli:", "Options": { "A": "Innatos and acquired.", "B": "Adaptive and ineffective", "C": "Focal, contextual and residual.", "D": "Internal and external.", "E": "Physiological, psychological and sociocultural." }, "Correct Answer": "Focal, contextual and residual.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9ceadab9-8536-4b24-8a1f-bacb5f8d8e19", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "D. Orem describes the meaning of dependent care agency as:", "Options": { "A": "The skills developed and acquired by the nurse in their training and learning process.", "B": "The capacities developed, or in the process of development, that a person has to take care of the self-care of another that depends on it.", "C": "The skills of the mature person to meet their demands for self-care following the recommendations of professionals.", "D": "The relationship that occurs between the nurse and the person who requires their care establishing a nursing system agreed between them.", "E": "The capabilities of the person, developed or in the process of development to meet the demands of health diversion requirements." }, "Correct Answer": "The capacities developed, or in the process of development, that a person has to take care of the self-care of another that depends on it.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d588b925-a270-4a97-966d-a8c8f91f6058", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A nurse who bases her professional practice on the Virginia Henderson conceptual model:", "Options": { "A": "It focuses on the fundamental needs of the person, and its interventions are aimed at preserving or restoring the independence of the person in meeting these needs.", "B": "He sees the care of the person as the establishment and maintenance of a nurse-client relationship that favors development.", "C": "He bases his actions on strategies to promote the adaptation of the person who is in constant interaction with a changing environment that influences their fundamental needs.", "D": "It considers in its care, as an authentic presence, the person who goes towards its actualization and who, through his health experiences, creates together to improve the quality of life, as the person and his family define it.", "E": "Organize your activity to meet the needs of care of the person, with the most appropriate system and nursing mode." }, "Correct Answer": "It focuses on the fundamental needs of the person, and its interventions are aimed at preserving or restoring the independence of the person in meeting these needs.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7db16237-0637-4125-a7c7-1f79cad0e5d8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Rosalinda Alfaro-LeFevre \"critical thinking is the key to solving problems\" and from this idea the author develops its meaning in the application of the nursing process. A characteristic of this thought is that:", "Options": { "A": "It does not need to be based on the principles of science or the scientific method.", "B": "It is deliberate and aimed at an objective.", "C": "It is based on conjectures.", "D": "It is innate.", "E": "It does not require evidence." }, "Correct Answer": "It is deliberate and aimed at an objective.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b9533973-da4d-4e7d-a7fc-d2b78559be9b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The definition of Phaneuf: \"Organized and systematic process of information search made from different sources, in order to discover the degree of satisfaction of the different needs of the person, in this way identify their problems, know their personal resources and plan interventions that can help her. \" It refers to the concept of:", "Options": { "A": "Nursing care process.", "B": "Critical thinking.", "C": "Clinical reasoning", "D": "Assessment.", "E": "Diagnosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Assessment.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5fbcced6-0160-47a0-a8ee-1b1c244ee612", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When it comes to interviewing a person, in order to gather information about their situation, it is essential to bear in mind that:", "Options": { "A": "A distance of 20 cm., Makes the person feel more comfortable and provides more information.", "B": "The right space for each person depends on their personal and cultural needs.", "C": "Simple physical contact, such as putting your hand on the person interviewed, is always appropriate.", "D": "Women generally demand more space than men.", "E": "Anxiety makes the need for space less." }, "Correct Answer": "The right space for each person depends on their personal and cultural needs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3bab5857-287a-41a0-b617-5258a966ed4a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A lady is being treated in the hospital for a respiratory problem. The diagnosis that your nurse identifies is \"ineffective cleaning of the airway related to accumulated secretions that obstruct the respiratory tract\". After four days of treatment with breathing exercises, ingestion of liquids, etc., the nurse detects that this lady has not recovered the efficiency of her respiratory function. Both agree to modify the plan and increase the exercises with assisted cough and more frequent deep breaths. These actions correspond to the phase of the nursing process of:", "Options": { "A": "Assessment.", "B": "Diagnosis.", "C": "Planning.", "D": "Evaluation.", "E": "Revaluation." }, "Correct Answer": "Evaluation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "65ce41b8-6f67-422e-8b33-5262fd4ec14c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A nurse has detected, on different occasions, a real problem in the patients she attends that does not correspond to any of the diagnoses contained in the NANDA classification. The way to proceed so that it can be included in the taxonomy is to propose a structure that contains at least:", "Options": { "A": "The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms", "B": "The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms Studies of the cases and their results.", "C": "The problem defined. The most common and possible etiologies. Major and minor characteristics that indicate the existence of the problem. At least the results of an experimental study.", "D": "The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results.", "E": "The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Risk factor's. Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results." }, "Correct Answer": "The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fa99aa68-877f-460e-bced-62b238257721", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The diagnostic statement: \"Risk of deterioration of the cutaneous integrity related to infrequent postural changes\", is INCORRECT, because:", "Options": { "A": "Contains expressions that indicate value judgments and unsubstantiated by the nurse.", "B": "Use the term \"related to\" and \"due to\" should be used, since the cause is evident.", "C": "Signs and symptoms are not specified.", "D": "Contains expressions that can legally compromise the nurse.", "E": "Infrequent postural changes should be considered as a secondary factor of the problem." }, "Correct Answer": "Contains expressions that can legally compromise the nurse.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ccc6ab00-5fe7-400f-ae12-cbc08f335415", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the diagnostic model provided, what is a correct statement ?: Intolerance to activity (00092) \"Domain 4: Activity / Rest\" \"Class 4: Cardiovascular / pulmonary responses\" Definition: Lack of physiological or psychological energy sufficient to tolerate or complete the daily activities required or desired. Defining characteristics: Abnormal blood pressure in response to activity. Abnormal heart rate in response to activity. Electrocardiographic changes indicators of arrhythmias. Discomfort for the effort. Dyspnea of ​​effort. Express fatigue. Express weakness. Related factors: Bed rest. Generalized weakness Imbalance between oxygen supply and demand. Immobility. Sedentary lifestyle", "Options": { "A": "Intolerance to activity r / c bed rest m / p expresses fatigue.", "B": "Intolerance to activity r / c heart failure m / p generalized weakness.", "C": "Compromised cardiovascular response r / c bed rest m / p expresses fatigue.", "D": "Activity and rest problem r / c a compromised cardiopulmonary response m / p electrocardiographic changes.", "E": "Intolerance to activity r / c expressions of fatigue m / p bed rest." }, "Correct Answer": "Intolerance to activity r / c bed rest m / p expresses fatigue.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "05f3a03f-7169-456d-98df-a1231bc6cfec", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One purpose of the scales for measuring the results of the NOC classification is:", "Options": { "A": "Determine the patient's condition and show the score of the result.", "B": "Make a clinical judgment about the patient's situation.", "C": "Determine the degree of achievement of the objectives raised in the care plan.", "D": "Check if the identified problem has been solved or a new diagnosis needs to be made.", "E": "Check the evolution of the patient and replace the evaluation phase of the care process." }, "Correct Answer": "Determine the patient's condition and show the score of the result.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "42b95b07-7f1b-4970-8496-5b79c4ba1fa4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The fundamental criterion for the choice of interventions in a nursing plan is that they are:", "Options": { "A": "Achievable with the available resources.", "B": "Those recommended in the standardized care plan.", "C": "Effective regardless of the criteria of the person.", "D": "Based exclusively on the knowledge of the nurse.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Achievable with the available resources.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7dac67e7-4a7a-4faf-b371-201d8110a269", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A health professional is exempted from the obligation of professional secrecy in the following circumstance:", "Options": { "A": "Presence of an infectious disease.", "B": "Suicide attempt.", "C": "Refusal of the patient to avoid contagion to other people.", "D": "Suspicion of mistreatment.", "E": "Upon the request of a lawyer." }, "Correct Answer": "Refusal of the patient to avoid contagion to other people.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "47a7afce-3ac2-41b3-8f65-3b2f14837d72", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The limitation of the therapeutic effort refers to:", "Options": { "A": "Palliative sedation", "B": "Assisted suicide.", "C": "To the rejection to the treatment.", "D": "To the non-therapeutic fierceness.", "E": "To double effect therapy." }, "Correct Answer": "To the non-therapeutic fierceness.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a308fd5a-4db6-4fc8-aa93-6f76d6d82f3b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The four principles of bioethics, non-maleficence, beneficence, justice and autonomy were proposed:", "Options": { "A": "By Beauchamp and Childress.", "B": "In the Belmont Report.", "C": "In the Oviedo Convention.", "D": "In the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.", "E": "By Diego Gracia." }, "Correct Answer": "By Beauchamp and Childress.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a6e9a5bd-15cc-4c87-968d-56f98f9da553", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The patient can freely withdraw his consent:", "Options": { "A": "Anytime.", "B": "Only before you have signed it.", "C": "Only through third parties if you have previously signed it.", "D": "Only when it has been granted verbally but not if it has been done in writing.", "E": "If you have signed \"advance directives\"." }, "Correct Answer": "Anytime.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dc52f884-7d04-4a4c-9c20-8808e6e76eb8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Code of Ethics of Spanish Nursing:", "Options": { "A": "It constitutes the minimum standards of action for Nursing.", "B": "It is a deontological Ethics of maximums for Nursing.", "C": "It is a bridge between patrimonial and collegial responsibility.", "D": "It is a set of guidelines for professional practice.", "E": "It addresses the guidelines for proper assistance to the sick." }, "Correct Answer": "It constitutes the minimum standards of action for Nursing.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "03bbbefc-70d7-462e-8e12-f6a54193a295", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The model of ethical foundation exposed by Carol Gilligan is called Ethics:", "Options": { "A": "Of Maxima.", "B": "Of Duty.", "C": "Of Care", "D": "Of Minimes.", "E": "Of Justice." }, "Correct Answer": "Of Care", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6ac5a233-9719-46e2-9bb2-41688a2a328f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ability to grasp the principles by which a distinction is made between what is morally good or bad is called:", "Options": { "A": "Moral action", "B": "Moral conscience.", "C": "Moral freedom", "D": "Ideal moral.", "E": "Moral capacity" }, "Correct Answer": "Moral conscience.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5b4aa8c3-24c7-45ed-b902-363bfd144fdd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A child must be taught to be more autonomous and learn to eat without help. If he first learns to hold a spoon, then to grab some puree and is finally able to take it to his mouth, and the parents congratulate him, it means that they have used positive reinforcement and the technique of successive approximations. This technique is also called:", "Options": { "A": "Learning by observation.", "B": "Molding", "C": "Vicarial learning.", "D": "Reward.", "E": "Training with emission." }, "Correct Answer": "Molding", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "16e88e55-4a9c-40c1-902c-33338fe6e303", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a person tries to avoid circumstances that increase their stress, exercises relaxation, plans leisure activities and trivializes their illness, it is said that this person is using coping strategies aimed at:", "Options": { "A": "The action.", "B": "The problem.", "C": "The omission", "D": "The emotion.", "E": "The attention" }, "Correct Answer": "The emotion.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "17d58fcd-76e0-4455-8848-19893a2eb64a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "C. N. has a significant overweight, can not resist and eats at any time. He tells the nurse that he can not control his actions and that he has very bad luck with the food problem. This lady presents an attributional style:", "Options": { "A": "Of helplessness.", "B": "Internal.", "C": "External.", "D": "Neurotic.", "E": "Assertive" }, "Correct Answer": "External.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fe56feae-0d36-42fc-89ef-bc9a7e18c66c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an interview, the nurse as an expert in effective communication should avoid:", "Options": { "A": "Have high reactivity, because it will interrupt the speech.", "B": "The silences, because it means that there is no communication with the patient.", "C": "Asking questions one at a time, it is better to do several at a time.", "D": "Ask clarifications for vague expressions.", "E": "Use facilitators like \"follow please\"." }, "Correct Answer": "Have high reactivity, because it will interrupt the speech.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6432ca33-dd93-4fe6-9fe4-14410181bfe1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a person is affected by a major stressful event or many minor stressful daily events, your body can react by showing up in the target organs by the action of:", "Options": { "A": "Autonomic neural axis producing prolonged effects.", "B": "Peripheral neural axis producing intermediate effects.", "C": "Neuroendocrine axis stimulating the adrenal medulla and producing immediate effects.", "D": "Hypothalamus", "E": "Endocrine axis on the spinal cord." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypothalamus", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "70ec4ef5-ce4c-4722-bf3f-c8a4cca17000", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The goals that improve performance and focus people's attention are:", "Options": { "A": "General, difficult and little challenging.", "B": "Specific, difficult and challenging.", "C": "Global, easy and challenging.", "D": "Specific, easy and challenging.", "E": "Those that are imposed externally." }, "Correct Answer": "Specific, difficult and challenging.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0eb3f74c-fd9e-4149-8572-5d5454691359", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is a characteristic expression of a person with high achievement motivation:", "Options": { "A": "\"I expect little from others.\"", "B": "\"Originality does not bother me.\"", "C": "\"I prefer tasks of great difficulty.\"", "D": "\"The successes are usually due to my effort.\"", "E": "\"I have little developed divergent thinking.\"" }, "Correct Answer": "\"The successes are usually due to my effort.\"", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d8876d79-02fc-4f7e-a6d2-3ffd0591df39", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The episodic memory is:", "Options": { "A": "Not declarative or implicit, that keeps skills, habits or routines of daily life. Their acquisition depends on the amount of time spent practicing them and the type of training used.", "B": "Declarative or explicit, of personal experiences based on the memory of concrete events that can be localized in time and in a specific place.", "C": "Long-term semantics", "D": "The one that allows to retain concepts, knowledge and events.", "E": "Which is used in the short term, for example, to remember the verse of a song by repeating it several times for a few minutes." }, "Correct Answer": "Declarative or explicit, of personal experiences based on the memory of concrete events that can be localized in time and in a specific place.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "98cf8bd3-3340-4771-9c3f-02dfff664442", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Persuasion is a way to change attitudes. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?:", "Options": { "A": "The source that communicates a message must be credible, attractive, close and related.", "B": "The positive message persuades better than the negative or the neutral.", "C": "Positive states of mind favor persuasion more than neutral states.", "D": "The attitudes of people with high cognitive need are more difficult to modify especially if weak arguments are used.", "E": "The recipient's self-esteem does not influence persuasion." }, "Correct Answer": "The recipient's self-esteem does not influence persuasion.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c5df0398-9052-4f4b-a7e1-59bfc4141bbd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point to the FALSE option. The model of the five factors of the personality of McCrae and Costa establishes as basic dimensions to study the person:", "Options": { "A": "Neuroticism and emotional stability.", "B": "Extraversion and introversion.", "C": "Mental openness and narrow-mindedness.", "D": "Kindness and antipathy.", "E": "Happiness and sadness" }, "Correct Answer": "Happiness and sadness", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4bd26533-4d24-4af3-9eb7-3846d1a1560c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs corresponds to the therapeutic group of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors ?:", "Options": { "A": "Buspirona.", "B": "Fluoxetine.", "C": "Zolpidem", "D": "Lorazepam", "E": "Phenytoin" }, "Correct Answer": "Fluoxetine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1c4f35af-fcd1-473c-b95e-c1424c17201e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among all the known adverse effects of platelet agents such as Clopidogrel, which of them are considered less serious ?:", "Options": { "A": "Flu-like syndrome, headache, dizziness and rash or pruritus.", "B": "Profuse sweating and nausea.", "C": "Arrhythmia and hypotension.", "D": "Moderate abdominal pain and headache.", "E": "Dyspnea and edema in MMII." }, "Correct Answer": "Flu-like syndrome, headache, dizziness and rash or pruritus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4a98f2f0-9c64-4779-b018-a6bea196e231", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the administration of non-opioid analgesics, the recommendations listed below must be considered, EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Do not administer acetylsalicylic acid to children or adolescents.", "B": "Take the medication with food and plenty of fluids to prevent gastric discomfort.", "C": "Report a history of bleeding disorders.", "D": "Adjust the dosage in 600 mg / 24 hours.", "E": "Keep appointments scheduled for kidney and liver function tests." }, "Correct Answer": "Adjust the dosage in 600 mg / 24 hours.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b58554b4-2c16-43d3-899f-2071af84d5b0", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs is included in the group of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids ?:", "Options": { "A": "Chlorpropamide", "B": "Estradiol.", "C": "Metformin.", "D": "Carbamazepine", "E": "Prednisolone" }, "Correct Answer": "Prednisolone", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d3c895c1-5de1-4a0e-915a-16aaff8f42e2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment with progestogens, a significant number of adverse effects occur. Of those listed below, the most serious is:", "Options": { "A": "Liver failure.", "B": "Thromboembolic disease.", "C": "Respiratory insufficiency.", "D": "Depression.", "E": "Heart failure." }, "Correct Answer": "Thromboembolic disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "fff7976a-0927-4488-a621-4078382db593", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, which treatments listed below are contraindicated due to the effect they cause:", "Options": { "A": "Bronchodilators, both short and long acting.", "B": "Mucolytics and expectorants to reduce the viscosity of secretions.", "C": "Oxygen that in the long term reduces the mortality of the patient with COPD.", "D": "Respiratory depressants such as opioids and barbiturates.", "E": "Antibiotics for patients with repeated pulmonary infections." }, "Correct Answer": "Respiratory depressants such as opioids and barbiturates.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1847f7ee-09e0-4efa-a3aa-5a14baa0ed31", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of all the groups of drugs listed below, those that less frequently provoke an anaphylactic reaction in the patient are:", "Options": { "A": "The NSAIDs.", "B": "Opioid analgesics.", "C": "Contrast media containing iodine, used for radiological examinations.", "D": "The benzodiazepines.", "E": "Antibiotics, especially penicillins, cephalosporins and sulfonamides." }, "Correct Answer": "The benzodiazepines.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "eb985c6d-e8fb-4bc7-a707-de3ede036b91", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer in relation to the posology in the administration of drugs in children:", "Options": { "A": "The body size influences exclusively and therefore the dose must be calculated.", "B": "There is a dose standard regardless of weight, so that the procedure is fast and efficient.", "C": "The height in centimeters must be taken into account for the calculation of doses.", "D": "The calculation of the body surface area is considered the most accurate method for the administration of the correct dose.", "E": "Some drugs do not differentiate between doses for adults and children." }, "Correct Answer": "The calculation of the body surface area is considered the most accurate method for the administration of the correct dose.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4d564a86-7709-4553-b00d-7dbbd965d9be", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with Diabetes Mellitus type 1, which starts with high fever should:", "Options": { "A": "Assess the evolution of fever and wait.", "B": "Do not eat", "C": "Assess the need to increase insulin.", "D": "Drink plenty of water.", "E": "Do not administer insulin." }, "Correct Answer": "Assess the need to increase insulin.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d5e75ce4-f895-4d7e-86b6-b4b336e342ee", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with chronic renal failure has to follow a controlled diet in potassium. What foods should you suppress to reduce your potassium intake ?:", "Options": { "A": "Sugars", "B": "Fish.", "C": "Fruit in compote.", "D": "Raw vegetables.", "E": "Fruit nectar" }, "Correct Answer": "Raw vegetables.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b3abb2da-5b6a-4119-a4b1-c2713b5ef6cb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The basal diet, normal or regular, is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Be planned by the hotel industry.", "B": "To be the basic menu of young patients.", "C": "Always be with salt.", "D": "Provide around 2200 kcal / day.", "E": "Be individualized" }, "Correct Answer": "Provide around 2200 kcal / day.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "64bf7376-78aa-4c66-bcad-8b3aa297b8bc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Strict vegetarians with low sun exposure should consume foods rich in vitamin:", "Options": { "A": "Retinol (A).", "B": "Ascorbic acid (C).", "C": "Calciferol (D).", "D": "Riboflavin (B2).", "E": "Niacin (B3)." }, "Correct Answer": "Calciferol (D).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cefb35cb-0846-439d-92b0-fbb2985f6ea1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In phase II of the diet due to acute gastroenteritis, what food should be avoided ?:", "Options": { "A": "Potato.", "B": "Toasted bread.", "C": "Grape.", "D": "Quince.", "E": "Semolina." }, "Correct Answer": "Grape.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f4bbaaa2-4f0e-42da-8da1-165bccbf871f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patients with dysphagia should avoid the following foods, EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Homogeneous purees.", "B": "With a fibrous texture, such as asparagus, pineapple, serrano ham.", "C": "That contain thorns and bones.", "D": "They crumble in the mouth, like rice, potato chips.", "E": "Sticky and dense foods, like sliced ​​bread." }, "Correct Answer": "Homogeneous purees.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "520ffc47-2b87-4d35-838f-83fe75a5a559", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The screening tool devised by Stratton and Col (2004) to evaluate malnutrition in patients admitted to hospitals is:", "Options": { "A": "Screening Tool (MUST).", "B": "CONUT.", "C": "IMC", "D": "Valuation of intake.", "E": "INFORNUT." }, "Correct Answer": "Screening Tool (MUST).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4a1de3ed-853b-48c6-96d5-1cc24552a6c6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The involuntary loss of weight can mean malnutrition, if it is higher than:", "Options": { "A": "4% in 3 months.", "B": "5% in 1 month.", "C": "10% in 12 months.", "D": "15% in 10 months.", "E": "20% in 6 months." }, "Correct Answer": "5% in 1 month.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a3f715a8-a3cd-4706-bd3b-d4ed4738d6c5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The administration of enteral nutrition in bolus is indicated when:", "Options": { "A": "The formula is hyperosmolar.", "B": "The patient has reflux.", "C": "The administration is intermittent.", "D": "Large volumes are administered.", "E": "The administration is jejunal." }, "Correct Answer": "The administration is intermittent.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9e929db6-82fa-4ce3-b4e3-5c098f078cf9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with peripheral occlusive arteriopathy who presents intermittent claudication will be recommended:", "Options": { "A": "Absolute rest to reduce the demands of O2.", "B": "Elevate the legs to reduce pain.", "C": "Apply dry heat to the legs to promote vasodilation.", "D": "Walk on flat surfaces.", "E": "Use gradual compression stockings." }, "Correct Answer": "Walk on flat surfaces.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1a7127cb-f188-439d-8a5e-9303e8bdf940", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The INR (international normalized ratio) of a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation treated with Acenocoumarol is 4. This result indicates that:", "Options": { "A": "The appearance of ventricular arrhythmias should be controlled.", "B": "The patient is correctly anticoagulated.", "C": "Anticoagulation with heparin is more indicated.", "D": "There is a risk of thrombus formation.", "E": "Signs of bleeding should be assessed." }, "Correct Answer": "Signs of bleeding should be assessed.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8f71ed87-e2de-4705-9637-f74af3bfc10d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following signs is characteristic of a patient with left heart failure ?:", "Options": { "A": "Rattles.", "B": "Increased blood pressure.", "C": "Decrease in weight", "D": "Ascitis", "E": "Bradycardia" }, "Correct Answer": "Rattles.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b9267632-3145-4451-8d9f-2e0a43272c9e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient with a lateral myocardial infarction will present an obstruction at the level of the artery:", "Options": { "A": "Coronary right.", "B": "Previous descending", "C": "Posterior descending.", "D": "Diaphragmatic", "E": "Circumflex." }, "Correct Answer": "Circumflex.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "44a2399d-c13e-48f0-ab25-bdacab28d778", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Defibrillation is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "It requires the patient's previous sedation.", "B": "It is usually used when the patient is in asystole.", "C": "It can be applied in ventricular tachycardias with a pulse.", "D": "The discharge is not synchronized with the patient's heart rate.", "E": "A minimum intensity discharge should be used." }, "Correct Answer": "The discharge is not synchronized with the patient's heart rate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8e7b37ea-4a8d-424b-a1e7-c5d2eabe0c54", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When performing an electrocardiogram you will notice that the QRS complex is predominantly negative in the derivation:", "Options": { "A": "V1", "B": "AVF.", "C": "V5", "D": "V6.", "E": "DIII." }, "Correct Answer": "V1", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "12157807-167d-447e-93cb-6d34af5fd726", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient diagnosed with angina will NOT recommend:", "Options": { "A": "Alternating activity with periods of rest.", "B": "Take oral nitroglycerin in the morning.", "C": "Avoid extreme cold.", "D": "Follow a diet rich in fiber.", "E": "Leave the tobacco." }, "Correct Answer": "Take oral nitroglycerin in the morning.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5361b9bd-6aef-47a7-95d2-d4b442438563", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the activities of the nurse for a patient with cognitive impairment secondary to Cerebral Vascular Accident, is NOT correct:", "Options": { "A": "Reorient the patient in terms of time, place and situation frequently.", "B": "Use verbal and auditory cues to guide the patient.", "C": "Repeat and reinforce instructions frequently.", "D": "Avoid showing family objects so as not to contribute to their frustration.", "E": "Use a simple language" }, "Correct Answer": "Avoid showing family objects so as not to contribute to their frustration.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3b7918cd-4584-44d8-ad19-f477beae7a94", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the diseases and neurological disorders influenced by genetic factors, it is NOT found:", "Options": { "A": "Epilepsy.", "B": "Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis.", "C": "Spina Bifida.", "D": "Ictus.", "E": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy." }, "Correct Answer": "Ictus.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5923d2bd-9739-4aee-b3bf-1694664920f8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the drugs that are administered in the treatment of seizures is:", "Options": { "A": "Chlorpropamide", "B": "Simvastatin.", "C": "Carbamazepine", "D": "Propanolol.", "E": "Escitalopram." }, "Correct Answer": "Carbamazepine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "199f6726-64c9-44eb-9c8f-372915b28997", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The earliest sign manifested in the increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP) is:", "Options": { "A": "Orthostatic hypotension.", "B": "Breathing difficulty", "C": "Hypertension maintained.", "D": "Changes in the level of consciousness", "E": "Frequent vomiting" }, "Correct Answer": "Changes in the level of consciousness", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "89d16098-5a41-46d8-99cb-c66abba0cf5c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most accurate measurement of body temperature in an unconscious patient should be obtained at:", "Options": { "A": "Oral.", "B": "Axillary.", "C": "It is indifferent.", "D": "Rectal.", "E": "Inguinal." }, "Correct Answer": "Rectal.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "517cfa47-ccf7-44f2-8307-b68378d2b9e4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "After the patient has suffered an epileptic seizure, there is a risk of presenting:", "Options": { "A": "Hypoxia, vomiting and pulmonary aspiration.", "B": "Dizziness, nausea and abdominal pain.", "C": "Intense headache, hypotension and rigidity.", "D": "High blood pressure and arrhythmias.", "E": "Insomnia, altered appetite and loss of energy." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypoxia, vomiting and pulmonary aspiration.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bca1cc24-a8ea-471e-a470-9658c8d7388e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "P. L. complains of gastroesophageal reflux and although he takes the prescribed drugs he acknowledges that he did not carry out the diet because he thought it was not important. Now he asks for dietary recommendations. Which one is indicated ?:", "Options": { "A": "Take very cold foods.", "B": "Take very hot foods.", "C": "Drink liquids at lunch and dinner.", "D": "Take low fat diet.", "E": "Drink citrus juices." }, "Correct Answer": "Take low fat diet.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2333d43c-1c39-493e-8e22-6a4e0561f111", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. L. R. is a colostomy carrier. Which of the following recommendations on activities of daily life is adequate ?:", "Options": { "A": "You should avoid bathing, neither with a bag nor without it.", "B": "You can not do sports activities.", "C": "You can not wear a sash on top of the bag.", "D": "It is advisable that you drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration.", "E": "You should avoid sexual intercourse involving contact with the stoma area." }, "Correct Answer": "You can not wear a sash on top of the bag.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c7ff7c93-3a41-4198-a21f-14b92be70f89", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patients with liver cirrhosis may have ascites due to:", "Options": { "A": "Alteration of the coagulation factors.", "B": "Portal hypertension and serum hypoalbuminemia.", "C": "Decrease in hydrostatic pressure.", "D": "Irritation of the peritoneal membrane by bile salts.", "E": "Post-surgical and abdominal trauma." }, "Correct Answer": "Portal hypertension and serum hypoalbuminemia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "47983a9a-2a6b-49a1-93fc-860f270a425b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patients undergoing gastric surgery require vitamin B12 replacement therapy for:", "Options": { "A": "CLH deficiency - which hinders the absorption of nutrients.", "B": "Excessive loss of this vitamin in the stool.", "C": "Low intake of food as a result of anorexia.", "D": "Deficiency in its absorption due to lack of intrinsic factor.", "E": "Excessive loss of this vitamin in the urine." }, "Correct Answer": "Deficiency in its absorption due to lack of intrinsic factor.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4a91a422-8b81-4b3c-9f5c-20e4607a57ab", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Crohn's disease is an inflammatory process that is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "It affects the superficial mucosa of the colon.", "B": "It usually occurs with rectal bleeding.", "C": "The affectation is uniform, producing continuous injuries.", "D": "The colectomy cures the disease.", "E": "It affects any stretch of the gastrointestinal tract." }, "Correct Answer": "It affects any stretch of the gastrointestinal tract.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5e2ea3b1-d9ea-4d76-9899-af07cbd1ebab", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Clay-colored stools are indicative of a problem of:", "Options": { "A": "Obstruction of the bile ducts.", "B": "Severe and prolonged diarrhea.", "C": "Gastrointestinal bleeding.", "D": "Long fasting.", "E": "Enteral feeding" }, "Correct Answer": "Obstruction of the bile ducts.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1d676aff-f689-48e3-98bd-dc80f337e694", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When you value the oncological patient, in which Functional Pattern of M. Gordon is included the Barthel Index ?:", "Options": { "A": "Cognitive-Perceptual.", "B": "Activity-Exercise.", "C": "Perception-Health Management.", "D": "Nutritional-Metabolic.", "E": "Self-perception-Self-concept" }, "Correct Answer": "Activity-Exercise.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ab7cf742-c947-4e9c-a572-1300970fadcb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "P. L. is a patient diagnosed with bronchopulmonary cancer who has been prescribed antineoplastic drugs. Which of the following statements regarding the administration of chemotherapy is INCORRECT ?:", "Options": { "A": "Vesicant drugs will be administered with a \"Y\" connection to a physiological serum.", "B": "Administration of the drug in the veins of the back of the hand and antecubital fossa will be avoided.", "C": "If there is extravasation, the infusion must be interrupted immediately and the catheter must always be removed.", "D": "The puncture sites will alternate in each cycle.", "E": "It is recommended to use the veins of the forearm provided they are of good caliber, avoiding the winding ones." }, "Correct Answer": "If there is extravasation, the infusion must be interrupted immediately and the catheter must always be removed.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "36664f8a-a667-4960-83e7-708c497ae4a4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements related to breast cancer is correct ?:", "Options": { "A": "Infiltrative ductal carcinoma is the least frequent histological type (around 510%)", "B": "If the tumor is located in the nipple, it is called Paget's disease.", "C": "Total mastectomy involves excision of the breast, the areola-nipple complex, and axillary lymph node dissection.", "D": "It does not produce metastasis in the bone tissue.", "E": "When there is metastasis, hormone therapy is contraindicated." }, "Correct Answer": "If the tumor is located in the nipple, it is called Paget's disease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a07b73fa-a3ff-430f-a5bb-e1b7aebcfe06", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hypoxemic hypoxia occurs when:", "Options": { "A": "Oxygen diffusion of lungs is difficult.", "B": "There is decreased blood flow due to cardiogenic shock.", "C": "The decrease in hemoglobin due to anemia prevents its transport.", "D": "The cell membrane is altered and can not use oxygen.", "E": "None is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Oxygen diffusion of lungs is difficult.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "615b7f30-6447-40a1-a7a9-5926cff9378f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What values ​​obtained in an arterial blood gas are considered within the normal parameters in an adult person ?:", "Options": { "A": "PaCO2 65mmHg, PaO2 80mmHg, pH 7.55.", "B": "PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 110mmHg, pH 7.55.", "C": "PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.35.", "D": "PaCO2 80mmHg, PaO2 35mmHg, pH 7.35.", "E": "PaCO2 20mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.45." }, "Correct Answer": "PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.35.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f314cd4d-ca8a-4d3f-999c-f93e03b5480e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the exercises with the incentive spirometer, it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "They stimulate the patient to inhale quickly and deeply.", "B": "The patient must be in the supine position.", "C": "Spirometers can be of three types: volume, flow or pressure.", "D": "They are also called sustained maximum inspiration exercises.", "E": "All are false." }, "Correct Answer": "They are also called sustained maximum inspiration exercises.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a8cf1e8c-bd69-4397-bdce-77c24d5b728a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When training a patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing exercises correctly, we will indicate that:", "Options": { "A": "Inhale through your nose while counting to 3 and exhale quickly with pursed lips.", "B": "Inhale through the mouth and contract the abdominal muscles for another 7 seconds.", "C": "Firmly press the abdomen out and down when exhaling.", "D": "Inhale slowly and deeply through the nose and push the abdomen outward.", "E": "Help yourself by supporting your hands on the rib cage while inspiring." }, "Correct Answer": "Inhale slowly and deeply through the nose and push the abdomen outward.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d5f83b15-8c35-427a-934f-1d96fdb8ab4a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hyperoxia or oxygen toxicity can cause signs and symptoms such as:", "Options": { "A": "Substernal pain", "B": "Paresthesias of the extremities.", "C": "Fatigue and general malaise.", "D": "Dyspnea and progressive respiratory distress.", "E": "All are true." }, "Correct Answer": "All are true.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1f3aada4-8475-4c13-ae9c-97b452f73850", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The obturator or catheter in a tracheostomy cannula serves to:", "Options": { "A": "Introduce the external cannula into the tracheal stoma in a non traumatic way.", "B": "Aspirate secretions if a vacuum source is directly connected.", "C": "Help maintain the permeability of the artificial airway.", "D": "Fix the cannula avoiding its accidental displacement.", "E": "Allow the patient to speak by allowing the air to pass through the vocal cords." }, "Correct Answer": "Introduce the external cannula into the tracheal stoma in a non traumatic way.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "89d67be9-98e5-4727-9cfb-bcc2de9fa54b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the postoperative period, clinical signs such as high temperature, cough, expectoration, dyspnea and chest pain correspond to a patient who presents:", "Options": { "A": "Pulmonary embolism.", "B": "Pulmonary emphysema", "C": "Pneumonia.", "D": "Atelectasis", "E": "Asthma crisis" }, "Correct Answer": "Pneumonia.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3cc5004f-2574-4103-a43f-7a64d28eeddc", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following NANDA diagnoses is NOT relevant in the newly operated patient:", "Options": { "A": "Acute pain", "B": "Risk of liquid volume deficit.", "C": "Ineffective respiratory pattern", "D": "Alteration of social interaction.", "E": "Ineffective cleaning of the respiratory tract." }, "Correct Answer": "Alteration of social interaction.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "18b9e90e-bd3e-44e1-8de9-39956f50d918", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the signs that can appear in the postoperative period is tympanism, which means:", "Options": { "A": "Paralysis of intestinal peristalsis.", "B": "Tympanic perforation due to increased pressure.", "C": "Evisceration", "D": "Retention of gases in the intestine.", "E": "Severe abdominal pain." }, "Correct Answer": "Retention of gases in the intestine.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "04235952-db08-43fc-88a6-63e15dd5924a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 48-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus 2 comes to the nursing consultation. Baseline venous blood glucose values ​​are: 165 mg / dL. Other interesting data are: total cholesterol: 197 mg / dl and BMI 23 Kg / m2. What dietary recommendation is indicated ?:", "Options": { "A": "Distribute carbohydrate intake throughout the day, with a carbohydrate ratio of 30-54%.", "B": "Plan together with the patient a hypocaloric diet that includes 55-60% of carbohydrates, a reduction of fat intake <30% and fiber intake of 20-30 g.", "C": "Take supplements of omega 3 fatty acids.", "D": "The consumption of alcohol should not exceed one-two units / day.", "E": "Prepare a hyperproteic diet together with the patient, including low glycemic index foods." }, "Correct Answer": "The consumption of alcohol should not exceed one-two units / day.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "07a3f8f7-ab69-48e8-81a4-9a1c0f9ccdf4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Thyroid storm or thyrotoxic crisis is a state of extreme hyperthyroidism characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "High prevalence in patients with endocrine disorders.", "B": "Hyperthermia, tachycardia, abdominal and neurological disorders, including epileptic seizures, delirium and coma.", "C": "Hypothermia, bradycardia and lethargy.", "D": "It does not suppose a situation of vital commitment for the patient with disorders of the endocrine system.", "E": "Hyperthermia, bradycardia, abdominal disorders and absence of neurological symptoms." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyperthermia, tachycardia, abdominal and neurological disorders, including epileptic seizures, delirium and coma.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1de3c29-428f-48c9-af10-731f2d122e63", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Diabetes Insipidus:", "Options": { "A": "It is a disease linked to the dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland.", "B": "It is controlled by limiting the ingestion of liquids.", "C": "It manifests by polydipsia and the elimination of large volumes of diluted urine.", "D": "It originates in the pancreas.", "E": "It is caused by excessive production of ADH (Vasopressin)." }, "Correct Answer": "It manifests by polydipsia and the elimination of large volumes of diluted urine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ae98b59d-64c2-4521-8648-7814771726d8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) causes disorders of the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids. The main clinical manifestations of CAD are:", "Options": { "A": "Hypoglycaemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis.", "B": "Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and alkalosis.", "C": "Hypoglycaemia, increases in volemia and acidosis.", "D": "Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis.", "E": "Hyperglycemia, increases in blood volume and alkalosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b3ac5a9b-1018-4c81-8896-7f81050a96a1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Visible physical changes such as the so-called \"buffalo hump\" or \"face of the full moon\" are manifestations of:", "Options": { "A": "Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.", "B": "Korsakoff syndrome.", "C": "Bartter syndrome.", "D": "Graves disease.", "E": "Cushing's syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Cushing's syndrome.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cfb83c77-b816-408e-8c6f-a5d44d5ec81d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the main risk factors for kidney cancer is:", "Options": { "A": "Cardiopathy without treatment.", "B": "Sex.", "C": "Liver failure.", "D": "Alcohol intake.", "E": "Polycystic kidney disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Polycystic kidney disease.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "431018b9-de11-4627-b70f-bb76836f93ee", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with Renal Insufficiency, oral drugs must be administered:", "Options": { "A": "With natural fruit juices.", "B": "With the lowest volume of liquid possible.", "C": "With the same volume as any other patient.", "D": "With the largest volume of liquid possible.", "E": "Always during hemodialysis." }, "Correct Answer": "With the lowest volume of liquid possible.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0d183a23-0b23-44f7-85f3-dc43e021bef1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a postoperative patient with a urinary diversion, the nurse should monitor the urine volume every hour. Below how many ml / h of urine may indicate that the patient is dehydrated or has some type of internal obstruction or loss ?:", "Options": { "A": "200 ml / h.", "B": "100 ml / h.", "C": "80 ml / h.", "D": "50 ml / h.", "E": "30 ml / h." }, "Correct Answer": "30 ml / h.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c4deb7e4-3adb-4550-a4f3-1116fe5d1a8e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the nurse's instruction on home care in peritoneal dialysis, the patient or caregiver should be able to:", "Options": { "A": "Mention the basic principles of aseptic technique.", "B": "Analyze restrictions on food.", "C": "Demonstrate the procedure to add medication to the dialysis solution.", "D": "Describe the actions in case of emergency.", "E": "All the previous answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All the previous answers are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "9f512d8f-f3d8-46de-83b8-cdeb0e6693bd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has been 24 hours since D. J., 28, has undergone an abdominal surgery. When he enters the room he smiles and jokes with the visitors. The blood pressure is 130/74 mmHg, the heart rate is 80, and the respiratory rate is 18. He tells him that he has pain and on a numerical scale of pain intensity from 0 (without pain) to 10 (the worst possible pain), DJ scores his pain in 8. Based on these data, point out the number you would choose to represent the assessment of this man's pain:", "Options": { "A": "9.", "B": "8", "C": "7", "D": "6", "E": "5." }, "Correct Answer": "8", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e9d62796-20b7-4f4e-a117-ed637cddfd5b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mrs. P. R. has prescribed a serum therapy at a rate of 2 liters of isotonic saline in 24 hours; How many drops / minute would the infusion graduate ?:", "Options": { "A": "twenty.", "B": "24", "C": "28", "D": "32", "E": "36" }, "Correct Answer": "28", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d68cdff3-16c2-41b2-a6cb-11cd60aefc64", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following positions makes the patient more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers due to shearing forces:", "Options": { "A": "Supine decubitus", "B": "Projection prone.", "C": "Semiprono decubitus.", "D": "Fowler.", "E": "Sims." }, "Correct Answer": "Fowler.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f5978991-9d1b-4571-9e04-dac33b44e40f", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about the consolidation of the fractures is FALSE ?:", "Options": { "A": "The presence of metabolic diseases inhibits consolidation.", "B": "There are bones that consolidate later due to their state of nutrition and blood supply.", "C": "In children they consolidate faster.", "D": "Intraarticular fractures delays consolidation.", "E": "The space between the fragments favors consolidation." }, "Correct Answer": "The space between the fragments favors consolidation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7583af75-fed4-4685-9952-f0a1c8adbbed", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "For a skeletal traction to be effective, the principles that must be met are:", "Options": { "A": "Contraction, continuity and body alignment.", "B": "Body alignment and joint mobility.", "C": "Joint mobility and continuity.", "D": "Contraction and body alignment.", "E": "Continuity, body alignment and joint mobility." }, "Correct Answer": "Contraction, continuity and body alignment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6a3704cb-3059-4c4c-98b6-6cc4f77d4e56", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The procedure to apply a plaster includes:", "Options": { "A": "Choose a band 10 cm wide.", "B": "Cover the previous row with one third of the width of the bandage.", "C": "Handle the plaster in the process of drying with the palms of the hands.", "D": "Support the cast member on a hard surface.", "E": "Cover the plaster to allow it to set." }, "Correct Answer": "Handle the plaster in the process of drying with the palms of the hands.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2ffb6ecf-2bf1-4d05-8dc1-79f21405a779", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When performing a central peripheral insertion venous catheterization procedure, the nurse must take into account that:", "Options": { "A": "The catheter is ready for use immediately after insertion, not needing further checks.", "B": "It is vital to perform a chest X-ray and / or an electrocardiographic record prior to its use.", "C": "A complete electrocardiogram should be performed in order to avoid possible complications.", "D": "The location of the tip of the catheter is only checked if parenteral nutrition is to be administered through it.", "E": "You need to check your position using a chest x-ray and another abdomen." }, "Correct Answer": "It is vital to perform a chest X-ray and / or an electrocardiographic record prior to its use.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "83ba2b2b-c0e5-4b3f-985e-49883e764f18", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The specific test to be performed as a previous step to the insertion of a catheter in the radial or ulnar artery, in order to evaluate the presence of an adequate collateral circulation of the hand, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Spencer test modified.", "B": "Tolerance test for arterial catheterization.", "C": "Student's test", "D": "Allen test.", "E": "Tilt Test (TTT)." }, "Correct Answer": "Allen test.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cc55ba1c-3f69-4378-99aa-869a8499ab4e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a terminal patient presents pain:", "Options": { "A": "Analgesia will be prescribed.", "B": "The treatment must be limited to the use of drugs.", "C": "The drugs will be administered on demand.", "D": "The route of choice for the administration of drugs will be the one determined by the physician.", "E": "The route to be used for the administration of analgesia, preferably, will be intramuscular." }, "Correct Answer": "Analgesia will be prescribed.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7d8d83e7-dee7-4d74-99a3-dc21be0af00d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following activities should NOT be carried out in the terminal patient when he presents with xerostomia ?:", "Options": { "A": "Offer you vitamin C pills", "B": "Give him candy with sugar.", "C": "Increase fluid intake.", "D": "Offer ice cubes.", "E": "Prepare pieces of natural pineapple." }, "Correct Answer": "Give him candy with sugar.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e2ad6d1d-c818-41f7-8da1-d2cc58451aa8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements regarding constipation in the terminal patient is correct ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is a rare symptom.", "B": "Its most common cause is the administration of opioids.", "C": "The basic therapy will consist in the administration of enemas.", "D": "Its etiology is unifactorial.", "E": "It must be treated with a diet rich in fiber." }, "Correct Answer": "Its most common cause is the administration of opioids.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "93818c74-b89d-449b-b31e-776e9be28855", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The definition of Primary Health Care (PHC) as \"essential assistance, based on practical, scientifically founded and socially acceptable methods and technologies, made available to all individuals and families in the community, through their full participation, and at a cost that the community and the country can support, in each and every one of the stages of its development with a spirit of self-responsibility and self-determination \", was established in:", "Options": { "A": "The WHO-UNICEF Conference of AlmaAta (1978).", "B": "World Health Strategy for all in the year 2000 (1981).", "C": "The Ottawa Charter (1986).", "D": "51st World Health Assembly (1998).", "E": "General Health Law 14/1986 of April 25." }, "Correct Answer": "The WHO-UNICEF Conference of AlmaAta (1978).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b7398444-5505-499b-8cb5-21e482f0cb0c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The type of epidemiological study indicated to evaluate, in a population initially exempt from the health problem under study, the association between a risk factor and the onset of the disease is:", "Options": { "A": "Randomized clinical trial.", "B": "Quasi experimental.", "C": "Ecological studies", "D": "Cases and controls study.", "E": "Cohort study." }, "Correct Answer": "Ecological studies", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "93a8bf2f-f171-436e-b003-4e230d363301", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the health area, safety problems are identified in two schools. To deal with the situation, educational sessions are held with parents and teachers of the centers, prevention posters are drawn up, signatures are collected to support the elimination of black spots, and risks are eliminated and regulations that favor safety of the schools. This type of intervention is considered:", "Options": { "A": "Health promotion.", "B": "Advice and information.", "C": "Education for individual health.", "D": "Education for group health.", "E": "Education for massive health." }, "Correct Answer": "Health promotion.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b73e7f10-445a-4f74-bdd9-d1c86c615179", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A program of Health Education (EpS) is organized for women in the climacteric stage. One of the sessions aims to know how they are living this stage and how it is affecting them personally and family. The most appropriate EpS technique is:", "Options": { "A": "Grating.", "B": "Brainstorming.", "C": "Phillips 6/6.", "D": "Fotopalabra", "E": "All are adequate." }, "Correct Answer": "All are adequate.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cce75cbf-8921-40c8-a151-31db1432f717", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Program of Preventive Activities and Health Promotion (PAPPS) DOES NOT include as a minimum package in the Infant Subprogram:", "Options": { "A": "Screening for congenital hypothyroidism.", "B": "Promotion of breastfeeding.", "C": "Prevention of pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases in adolescents.", "D": "Prevention of suicide.", "E": "Prevention of active and passive smoking." }, "Correct Answer": "Prevention of suicide.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fdec8dfc-a5d9-4282-bafb-5eb628765cc3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the control of chronic diseases that require continuous treatment, one of the main challenges for the primary care nurse is to favor adherence to pharmacological treatment and to make recommendations related to lifestyles. Of the following recommendations, which would NOT be indicated to encourage such adhesion ?:", "Options": { "A": "Provide clear advice on the benefits and possible adverse effects of the treatment and on the posology and its duration.", "B": "Take into account the habits and preferences of the patient.", "C": "Use standardized diets and exercise charts that reduce monitoring.", "D": "Establish a therapeutic relationship based on the motivational interview.", "E": "Offer multiple or combined sessions of behavioral interventions." }, "Correct Answer": "Use standardized diets and exercise charts that reduce monitoring.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "292657d0-d7a6-40d2-bec7-fac10c900d0a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old man of Moroccan origin, who arrived in Spain three years ago, goes to the nurse's office, with a clean superficial wound, and tells us that six months after arrival he was given a dose of the diphtheriate bath vaccine. Of the following interventions, which is indicated ?:", "Options": { "A": "Start diphtheria tetanus vaccination.", "B": "Administration of the 2nd dose of tetanus diphtheria.", "C": "Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin.", "D": "Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin and 2nd dose of diphtheria tetanus.", "E": "No intervention would be indicated since he has a dose of diphtheria tetanus." }, "Correct Answer": "Administration of the 2nd dose of tetanus diphtheria.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f54116a5-9895-470e-bb37-94dc37d9371b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "P.C. is a 27-year-old woman who was given the first dose of the HBV vaccine 3 weeks ago. He has just been given the results of the serological markers of rubella: Ac anti rubella negative. Taking into account the vaccination situation, what intervention is adequate ?:", "Options": { "A": "Vaccinate the triple viral and the 2nd dose of HBV, at the time of consultation.", "B": "Vaccinate the triple virus at the time of consultation and wait a week for the administration of the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine.", "C": "Vaccinate the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of the consultation and wait a week for the administration of the triple virus.", "D": "Vaccinate from the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of consultation, and do not vaccinate from the triple virus since it is immunized.", "E": "Do not vaccinate for the anti-rubella ACs." }, "Correct Answer": "Vaccinate the triple virus at the time of consultation and wait a week for the administration of the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "74577e01-7713-4a83-b822-22b607951414", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 38-year-old man comes to the nursing consultation and says he has maintained risky sexual practices with a source + HBV. The result of the serology performed is HBsAc> 10mUl / ml. Taking into account the data provided, what intervention is indicated ?:", "Options": { "A": "Immediate administration of the lgHB, initiate HBV vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices.", "B": "Only immediate administration of the lgHB and EpS of safe sex practices.", "C": "Put HBV and EpS recall doses of safe sex practices.", "D": "Start vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices.", "E": "EpS of safe sex practices." }, "Correct Answer": "EpS of safe sex practices.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5168e154-8a5c-4f87-98e3-af3a02b7dc28", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the direct care functions developed by the Primary Care Teams is NOT:", "Options": { "A": "Promotion of healthy lifestyles.", "B": "Secondary prevention of more prevalent problems in the community.", "C": "Preparation and implementation of health education projects in school environments.", "D": "Undergraduate and postgraduate training of health personnel.", "E": "Rehabilitation." }, "Correct Answer": "Undergraduate and postgraduate training of health personnel.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c192261f-665d-4910-aa35-c585f5d1d34e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The recommended secondary prevention measure for the prevention of cervical cancer is:", "Options": { "A": "Vaccine against HPV.", "B": "Promote the use of condoms.", "C": "Substitute treatment of estrogen and progesterone in postmenopausal women.", "D": "Performing cervical cytology for women between 25 and 65 years", "E": "All are recommendations for secondary prevention." }, "Correct Answer": "Performing cervical cytology for women between 25 and 65 years", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f144d5eb-7026-4321-a4e6-c613b0523927", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "An essential aspect that should be included in the assessment of a smoker is:", "Options": { "A": "Degree of dependency.", "B": "Stage of the change process.", "C": "Degree of motivation", "D": "Supports and difficulties.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "04f16035-3627-4d28-98a7-898f406c1b5e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Strategy of the National Drug Plan (2009-2016), among the population groups that benefit from programs and activities aimed at social assistance and integration, there are NO people who:", "Options": { "A": "They consume drugs and they go to the general health network for problems related to their consumption or other health problems.", "B": "They frequent environments and participate in situations where there is a special facility for consumption.", "C": "They are affected by dual pathology, they present complicated comorbid conditions that become chronic and worsen the evolution and prognosis of the addictive problem.", "D": "They are interned in prisons or following alternative programs to the enforcement of prison sentences.", "E": "They are minors and drug users, inmates in protection or reform centers." }, "Correct Answer": "They frequent environments and participate in situations where there is a special facility for consumption.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "10a26f25-04fe-497c-8a8f-b81ffeddca61", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of primary prevention intervention is indicated during the pre-pathogenic period of cardiovascular diseases ?:", "Options": { "A": "Carry out the assessment of cardiovascular risk using the SCORE scale from adolescence.", "B": "Control of total cholesterol levels periodically based on age.", "C": "Blood pressure control periodically based on age.", "D": "Promotion of healthy lifestyles: tobacco consumption, diet and exercise mainly.", "E": "All measurements are indicated." }, "Correct Answer": "Promotion of healthy lifestyles: tobacco consumption, diet and exercise mainly.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "05393ff0-65b3-4b09-a46a-5b02dc2fb791", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What measure defines the frequency of lung cancer among people who smoke 20 cigarettes a day compared to those who do not smoke ?:", "Options": { "A": "Accumulated incidence.", "B": "Incidence density.", "C": "Relative risk.", "D": "Attributable risk.", "E": "Etiological risk fraction." }, "Correct Answer": "Relative risk.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6be6cfad-0ae0-49a6-8f37-21b5e2d01e1d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following variables, which is considered a risk marker in the onset of cardiovascular disease:", "Options": { "A": "Elevated figures of LDL-cholesterol and total cholesterol.", "B": "Man over 55 years old.", "C": "Smoker of 20 cigarettes daily.", "D": "Sedentary.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Man over 55 years old.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "43a89868-9404-4702-bbea-f1da44295b5e", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Dengue is an infectious disease endemic in certain communities. When 38% of the population of a community has said disease, we talk about:", "Options": { "A": "Holoendemia", "B": "Hyperendemia", "C": "Mesoendemia.", "D": "Hypoendemia", "E": "Pandemic." }, "Correct Answer": "Mesoendemia.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d5aab13b-94d9-4a25-815c-b5f235aadb2c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Taking into account the WHO classification of methods and means of education for health, campaigns to prevent traffic accidents carried out on television are considered a method:", "Options": { "A": "Indirect and visual", "B": "Direct and visual", "C": "Indirect and audiovisual.", "D": "Mixed.", "E": "Mixed, sound, visual and audiovisual." }, "Correct Answer": "Indirect and audiovisual.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e92c8830-3e61-4a7f-97fa-2cb8f4bdb276", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the article 15 of the Law of Prevention of Labor Risks, it is NOT considered a principle in the preventive activity:", "Options": { "A": "Avoid the risks and fight them from their origin.", "B": "Adapt the job to the person.", "C": "Adopt measures that put individual protection before collective protection.", "D": "Substitute the dangerous for what it means little or no danger.", "E": "Training of workers" }, "Correct Answer": "Adopt measures that put individual protection before collective protection.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0529bc24-0f2a-49c4-935c-3c5c28d8f310", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The least effective prevention measure in the appearance of an outbreak of salmonellosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Active immunization to the population at risk.", "B": "Rigorous and frequent hand washing, as well as utensils and surfaces that will be used for cooking.", "C": "Keep food in the refrigerator.", "D": "Cook food with sufficient temperature (at least 70ºC).", "E": "Quick refrigeration of cooked foods." }, "Correct Answer": "Active immunization to the population at risk.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0a7b8bf3-624f-481f-bd0e-49c58b2f213a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the health diagnosis of a community, if the objective is to know how the environment influences the community, the indicator that must be included in the analysis is:", "Options": { "A": "Unemployment rate.", "B": "Geographic characteristics.", "C": "General structure of the population.", "D": "Fertility rate.", "E": "Population correctly vaccinated." }, "Correct Answer": "Geographic characteristics.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "416bd884-f5b1-49d8-8f53-57fea2c0f339", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the Portfolio of Primary Care Services:", "Options": { "A": "It is the selection of services prioritized and organized in a specific way, which responds exclusively to health policy priorities.", "B": "The basic unit of the Portfolio of Services is a set of activities or action criteria that guide the attention to a problem or process of clinical or preventive health with specification of the population to which it is directed.", "C": "The general structure may have variants depending on the service in question or the different Autonomous Communities.", "D": "Its purpose is to promote the attention of the most frequent and relevant processes in PA in accordance with agreed scientific and technical criteria.", "E": "It reduces the avoidable clinical variability and facilitates equity in the provision of services." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the selection of services prioritized and organized in a specific way, which responds exclusively to health policy priorities.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b0783654-c90c-4658-964f-f8070054566c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the sources used to make the diagnosis of health of a community, it is essential to know:", "Options": { "A": "Census of the population.", "B": "Notifiable diseases registration.", "C": "Potable water supply.", "D": "Waiting lists.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b225ce09-40ba-418d-bb12-fcae0dfc4ef0", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The quotient between the number of live births registered in a year and the female population of reproductive age (15-49 years) refers to the concept of:", "Options": { "A": "Crude birth rate.", "B": "General fertility rate.", "C": "Synthetic fertility index.", "D": "Gross reproduction rate.", "E": "Net reproduction rate." }, "Correct Answer": "General fertility rate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "78896e24-6c54-4934-b01e-0d546d4ede9a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "If in an epidemiological study, the participating population has voluntariness as an inclusion criterion, the validity of the results are subject to a bias of:", "Options": { "A": "Information.", "B": "Confusion.", "C": "Selection.", "D": "Interpretation.", "E": "Publication." }, "Correct Answer": "Selection.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "aae2e077-31a6-4b7d-aa19-dfb51eee9791", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 55-year-old man came to the nursing consultation for follow-up of newly diagnosed hypertension. In the assessment he says that he smokes 15 cigars a day. Taking advantage of the opportunity of the consultation, the nurse provides information on the importance of quitting smoking and offers support if you decide to quit. This type of EpS intervention is considered:", "Options": { "A": "Advice / Information.", "B": "Individual attention", "C": "Health promotion.", "D": "EpS sued.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Advice / Information.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a388dbdf-e5b7-4642-8a28-295cab50881b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to article 56 of the General Health Law of 1986, \"the structure responsible for the unitary management of health centers, benefits and programs to be developed in their territorial demarcation\" is:", "Options": { "A": "Comprehensive specialized care center.", "B": "Clinic.", "C": "Basic Health Area.", "D": "Primary Care Team.", "E": "Health area." }, "Correct Answer": "Health area.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "655fdd6a-e940-4039-928d-c98da320f9ea", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the epidemiological criteria of causality defined by Bradford Hill (1965) is NOT:", "Options": { "A": "Strength of association.", "B": "Temporal sequence.", "C": "Biological gradient", "D": "Cessation or reversibility effect.", "E": "Presence of alternative explanations." }, "Correct Answer": "Presence of alternative explanations.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "05484aad-cc23-4468-b29b-a84a4ca995ec", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The results of the evaluation of a prevention program carried out in a specific context, environment and population refer to the concept of:", "Options": { "A": "Effectiveness.", "B": "Efficiency.", "C": "Effectiveness.", "D": "Feasibility.", "E": "Sustainability" }, "Correct Answer": "Effectiveness.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "292e83ad-7ab8-4ede-ab96-556ef6418c6b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The demographic dynamics of a community is determined by:", "Options": { "A": "Natality", "B": "Mortality.", "C": "Immigration.", "D": "Emigration.", "E": "All are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "All are correct.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "24e8f9f1-72fb-4d25-abc3-a0f059745ba8", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is NOT considered a tertiary prevention intervention in a situation of mistreatment of women:", "Options": { "A": "Perform a periodic and systematic assessment of the indicators of abuse risk.", "B": "Perform a comprehensive physical assessment (injuries produced), psychological (emotional state) and social (social support networks).", "C": "If there is an immediate life risk, an urgent transfer to the hospital or to the guardhouse will be necessary.", "D": "Contact and inform the pediatrician if the woman has children, both because of the potential risk (when witnessing the abuse) and the possibility of being victims of it.", "E": "Inform of the legal steps." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a periodic and systematic assessment of the indicators of abuse risk.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "feb5460d-f8f5-4479-a6ab-a3b90fd0d36b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following manifestations is an emergency for the pregnant woman ?:", "Options": { "A": "Appearance of varicose veins", "B": "Leucorrhea", "C": "Polaquiuria.", "D": "Intense headache", "E": "Sickness." }, "Correct Answer": "Intense headache", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8c00fa0d-7dfa-44e4-b70d-5ec86258761a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "C. S. who is 40 weeks pregnant and gets rubella, consult with the nurse your doubts about whether you can breastfeed the newborn. What will be the response of the nurse ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is totally contraindicated.", "B": "The disease is compatible and also vaccination with breastfeeding.", "C": "You must wait until the baby is 15 days old.", "D": "It depends on the viral load.", "E": "Breastfeeding will begin 3 days after putting the gammaglobulin to the baby." }, "Correct Answer": "The disease is compatible and also vaccination with breastfeeding.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "87d23d61-5c8f-498d-ae53-52accc0f4a60", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Between 24 and 36 hours after the peak of release of the hormone LH occurs, it is triggered:", "Options": { "A": "The menstruation.", "B": "Maturation of the Graaf follicle.", "C": "The ovulation", "D": "Oogenesis", "E": "The formation of the primordial follicle." }, "Correct Answer": "The ovulation", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5bfee731-f9d3-4c4c-8f35-54c5d2370386", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the Pap test, cytological samples should be collected from:", "Options": { "A": "The vulva, the cervix and the inside of the uterine cavity.", "B": "The vaginal walls and the uterine fundus.", "C": "The inside of the cervix, the external cervical os and the posterior vaginal sac.", "D": "The vaginal introitus and the ectocervix.", "E": "The endocervix and the lateral vaginal sacs." }, "Correct Answer": "The inside of the cervix, the external cervical os and the posterior vaginal sac.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5d73e493-b125-41be-a71b-e9a2c645ef94", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Due to its high mercury content, the Spanish Agency for Food Safety and Nutrition recommends pregnant women not to consume:", "Options": { "A": "Mature soft cheeses, type Brie or Camembert.", "B": "Pate or foie gras.", "C": "Large fatty fish.", "D": "Raw sausages", "E": "Green leaf vegetables." }, "Correct Answer": "Large fatty fish.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a9ba17f7-1f89-42e6-9c85-6e81d1d47965", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The effect of anti-D gammaglobulin given to Rh negative women who have developed an Rh positive fetus is:", "Options": { "A": "Eliminate fetal red blood cells from maternal blood.", "B": "Destroy the antigens formed by the mother's immune system.", "C": "Avoid the formation of anti-Rh negative antibodies.", "D": "Induce the formation of maternal antibodies against fetal antigen.", "E": "Provide the woman with permanent active immunity." }, "Correct Answer": "Eliminate fetal red blood cells from maternal blood.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "039c922c-d01f-4917-9dc1-45e250574602", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum, the appearance of:", "Options": { "A": "Convulsive crisis.", "B": "Hyperglycemia", "C": "Dehydration", "D": "Abruptio placentae", "E": "Polyuria" }, "Correct Answer": "Dehydration", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d8a7a419-25a3-4059-aa18-0e61c4d46fe1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "For the care of the nipple cracks during lactation it is recommended:", "Options": { "A": "Washed with water and neutral pH soap after each feeding.", "B": "Spread a few drops of milk and let air dry after the tetada.", "C": "The use of healing ointments.", "D": "70º alcohol applied through sterile gauze between shots.", "E": "Apply cold between shots." }, "Correct Answer": "Spread a few drops of milk and let air dry after the tetada.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "057f50b2-db12-44c0-a6f7-74f457c458ba", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to toxoplasmosis and pregnancy, indicate which of the following options is true:", "Options": { "A": "Placental transmission to the fetus can occur.", "B": "The rate of antibodies should be detected at the beginning of pregnancy and, in their absence, vaccination with killed virus vaccine should be carried out.", "C": "The infection is less severe but more frequent the younger the pregnant woman is.", "D": "In our environment, the main cause of infection is the coexistence and management of domestic birds.", "E": "The infection occurs intrapartum, favored by the rupture of the amniotic sac." }, "Correct Answer": "Placental transmission to the fetus can occur.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1c9c87f0-c40d-43a1-8fae-724b48c0598c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "A child with gluten intolerance asks the nurse what trinkets she can take when she goes out to play with her friends:", "Options": { "A": "Snacks", "B": "Chocolates", "C": "Popcorn.", "D": "Pastries", "E": "Candies." }, "Correct Answer": "Popcorn.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dc3b6052-bc9d-4d0d-8adc-ce8e14650b0a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the exploration of psychomotor development, the area of ​​language and sociability in a four-year-old child, which of the following findings can be considered a sign of alarm in the maturation process ?:", "Options": { "A": "Abrupt stop of the acquisition of skills or loss of some already acquired.", "B": "Hyperactivity He does not know how to entertain himself, he needs constant vigilance.", "C": "Excessive sociability; he goes with anyone indiscriminately.", "D": "Repeat questions instead of answering them.", "E": "All these situations are warning signs." }, "Correct Answer": "All these situations are warning signs.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "76efe3e9-0436-49ae-b1c9-c8f125a1c871", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of foreign bodies such as small buttons, sunflower seeds, etc., in the respiratory tract in young children is a relatively frequent accident. Point out the signs that appear when these objects are lodged in the lower respiratory tract:", "Options": { "A": "Episodes of cough, hoarseness and dyspnea.", "B": "Chronic cough, hypoventilation on auscultation, signs of infection.", "C": "Asphyxia, dyspnea, cyanosis, respiratory failure.", "D": "Fever, cough and dysphonia.", "E": "Tachypnea, increased respiratory effort." }, "Correct Answer": "Chronic cough, hypoventilation on auscultation, signs of infection.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "023f3e1c-25a4-4aa8-8f8d-c66700556bdb", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following scales of pain assessment in childhood, which is recommended for school children aged 7 to 8 ?:", "Options": { "A": "NFCS scale.", "B": "Numerical or analog scale.", "C": "CHEOPS scale.", "D": "Scale Oucher.", "E": "Ladder of Wong and Baker." }, "Correct Answer": "Numerical or analog scale.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ee7b1bc8-3c75-4c9f-a5de-65a63140f433", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "With regard to child abuse, point out the aspects that indicate the non-accidental nature of injuries and suggest that they are due to mistreatment:", "Options": { "A": "Delay in asking for help or going to the consultation.", "B": "When the story of the accident or the facts is unconvincing.", "C": "The explanations given by the parents, separately, are discordant.", "D": "History with numerous accidents or traumatisms.", "E": "All the answers include situations that are associated with abuse." }, "Correct Answer": "All the answers include situations that are associated with abuse.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "aca38ffc-0f3c-43a7-a40e-ea03a434e2c3", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In our interview with a 14-year-old adolescent and her family, the following information is collected: her character has changed, she is sad and irritable; excessive worry about what you eat; obsession with the gym and stagnation or decrease in body weight, although its size has increased. The adolescent does not recognize any of these observations claiming that she is growing. We would think that:", "Options": { "A": "Although it may correspond to diagnostic criteria for an eating disorder, the signs and symptoms alone are not enough and sometimes stigmatize young people causing them suffering.", "B": "These data correspond on their own to the diagnostic criteria of Anorexia according to the DSM-IV.", "C": "These data correspond by themselves to the diagnostic criteria of Bulimia Nerviosa according to the DSM-IV.", "D": "These data are not very relevant to establish a diagnosis, so it will be less important.", "E": "All the answers are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Although it may correspond to diagnostic criteria for an eating disorder, the signs and symptoms alone are not enough and sometimes stigmatize young people causing them suffering.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3f1b492f-492b-462c-ae59-8434927b23c4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following problems of the newborn is associated with folate deficiency during the first weeks after conception ?:", "Options": { "A": "Anemia.", "B": "Defects of the neural tube.", "C": "Low birth weight", "D": "Premature delivery.", "E": "Hemorrhage of the newborn." }, "Correct Answer": "Defects of the neural tube.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a83f53a3-a5ec-4552-9057-e540647ae729", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. G. A., caregiver of his wife who suffers from Alzheimer's Disease, consults his nurse because it has started with disruptive behaviors, shouting and wandering. Point out the correct answer regarding this type of behavior:", "Options": { "A": "They are unavoidable and unpredictable.", "B": "They depend solely on anatomical alterations.", "C": "Always try to make the patient reason about their failures.", "D": "They can be a way of expressing insecurity or frustration on the part of the patient.", "E": "Pharmacological treatment is the first option to reassure the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be a way of expressing insecurity or frustration on the part of the patient.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f282e780-586d-4490-af0a-31924eb67f4a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the sensory changes that occur in vision during aging, it is correct that:", "Options": { "A": "The visual field is not modified.", "B": "The pupil is more sensitive to light, favoring glare.", "C": "The perception of depth is distorted.", "D": "The threshold for the perception of light decreases.", "E": "There is a uniform loss of perception of all colors." }, "Correct Answer": "The perception of depth is distorted.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dda11a2a-be21-4616-96ad-426782edb733", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "During the aging process there are changes in the different systems and devices, being true that in the cardiovascular system:", "Options": { "A": "Increased sensitivity of the baroreceptors intensifies postural hypotension.", "B": "The three layers of the blood vessels are affected equally in the aging process.", "C": "The left ventricle decreases in size.", "D": "The cycle of diastolic filling and systolic emptying requires less time to complete.", "E": "The atrioventricular valves suffer from sclerosis and fibrosis." }, "Correct Answer": "The atrioventricular valves suffer from sclerosis and fibrosis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "49202cdf-65ee-4db6-a008-d04e4a3394f9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the health report of Mrs. P. T. of 83 years of age, it is reported that she has a depressive picture. Regarding depression in the elderly has been described that:", "Options": { "A": "It is uncommon for them to have somatic symptoms.", "B": "It is not characteristic that cognitive disorders appear.", "C": "The Yesavage scale is an instrument to establish a safe diagnosis of depression.", "D": "There is unanimity in stating that it has specific manifestations in the elderly.", "E": "There may be pictures of pseudodementia, with symptoms of dementia but caused by depressive states." }, "Correct Answer": "There may be pictures of pseudodementia, with symptoms of dementia but caused by depressive states.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "49d0f3ac-88dd-4095-b546-2bc5347cb593", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. T. T., 92 years old, admitted to the hospitalization unit recently, has started with different symptoms that suggest that he has an acute confusional syndrome. Within the measures of prevention and care for this problem is indicated:", "Options": { "A": "Advise the family not to stop constantly stimulating the patient.", "B": "Use physical restraint in all these patients to prevent falls.", "C": "Avoid joining two patients with this problem in the same room.", "D": "Remove dental, hearing and visual prosthetics to prevent injuries.", "E": "Avoid any type of night lighting in the room to promote relaxation." }, "Correct Answer": "Avoid joining two patients with this problem in the same room.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "24f65b64-1c23-48b6-8724-d38403c63a58", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the proposal of the World Health Organization, we can affirm that the term \"active aging\":", "Options": { "A": "It is interpreted as the need to remain physically active in old age.", "B": "It aims to call a broader concept than healthy aging.", "C": "It is adopted for the first time after the Second World Assembly on aging.", "D": "It is defined as the process of promoting the health of people who age.", "E": "It aims to express the important benefits of exercise in old age." }, "Correct Answer": "It aims to call a broader concept than healthy aging.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d2716072-ce50-499a-986f-a5a6322b04e0", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Urinary incontinence affects a significant population of elderly people. When applying different behavioral therapies, we must take into consideration that urinary bladder training or bladder training:", "Options": { "A": "It can be applied if the patient is motivated and has no cognitive or physical impairment.", "B": "Improves the function of the bladder in people with functional incontinence.", "C": "It has been shown to be effective in people with cognitive deficits.", "D": "It is defined as the establishment of a predictable bladder emptying scheme.", "E": "It is defined as the improvement of the function of the bladder in any type of incontinence in people with or without cognitive impairment." }, "Correct Answer": "It can be applied if the patient is motivated and has no cognitive or physical impairment.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0fde27a7-df92-4589-84df-e9f3f17f7e5a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a hospitalization unit, 15% of elderly people with dementia enter the year, most of them in very advanced stages. Pain is a frequent symptom in this type of patients. Point out the correct answer in patients with very advanced dementia:", "Options": { "A": "Untreated pain may manifest by agitation.", "B": "The Analog Visual Scale is the most appropriate for the assessment of pain due to its simplicity.", "C": "One-dimensional subjective scales are those recommended by experts to assess pain.", "D": "There are no specifically available scales designed to assess pain.", "E": "The administration of opioids for pain control is discouraged." }, "Correct Answer": "Untreated pain may manifest by agitation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4fc8a0e3-16cc-4bac-92bf-55daaadf9924", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mrs. H. H. 69 years old complains that she does not sleep well. Regarding sleep in the elderly, it has been proven that:", "Options": { "A": "The non-pharmacological approach to insomnia has proved ineffective in this population.", "B": "The aging process is one of the main causes of insomnia.", "C": "They have a worse quality sleep, more fragmented and with early awakenings.", "D": "For the treatment of insomnia, the benzodiazepines of long half-life are those with the least side effect.", "E": "All hypnotics have the same side effects in the elderly." }, "Correct Answer": "They have a worse quality sleep, more fragmented and with early awakenings.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5c7395e6-7160-426c-8f62-41973bdc028c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct answer regarding the Lawton index as a scale of assessment in geriatrics:", "Options": { "A": "Due to its complexity to be applied, it requires that the interviewer has been previously trained.", "B": "It must always be applied by direct observation of the person evaluated.", "C": "Several of its items are related to domestic tasks.", "D": "Evaluate the advanced activities of daily life.", "E": "Many of its items value activities associated with the male role." }, "Correct Answer": "Several of its items are related to domestic tasks.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "79985ffd-e5db-4e45-ac8f-f17d841b6693", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "With what aspect does the difficulty of the elderly relate to solve new problems ?:", "Options": { "A": "Creativity.", "B": "Motivation.", "C": "Verbal fluency.", "D": "Memory.", "E": "Response time." }, "Correct Answer": "Response time.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "180c53e6-08a2-4a29-bcc7-281037487fb9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Amercian Psychiatric Association (1994) defined mental illness as:", "Options": { "A": "A syndrome that has psychological or behavioral manifestations associated with an alteration of functioning secondary to a social, psychological, genetic, physicochemical or biological anomaly.", "B": "A disorder limited exclusively to the person who suffers.", "C": "Acceptance by the patient of their actions.", "D": "The possibility of the person to cope with stress.", "E": "A disease that confines people to asylums and asylums." }, "Correct Answer": "A syndrome that has psychological or behavioral manifestations associated with an alteration of functioning secondary to a social, psychological, genetic, physicochemical or biological anomaly.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a37b66d6-d680-43a6-b8ee-a097ad91d1e9", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the field of mental health, the word chronicity:", "Options": { "A": "It is not used in relation to mental disorders.", "B": "It is replaced by the term Serious Mental Disorder (TMG).", "C": "It began to be used with psychiatric reform.", "D": "It is related to acute mental illness.", "E": "It is a neutral concept, without negative connotations." }, "Correct Answer": "It is replaced by the term Serious Mental Disorder (TMG).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9968d4aa-e94f-42ee-ae87-1519910745ab", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of nonspecific prodromes in a psychotic disorder:", "Options": { "A": "It refers to one of the three phases in which a psychotic episode evolves.", "B": "It refers to the acute phase.", "C": "It refers to the recovery phase.", "D": "It defines the abrupt onset of the first psychotic episode.", "E": "It is a phase in which the patient does not need treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "It refers to one of the three phases in which a psychotic episode evolves.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "31f66141-b1ae-44ff-8f21-689d06ed0ca5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Psychotherapeutic treatment in psychotic disorders:", "Options": { "A": "It is impossible because of the serious deterioration of the reality suffered by patients with this type of disease.", "B": "It is contraindicated.", "C": "It improves the course of the disease, prevents relapses and improves coping skills and social and work functioning.", "D": "It does not take into account family intervention, since this type of disorder is often associated with pathological families.", "E": "It refers to the establishment of training programs in social skills." }, "Correct Answer": "It improves the course of the disease, prevents relapses and improves coping skills and social and work functioning.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d15b5170-40c1-4d39-817c-a073b681cbd2", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of a mental disorder and the pathological use of toxic substances:", "Options": { "A": "It refers to the concept of Dual Pathology, a specific type of diagnostic comorbidity.", "B": "It is a pathological entity that does not exist.", "C": "It is synonymous with bipolar disorder.", "D": "It refers to elderly people who simultaneously have two or more mental illnesses.", "E": "It constitutes a diagnostic label without relevance from the clinical or social perspective." }, "Correct Answer": "It refers to the concept of Dual Pathology, a specific type of diagnostic comorbidity.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2b38356b-ec2d-4d79-bf4c-035dcc438fda", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The appearance of difficulties and respiratory infections as a consequence of the diminution of the defenses, is a dysfunction that occurs most likely in:", "Options": { "A": "Manic disorders.", "B": "Depressive disorders", "C": "Psychotic disorders", "D": "Personality disorders.", "E": "Schizophrenia." }, "Correct Answer": "Depressive disorders", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1b625a18-f678-4c66-99dd-c385d70f6760", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the nursing standard of mood disorders, in the nursing diagnosis \"Hopelessness\", it is possible to identify as intervention (CIN):", "Options": { "A": "Facilitate the duel", "B": "Self-control of aggression.", "C": "It is not possible to identify any NIC because it is a collaboration problem", "D": "Give hope and emotional support.", "E": "Management of illusory ideas." }, "Correct Answer": "Give hope and emotional support.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f6ab98ef-8a44-4963-9b22-8b09912feaa6", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the main functions of the managers or leaders of an organization ?:", "Options": { "A": "Control, supervision, information and communication.", "B": "Recruitment, selection, hiring and supervision.", "C": "Planning, organization, execution / direction and control.", "D": "Address, evaluation, authorization / denial and communication.", "E": "Hiring, training, accreditation and approval." }, "Correct Answer": "Planning, organization, execution / direction and control.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bff2f538-20ee-436e-8e65-b327b4b05df4", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the name of the structure type of an organization, in which each person no longer depends exclusively on a single boss, but can also be affected by different projects and statutes, during a variable or fixed time ?:", "Options": { "A": "Pyramidal.", "B": "Divisional.", "C": "Matrix", "D": "Organization chart of Urwick.", "E": "Functional." }, "Correct Answer": "Matrix", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e7c74782-f3c3-4398-85a2-8a954addb46c", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Scorecard is:", "Options": { "A": "The set of rules that govern the internal functioning of an institution.", "B": "A set of data and indicators, which serves as an information and control tool for management.", "C": "The list of the names and positions of the Steering Committee of an institution.", "D": "A control panel, used by the Directors of institutions, that allows them to access all electronic services and applications online.", "E": "An economic-financial report, which allows to know basically the deviations of the expenses and income of an institution." }, "Correct Answer": "A set of data and indicators, which serves as an information and control tool for management.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9509c0e1-dfea-45c1-91ce-450103869310", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is meant by \"clinical management\", as a concept linked to health management ?:", "Options": { "A": "The responsibility of health professionals in the use of resources and the introduction of the corresponding financing mechanisms.", "B": "The care management of non-surgical areas of hospitals.", "C": "The role of hospital management that specifically deals with supervising the remuneration and other working conditions of health professionals.", "D": "The care coordination of primary and specialized care centers within a health area.", "E": "The management of the care activity of a Service or Unit, without taking into account the management of resources, or administrative procedures, or any other consideration that is not the healthcare activity itself." }, "Correct Answer": "The responsibility of health professionals in the use of resources and the introduction of the corresponding financing mechanisms.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7021c3e6-7654-497c-972c-babfda33e783", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The process management is:", "Options": { "A": "A management method, aimed at sequencing the supply processes of materials to the clinical units, to reduce replacement times and storage space.", "B": "The processing of information, through electronic media, to streamline decision making between services or units that are not close to each other, valid both for the Health Center and for hospitals.", "C": "A way of managing, in which administrative procedures are prioritized, in order to place those related to the client (or user) in the foreground and the procedures related to economic-financial management are relegated to the lower level.", "D": "A work system focused on achieving the continuous improvement of the functioning of an organization through the identification, selection, description, documentation and improvement of processes.", "E": "A variant of zero-based budget planning, in which, during the planning process, it is a question of adapting the means to the objectives in each one of the Departments, Services or Units of the Institution." }, "Correct Answer": "A work system focused on achieving the continuous improvement of the functioning of an organization through the identification, selection, description, documentation and improvement of processes.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "da1753da-8ab5-4009-b1fc-64262ec28f4d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the \"Clinical Practice Guidelines\" ?:", "Options": { "A": "Manuals prepared for the \"practicum\" of postgraduate students, where standards are given and some necessary considerations are detailed for that stage of their training.", "B": "A collection of paper and digital publications in which prestigious health professionals tell experiences and expose proposals of notable interest.", "C": "Reports selected by the Care Directions of some reference hospitals, in which health professionals explain cases and significant clinical events.", "D": "A type of computer applications that allow healthcare professionals to obtain answers online, to questions they wish to ask about events that have occurred in their daily clinical practice.", "E": "A set of recommendations, designed to help both professionals and users to select the most appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic options." }, "Correct Answer": "A set of recommendations, designed to help both professionals and users to select the most appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic options.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a4486ca7-ebb4-47d4-85a1-36d0ae8cfdc5", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What role do the indicators based on \"sentinel events\" have ?:", "Options": { "A": "Detect events with serious, undesirable and, often, avoidable results.", "B": "Detect small incidents, which indicate that a procedure is not being applied properly.", "C": "Alarm systems, which remind the Services and Units of the imminent performance of a quality audit.", "D": "Economic-financial indicators, which warn that there are budget items of expenditure, which has been used above 90%.", "E": "Identify events, apparently of little importance, but that by their reiteration may require greater control." }, "Correct Answer": "Detect events with serious, undesirable and, often, avoidable results.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3866cb7c-6975-412b-a9e3-63f09ee264ab", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the perspective of health management, what do the initials GRD correspond to ?:", "Options": { "A": "An international radiodiagnosis network based on teleradiology.", "B": "The online reports provided by the advanced information system of some hospitals, on the availability of beds, operating rooms and high-tech diagnostic tests.", "C": "A report prepared by the Ministry of Health, which contains the conclusions of a panel of experts, which recommends strategies on Information Technology and Communications.", "D": "An organism, dependent on the World Health Organization specialized in health information systems.", "E": "A classification system for patients with episodes of hospitalization." }, "Correct Answer": "A classification system for patients with episodes of hospitalization.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7bd26b3f-a729-49a6-82c0-24c8224261cd", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct answer regarding the pancreas:", "Options": { "A": "Your alpha cells secrete insulin.", "B": "Its F cells produce somatostatin, which accelerates the secretion of glucagon.", "C": "Your alpha cells secrete glucagon, which increases the concentration of blood glucose.", "D": "It is an exclusively endocrine gland.", "E": "Its delta cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide." }, "Correct Answer": "Your alpha cells secrete glucagon, which increases the concentration of blood glucose.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a33fd3c1-7e90-40dd-a3bf-1cb41fb31ef7", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the primary prevention measures of skin cancer:", "Options": { "A": "Avoid sun exposure between 12 and 15 hours.", "B": "Application of sun creams with high sun protection index, 15 minutes before exposure.", "C": "Use photoprotection to increase the time of exposure to the sun.", "D": "Use sunglasses, hats and appropriate clothing, as well as awnings and umbrellas.", "E": "Do not expose babies to the sun or to those who are being treated with immunosuppressants." }, "Correct Answer": "Use photoprotection to increase the time of exposure to the sun.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c6903724-f821-4300-bf80-5715721d0270", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "The patient's desire not to be informed:", "Options": { "A": "It is regulated by law only for exceptional cases.", "B": "It is not regulated in any way by law.", "C": "The professional obligation is to always inform you, even if you do not want to.", "D": "It is a right that the law grants to all people.", "E": "They must be reported to the judicial authority." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a right that the law grants to all people.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "db1689cb-fb5c-4914-b9b8-90fed9cc7524", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "When choosing the most appropriate intervention, when the NANDA, NOC, and NIC classifications are used together, the fundamental reference element is:", "Options": { "A": "The diagnosis.", "B": "The patient's preferences", "C": "The objects of the plan.", "D": "The result.", "E": "The activities that can be carried out." }, "Correct Answer": "The result.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4b02dae3-2a42-4e98-af7f-d4dd95dda10a", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Menopause is diagnosed by:", "Options": { "A": "The presence of more frequent and abundant cycles of what corresponds to each woman's own pattern.", "B": "The absence of menstruation in twelve consecutive months.", "C": "Symptoms derived from estrogen deprivation, such as insomnia, hot flashes or dry skin and mucous membranes.", "D": "The spacing of the rules, which are becoming increasingly infrequent.", "E": "Hormonal analyzes, densitometry, mammography and cytology." }, "Correct Answer": "The absence of menstruation in twelve consecutive months.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7eb2d4f4-b440-474a-8f50-91f27d356186", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is one of the emerging health problems. Indicate with which of the following activities the family nurse can advance their detection and approach:", "Options": { "A": "Carefully review milestones of development and acquisition of social skills, since from birth they show symptoms.", "B": "Pay attention to family information about rude motor development, since early and unambiguous signs of ADHD usually appear.", "C": "Observing and carefully assessing the child, regarding their distractions, impulsivity and their ability to concentrate and answer our questions.", "D": "Assess the activities in the consultation of all children because those who suffer ADHD are always hyperactive and aggressive and register them as such.", "E": "The answers 1 and 2 are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Observing and carefully assessing the child, regarding their distractions, impulsivity and their ability to concentrate and answer our questions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7b65b0d2-fa72-4f1b-9f48-ee4c3299ac2b", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What psychosocial theory considers as maladjusted to the elderly who try to maintain previous levels and patterns of activity:", "Options": { "A": "Activity.", "B": "Empty of roles.", "C": "Continuity.", "D": "De-linking", "E": "Structured dependence." }, "Correct Answer": "De-linking", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8f1a3c46-7d24-4770-9791-a5e17d8c7425", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "What does the measurement of skinfolds estimate ?:", "Options": { "A": "The body mass", "B": "The total body fat.", "C": "The lean mass.", "D": "The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass.", "E": "The fat-free mass." }, "Correct Answer": "The total body fat.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2a5167d4-7823-4766-8194-b4410a6edda1", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "If you want to help improve the self-esteem of the patient you are treating, you can:", "Options": { "A": "Use Johari's window to promote self-knowledge.", "B": "Get the ideal self and the real me not too close.", "C": "Help him to focus on himself exclusively and not to recognize the influence of external factors.", "D": "Invite him not to interact with others assertively.", "E": "Even if the person does not want or has an authentic desire to know himself, he does not affect self-knowledge." }, "Correct Answer": "Use Johari's window to promote self-knowledge.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6a884c36-e37e-470e-890c-e58754675791", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following criteria does NOT correspond to any of the nine established in the Model of the European Foundation for Quality Management (EFQM):", "Options": { "A": "Leadership.", "B": "People.", "C": "Processes, products and services.", "D": "Efficiency.", "E": "Key results" }, "Correct Answer": "Efficiency.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ba4e96ee-484f-44b3-a207-91e3bba8981d", "topic_name": "nursery" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sumatriptan is a first generation anti-migrant triptan, structurally characterized by having a heterocycle:", "Options": { "A": "Imidazoic", "B": "Piperidinic", "C": "Indic.", "D": "Pirrólico.", "E": "Oxazolic." }, "Correct Answer": "Indic.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "81fec532-8bc0-4435-9a64-0fcbb6910e17", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the chemical basis for the reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by the alkaloid physostigmine and related compounds ?:", "Options": { "A": "Allosteric inhibition of the enzyme.", "B": "Covalent binding to a cofactor essential for the reaction.", "C": "Coordination of an Mg2 + cation in the active center of the enzyme.", "D": "Analogy with the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme.", "E": "Formation of a carbamate (carbamoylation) of the serine residue in the active center of the enzyme." }, "Correct Answer": "Formation of a carbamate (carbamoylation) of the serine residue in the active center of the enzyme.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "350178fa-a4ce-41c1-9393-ebff430f54e4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "(-) - Deprenyl (or selegiline) is a propargylamine that is used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease because it is:", "Options": { "A": "Dopamine D2 receptor agonist.", "B": "Dopamine antagonist.", "C": "COMT inhibitor.", "D": "Dopamine prodrug.", "E": "Suicide inhibitor of the MAO-B." }, "Correct Answer": "Suicide inhibitor of the MAO-B.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d6888376-85b5-4eca-957c-d627167790ec", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The antitussive dextromethorphan is an enantiomer of the O-methylated derivative of levorphanol that belongs to the structural family of:", "Options": { "A": "6,7-Benzomorpanos.", "B": "Morfinanos.", "C": "4-Phenylpiperidines.", "D": "Phenylpropalamine.", "E": "Oripavinas." }, "Correct Answer": "Morfinanos.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "816897da-b7ea-4e06-88ae-cb83ee3a9e8e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Bortezomib is a proteasome inhibitor approved to treat multiple myeloma. What type of acid group is present in its structure and is necessary for its activity ?:", "Options": { "A": "Boronic.", "B": "Phosphonic", "C": "Sulfinic", "D": "Carb", "E": "Carboxylic" }, "Correct Answer": "Boronic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "aff51cc3-7ffe-4b2f-9e3c-a56c1f3824df", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The 2,4-diaminopteridine systems, such as aminopterin or methotrexate, are good antitumor agents since they reduce the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidines by inhibiting the enzyme:", "Options": { "A": "Timidylate synthetase", "B": "Aromatase", "C": "Topoisomerase", "D": "Reverse transcriptase", "E": "Dihydrofolate reductase." }, "Correct Answer": "Dihydrofolate reductase.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "529d42c8-75b3-4dd5-bfd1-b73e9d4ace12", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Aflatoxin B1 is a natural product that owes its toxicity to a product of its metabolism, very reactive, of the nature of:", "Options": { "A": "1,2-Diol.", "B": "Quinonymine", "C": "Epoxide", "D": "Α, β-unsaturated carbonyl.", "E": "Radical hydroperoxide." }, "Correct Answer": "Epoxide", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "533437c7-628a-4f00-b48d-e5334c8590ba", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why does carbenicillin have a low antibacterial activity by mouth ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is degraded by beta-lactamases in the digestive system.", "B": "He undergoes first-pass hepatic oxidative metabolism.", "C": "It binds covalently to plasma proteins.", "D": "It is decarboxylated in the acid medium of the stomach giving rise to benzylpenicillin, which is also unstable in that medium.", "E": "It is highly lipophilic, which is why it is not released correctly from oral administration forms." }, "Correct Answer": "It is decarboxylated in the acid medium of the stomach giving rise to benzylpenicillin, which is also unstable in that medium.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a474bdf9-6b47-40cc-8377-af0f653232ce", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Atenolol is an antihypertensive β-antagonist that belongs to the structural family:", "Options": { "A": "Arylethanolamines", "B": "Quinazolines", "C": "β-Haloalkylamines.", "D": "Aryloxypropanolamines.", "E": "2-Imidazolines." }, "Correct Answer": "Aryloxypropanolamines.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7f9b067b-8ab4-4f7c-a62f-d7d282d4f8c0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sulfasalazine is used for the treatment of ulcerative colitis. It is a prodrug of 5-aminosalicylic acid that is activated by a process of:", "Options": { "A": "Hydrolysis of an ester.", "B": "Hydrolysis of an amide.", "C": "Oxidative dealkylation.", "D": "Reducing rupture of the azoderivative.", "E": "Aromatic hydroxylation." }, "Correct Answer": "Reducing rupture of the azoderivative.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "666eec71-6a81-4df7-ba6f-0eaa595f0e54", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the purpose of the phthalyl group in phthalisulfatiazole ?:", "Options": { "A": "Improve intestinal absorption.", "B": "Prevent intestinal absorption.", "C": "Improve the passage through the blood-brain barrier.", "D": "Prevent passage through the blood-brain barrier.", "E": "Increase the affinity towards the therapeutic target of the drug." }, "Correct Answer": "Prevent intestinal absorption.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2472fce6-871d-4c83-ac84-5a9c1a08fc54", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following reactions of drug metabolism has an oxidation reaction as an intermediate step ?:", "Options": { "A": "The transformation of a nitro group (for example, the one existing in nitrofurantoin) into amino.", "B": "The O-demethylation of an ether (for example, the transformation of codeine into morphine).", "C": "The breaking down of a diazo group to originate an amine (for example, the transformation of Prontosilrubrum into sulfanilamide.", "D": "The transformation of oxazepam in its glucuronide.", "E": "The transformation of acetylcholine into choline." }, "Correct Answer": "The O-demethylation of an ether (for example, the transformation of codeine into morphine).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a919f9c2-b92a-49bd-b4b0-200f32d10b86", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 5-year-old boy with symptoms of possible meningitis is seen in an emergency department. Gram-negative diplococci and abundant polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed in the Gram stain of the cerebrospinal fluid sediment. What microorganism does it suggest as a possible cause of the infection ?:", "Options": { "A": "Haemophilus influenzae.", "B": "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "C": "Streptococcus agalactiae.", "D": "Neisseria meningitidis.", "E": "Listeria monocytogenes." }, "Correct Answer": "Neisseria meningitidis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "624b1db4-d802-4277-8c99-5e3f137e22ad", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Echinocandins are antifungal compounds that act by inhibiting:", "Options": { "A": "The synthesis of ergosterol.", "B": "The synthesis of the cell wall.", "C": "The synthesis of DNA.", "D": "The synthesis of proteins.", "E": "The formation of microtubules." }, "Correct Answer": "The synthesis of the cell wall.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e86a5663-0d08-4167-a742-4af31824d909", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is onychomycosis ?:", "Options": { "A": "An infection of the oral mucosa and gums of infants produced by Candida albicans.", "B": "A brain abscess in immunosuppressed caused by Aspergillus spp.", "C": "An infection of the nails by fungi dermatophytes.", "D": "A serious variety of acne in which fungal species also participate.", "E": "A lung infection caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii." }, "Correct Answer": "An infection of the nails by fungi dermatophytes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cfa72130-6a7b-4fbb-b38d-3e7f2a101727", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ceftazidime is an antibiotic of choice in the treatment of infections due to:", "Options": { "A": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae.", "B": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "C": "Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).", "D": "Chlamydia trachomatis.", "E": "Mycobacterium tuberculosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "418d795b-e79e-42fb-b1ec-53dc2bba7214", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following vertebrate viruses has as genetic material single-stranded RNA ?:", "Options": { "A": "Papilloma virus.", "B": "Smallpox virus", "C": "HIV.", "D": "Human rotavirus.", "E": "Epstein-Barr virus." }, "Correct Answer": "HIV.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "97310049-266a-4cfd-a002-5aa71c9bfd45", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The dipicolinic acid is:", "Options": { "A": "One of the first antibiotics of the quinolones group.", "B": "A compound characteristic of bacterial endospores.", "C": "A reserve compound present in the metachromatic corpuscles.", "D": "An acid polysaccharide present in the wall of Gram positive.", "E": "One of the amino acids of Gram negative peptidoglycan." }, "Correct Answer": "A compound characteristic of bacterial endospores.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1b8d0849-f602-48e7-8b29-a167f46b39ee", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Streptococcus pyogenes strains that produce erythrogenic toxin are responsible for:", "Options": { "A": "Erysipelas.", "B": "Rheumatic fever.", "C": "Impetigo.", "D": "Glomerulonephritis", "E": "Scarlet fever." }, "Correct Answer": "Scarlet fever.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7dba90ef-bf28-4e2e-9be8-1d2dca9c43e6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From a microbial growth control point of view, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "Pasteurization is a method of sterilization for liquid substances.", "B": "The overpressure is what kills the microorganisms when the autoclave is used.", "C": "Antiseptic agents are applied to living tissues.", "D": "The autoclave is the recommended method for sterilizing thermosensitive liquids.", "E": "The use of ultraviolet radiation is due to its high penetration power." }, "Correct Answer": "Antiseptic agents are applied to living tissues.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2f0cd756-06e0-438f-86c1-2a245c3d4eb3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following descriptions is correct for Staphylococcus saprophyticus ?:", "Options": { "A": "It has a coconut shape and is grouped in chains.", "B": "It is found in the group of so-called \"coagulase-positive staphylococci\".", "C": "Unlike other staphylococci it does not grow on blood agar.", "D": "It causes urinary infection in young women.", "E": "It produces the exfoliatin toxin that causes the \"scalded skin syndrome\"." }, "Correct Answer": "It causes urinary infection in young women.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "aa8c9372-3410-4a86-a29d-2fc10677eb89", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these characteristics do bacterial exotoxins have ?:", "Options": { "A": "They have all the Gram negative bacteria.", "B": "They are lipidic in nature.", "C": "They are located in the outer membrane.", "D": "They introduce a weak immune response.", "E": "Some are used inactivated as a vaccine." }, "Correct Answer": "Some are used inactivated as a vaccine.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "57300201-1874-4d4e-84ef-64ef451d1aaa", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The calcofluor white stain allows observing:", "Options": { "A": "Spirochetes", "B": "Bacterial endospores.", "C": "Bacterial flagella.", "D": "Hyphae of filamentous fungi.", "E": "Metachromatic corpuscles." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyphae of filamentous fungi.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "393a66cf-de61-4485-9eef-8765985d5f1a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which Clostridium genus is a producer of enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B responsible for diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis) associated with treatment with antimicrobials ?:", "Options": { "A": "Clostridium perfringens.", "B": "Clostridium difficile.", "C": "Clostridium botulinum.", "D": "Clostridium novyi.", "E": "Clostridium histolyticum." }, "Correct Answer": "Clostridium difficile.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "317ecce5-cf35-4120-abb9-0dfc11ee9303", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma are related to infection by:", "Options": { "A": "Herpes human virus type 6.", "B": "Cytomegalovirus.", "C": "Respiratory syncytial virus.", "D": "Epstein-Barr virus.", "E": "HIV." }, "Correct Answer": "Epstein-Barr virus.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "abd90de9-c2c1-4a07-b464-81590ca06522", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following filariasis is diagnosed by finding microfilariae in the skin:", "Options": { "A": "Loa loa", "B": "Wuchereria bancrofti.", "C": "Brugia malayi", "D": "Mansonella perstans.", "E": "Onchocerca volvulus." }, "Correct Answer": "Onchocerca volvulus.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e058f860-a04e-45d2-9c09-123e23e3efd3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The biological cycle of Trichinella spiralis is of the following type:", "Options": { "A": "Stenoxene", "B": "Optional.", "C": "Triheteroxene", "D": "Autoheteroxene", "E": "Heterogónico." }, "Correct Answer": "Autoheteroxene", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "155a84a2-ef89-4a8f-b13b-9868845219a4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The dye-test (Sanbin-Feldman test) is the reference method for the diagnosis of:", "Options": { "A": "Cryptosporidiosis.", "B": "Sarcocystosis", "C": "Malaria.", "D": "Toxoplasmosis", "E": "Cyclosporosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Toxoplasmosis", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "eff84792-8dd6-4ed8-a264-918ec6f03326", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In Chagas Disease, the \"Sign of Romagna\" is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "An acute systemic lymphadenitis.", "B": "A unilateral biparpebral edema.", "C": "Acute myocarditis", "D": "A complete auroventricular block.", "E": "A granulomatous meningoencephalitis." }, "Correct Answer": "A unilateral biparpebral edema.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "229e2080-d3cf-447d-8434-9f4a56d71f2c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence of digestive tract with branched caeca extending to the posterior end of the adult worm is characteristic of the species:", "Options": { "A": "Hepatic fasciola.", "B": "Fasciolopsis buski.", "C": "Dicrocoelium dentriticum.", "D": "Paragonimus westermani.", "E": "Clonorchis sinensis." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepatic fasciola.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bd96d07c-141a-4f26-9752-5fade1c6c498", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Fluid bed dryers are recommended for substances:", "Options": { "A": "With high heat of fusion.", "B": "Free flowing", "C": "Termolábiles.", "D": "Insoluble.", "E": "Permeable to moisture." }, "Correct Answer": "Termolábiles.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "93fcfb33-99a9-4df9-ab9b-5e48987c07ef", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the filtration process, the flow velocity is:", "Options": { "A": "Directly proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited.", "B": "Directly proportional to the amount of materials in suspension.", "C": "Dependent on the degree of ionization of the substance to be filtered.", "D": "Dependent on the ambient temperature.", "E": "Inversely proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited." }, "Correct Answer": "Inversely proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5e54b7c9-7454-46f3-b272-5d5729014c97", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "By means of the angular methods used to evaluate the flow properties of a powder, it is determined:", "Options": { "A": "The ease with which the solid sets in motion.", "B": "The angle of repose.", "C": "The flow velocity", "D": "The resistance to displacement.", "E": "The density of the powder." }, "Correct Answer": "The angle of repose.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8a52100d-cf0b-4bec-9cce-71e260c467fa", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Porous glass filters of 10-40μm are used in particular in:", "Options": { "A": "Analytical filtering.", "B": "Fine filtration", "C": "Help for other filtering materials.", "D": "Ultra-thin filtration", "E": "Separation of large diameter microorganisms." }, "Correct Answer": "Analytical filtering.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "773cffbd-75e6-4860-af09-35e2307c5d1d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ophthalmological ointments:", "Options": { "A": "They may contain solid particles but only with a controlled size.", "B": "They do not need to be sterile.", "C": "They require the test of pyrogens.", "D": "They can not be W / O emulsions.", "E": "Always your excipients must be fatty" }, "Correct Answer": "They may contain solid particles but only with a controlled size.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c53afd6b-7438-4c47-96fe-f9458e16b9c1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The water used in the preparation of medicated syrups must:", "Options": { "A": "Be sterile", "B": "Be purified or distilled water.", "C": "It is highly recommended that it contain dissolved carbon dioxide.", "D": "Contain dissolved calcium ions.", "E": "Contain an adequate proportion of magnesium ions." }, "Correct Answer": "Be purified or distilled water.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1e625485-f638-4938-8b13-a9bc8d9e0fb5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The angular methods for evaluating the flow properties of pulverulent solids allow the determination of the angle of repose parameter. A mixture of pulverulent substances presents a good or optimum flow if the values ​​of this parameter (in degrees) are:", "Options": { "A": "Over 40", "B": "Between 45 and 55", "C": "Between 38 and 45.", "D": "Over 37", "E": "Near or under 25" }, "Correct Answer": "Near or under 25", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "45381d50-0907-4c23-9a39-825f45c01d2f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ascorbic acid esters are used in Pharmaceutical Technology as:", "Options": { "A": "Reducers", "B": "Blockers", "C": "Synergists", "D": "Chelators", "E": "Antiseptics" }, "Correct Answer": "Blockers", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f613e4fb-7e3d-4cd3-8aff-98f5b05910db", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Steric stabilization in dispersed systems is:", "Options": { "A": "More effective in aqueous dispersions.", "B": "More effective with volume fractions of small particles.", "C": "Effective in aqueous and non-aqueous dispersions.", "D": "Coagulates by adding electrolytes.", "E": "Susceptible to reversible coagulation." }, "Correct Answer": "Effective in aqueous and non-aqueous dispersions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8a81446d-fc07-4a80-8423-8e48dfba195e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What taste do you think can mask the bitter taste of an oral solution:", "Options": { "A": "Licorice.", "B": "Apricot.", "C": "Vanilla.", "D": "Anise.", "E": "Raspberry." }, "Correct Answer": "Anise.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "eafa982f-8b08-45da-8808-fd0efb11dae4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sulfamethoxazole is microencapsulated by complex coacervation using:", "Options": { "A": "Gelatin and gum arabic.", "B": "Albumin and gum arabic.", "C": "Gelatine and sodium alginate.", "D": "Pectin and gelatin.", "E": "Gum arabic and pectin." }, "Correct Answer": "Gelatin and gum arabic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b9accc15-5533-43c2-b267-038c4b8313a5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the main phases of extrusion and spheronization we have:", "Options": { "A": "Dry mix, wet kneading and compaction.", "B": "Wet kneading, compaction and drying.", "C": "Wet mixing, compaction, and drying.", "D": "Wet kneading, drying and sieving.", "E": "Kneading dry, drying and sieving." }, "Correct Answer": "Wet kneading, drying and sieving.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "64bed333-0029-42dd-beab-09aecadb3b3e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A tablet with gastrosoluble film cover is being designed. Which of the following excipients exerts the function of plasticizer in said cover ?:", "Options": { "A": "Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose.", "B": "Methylcellulose", "C": "Copolymer of methacrylic acid (Eudragit® E30D (A))", "D": "Polyethylene glycol", "E": "Titanium oxide." }, "Correct Answer": "Polyethylene glycol", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9cd25be3-2eb8-48bf-8447-04d7217fe11d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the components of injectable formulations are preservatives. This category includes different excipients with different mechanisms of action. Which of the following is used as a chelating agent ?:", "Options": { "A": "Butylhydroxyanisole.", "B": "Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid.", "C": "Ascorbic acid.", "D": "Propyl gelate", "E": "Tocopherol." }, "Correct Answer": "Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b410c827-990f-4bbe-b3eb-67e9482d7b56", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why do ovarian cycles not appear in nursing mothers for several months after birth ?:", "Options": { "A": "For stress and lack of sleep associated with breastfeeding.", "B": "Because there are low levels of FSH and LH.", "C": "Because there are high levels of oxytocin.", "D": "By saving iron that is derived from breastfeeding.", "E": "Because there are high levels of progesterone." }, "Correct Answer": "Because there are low levels of FSH and LH.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f651f91f-4f9a-42dc-a32a-e7bb66902b0c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What transport system do thyroid follicular cells use to capture iodide through its basal pole ?:", "Options": { "A": "A primary active transporter.", "B": "An iodide exchanger with chloride.", "C": "A transporter called pendrina.", "D": "A process of pinocytosis.", "E": "A sodium iodide carrier." }, "Correct Answer": "A sodium iodide carrier.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0bce056e-19e1-45e3-be38-efdbd66e8ae8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the maximum volume of air that a subject can breathe out after maximum inspiration ?:", "Options": { "A": "Total lung capacity.", "B": "Expiratory reserve volume.", "C": "Inspiratory capacity", "D": "Vital capacity", "E": "Residual volume" }, "Correct Answer": "Vital capacity", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b04d754e-13ca-48aa-9b23-2e6ae5d656f3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following moments of the electrocardiogram corresponds to the depolarization stage of the ventricular myocardium ?:", "Options": { "A": "Onda P.", "B": "Onda T.", "C": "Segment T-P.", "D": "Segment P-Q.", "E": "QRS wave." }, "Correct Answer": "QRS wave.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fd703c37-0426-4332-bb44-b1e0b5439603", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the closest distance to the eye to which an image can be focused correctly on the retina ?:", "Options": { "A": "Far optical point.", "B": "Depth of focus.", "C": "Close point of accommodation.", "D": "Focal distance.", "E": "Ocular emmetropia." }, "Correct Answer": "Close point of accommodation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "50d0dffb-2a94-45e3-be3a-586255e8b78f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The bile produced by the liver is stored in the gallbladder from where it is secreted into the duodenum when the muscles involved receive this order in the form of hormonal and nervous signals mediated by:", "Options": { "A": "Colecitocinin and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation.", "B": "Pancreozimine and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation.", "C": "Secretin and parasympathetic activation.", "D": "Cholecystokinin and parasympathetic activation.", "E": "Secretin and alphaadrenergic sympathetic activation." }, "Correct Answer": "Cholecystokinin and parasympathetic activation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "653f67a3-f3b5-4e96-985f-44bf629f7344", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the components of a functional heme group ?:", "Options": { "A": "Four molecules of bilirubin and one Fe3 +.", "B": "Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe3 +.", "C": "One molecule of protoporphyrin and one Fe2 +.", "D": "One molecule of bilirubin and one Fe2 +.", "E": "Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe2 +." }, "Correct Answer": "One molecule of protoporphyrin and one Fe2 +.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0ec667cd-52fd-4d02-92a3-030c420cd88f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the average life time of an erythrocyte:", "Options": { "A": "Four months.", "B": "Four weeks.", "C": "One year.", "D": "Sixty days", "E": "Two weeks." }, "Correct Answer": "Four months.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "607541f7-05a2-4c40-8b5d-3f798e5f0274", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What percentage of the bicarbonate filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed under normal conditions along the nephron and in which segment is most of this reabsorption produced ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is reabsorbed almost 100%, mostly in the collector duct.", "B": "Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule.", "C": "Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the distal convoluted tubule.", "D": "Less than 20% is reabsorbed, mostly in the collecting duct.", "E": "It is almost 100% reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule." }, "Correct Answer": "It is almost 100% reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "039d55ac-c60e-4141-b7ce-2d98fc275876", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From what compound and where mainly melatonin is produced ?:", "Options": { "A": "From tyrosine in the skin.", "B": "From tryptophan in the skin", "C": "From tryptophan in the pineal gland.", "D": "From tyrosine in the pituitary gland.", "E": "From tyrosine in the pineal gland." }, "Correct Answer": "From tryptophan in the pineal gland.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "eeaaa30e-6349-4afe-84da-4a3a4054888e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of receptor is responsible for activating most of the responses to the hormone T3 ?:", "Options": { "A": "A protein G.", "B": "An ABC protein.", "C": "A nuclear receiver.", "D": "A receiver coupled to an ion channel.", "E": "A plasma membrane glycoprotein." }, "Correct Answer": "A nuclear receiver.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d19871b3-5198-40c6-9828-d42d80e9edfb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a glycogenosis:", "Options": { "A": "Hexokinase.", "B": "Hexosaminidase.", "C": "Glucose 6-phosphatase.", "D": "Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase", "E": "Fructokinase" }, "Correct Answer": "Glucose 6-phosphatase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a5c28cb2-d6ac-45db-b4b5-1cdf734c55c9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following will be the most likely diagnosis if an individual has a lipoprotein lipase deficiency:", "Options": { "A": "Type I dyslipidemia", "B": "Type IIa dyslipidemia.", "C": "Type III dyslipidemia.", "D": "Abetalipoproteinemia.", "E": "Tangier disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Type I dyslipidemia", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f9d85500-5ffe-474b-bf17-1e4d547795ec", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The BRCA-1 gene mutation is associated with a high risk of:", "Options": { "A": "Acute myocardial infarction.", "B": "Breast cancer", "C": "Alzheimer disease.", "D": "Parkinson's disease", "E": "Tay-Sach disease." }, "Correct Answer": "Breast cancer", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0d0fac96-dbd9-4195-8994-e419d189840a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Becker muscular dystrophy is an alteration of:", "Options": { "A": "The skeletal muscle.", "B": "The metabolism of lipids.", "C": "The bones.", "D": "Hepatic origin.", "E": "The bilirubin." }, "Correct Answer": "The skeletal muscle.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5491759a-7ddd-4233-8e97-afdfb4713bb1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease:", "Options": { "A": "GLUT2 deficiency.", "B": "HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase).", "C": "Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase).", "D": "Basic amino acid transporter deficit.", "E": "Sphingolipidosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Sphingolipidosis", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b9846d65-66df-4813-aea3-9f131312d4a5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following disorders will cause jaundice:", "Options": { "A": "Gilbert's syndrome.", "B": "Zellweger syndrome.", "C": "Hashimoto's thyroiditis.", "D": "Cushing's disease", "E": "Alcaptonuria." }, "Correct Answer": "Gilbert's syndrome.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "525985dc-73c5-4339-9dda-acdff40fd87c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following deficits is an alteration of the mucopolysaccharide metabolism:", "Options": { "A": "Pyruvate kinase deficiency.", "B": "Deficiency of branching enzyme.", "C": "Sphingomyelinase deficiency.", "D": "N-acetylneuraminidase deficiency.", "E": "N-acetylglucosaminidase deficiency." }, "Correct Answer": "N-acetylglucosaminidase deficiency.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7be571db-705f-4aee-85e6-94bc0e68b6d9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria:", "Options": { "A": "Phenylalanine hydroxylase.", "B": "21 α-hydroxylase.", "C": "Ferrochelatase", "D": "Glucokinase.", "E": "Tyrosine hydroxylase." }, "Correct Answer": "Ferrochelatase", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "624fac65-7d3f-4d70-bf39-9bd0c04fbc87", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following alterations of the metabolism can occur with gout:", "Options": { "A": "Metabolism of porphyrins.", "B": "Metabolism of acid amino acids.", "C": "Metabolism of basic amino acids.", "D": "Metabolism of glycogen.", "E": "Metabolism of purines." }, "Correct Answer": "Metabolism of purines.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "624b06d7-51fb-4adc-a6cf-f2b9897060c0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following is a mitochondrial disease:", "Options": { "A": "α-thalassemia", "B": "Essential fructosuria.", "C": "Leigh syndrome.", "D": "Cushing's syndrome.", "E": "Sickle cell anemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Leigh syndrome.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c0cc1991-d5d6-4567-8fca-760756558d9f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following is an acquired corpuscular hemolytic anemia:", "Options": { "A": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.", "B": "Deficit of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase.", "C": "Minkowski-Chauffard disease", "D": "Sickle-cell anaemia.", "E": "Pyruvatokinase deficiency." }, "Correct Answer": "Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b2916ce2-abb2-41a8-a723-9af4611fc257", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "As inclusion of plasma cells, the presence of:", "Options": { "A": "Pelger-Huët anomaly.", "B": "Alder-Reilly anomaly.", "C": "Canes de Auer.", "D": "Howell's bodies.", "E": "Russell's bodies." }, "Correct Answer": "Russell's bodies.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "de8b4a7d-97aa-4559-b6c5-74946d55fb42", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The translocation t (11; 14) is characteristic of mantle lymphoma. Which fusion protein originates, capable of promoting the cells towards the S phase of the cell cycle ?:", "Options": { "A": "BCL-2", "B": "Beta-2-microglobulin.", "C": "Cyclin D1.", "D": "Transreticulin.", "E": "ALK protein." }, "Correct Answer": "Cyclin D1.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7209b05f-54cb-4ae2-8e01-4be47485b2ac", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following laboratory tests is of choice in the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemias due to hot antibodies ?:", "Options": { "A": "Ham's test", "B": "Test of Coombs.", "C": "Autohemolysis test with glucose.", "D": "Osmotic resistance test.", "E": "Electrophoresis of membrane proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "Test of Coombs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6903e960-15b7-4257-beaf-26dabe4622ec", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with sepsis and coagulopathy of consumption, which of the following analytical tests would indicate a state of hyperfibrinolysis ?:", "Options": { "A": "Lengthening prothrombin time.", "B": "Antithrombin deficiency.", "C": "Increase in Dimero D.", "D": "Increase in protein C.", "E": "Increase in PAI-1." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase in Dimero D.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0b703d0e-e774-4d45-8322-7adb6d6c3c37", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The deficit of which of the following enzymes is NOT a cause of porphyria ?:", "Options": { "A": "Protoporphyrinogen oxidase.", "B": "Delta-amino levulinic synthetase.", "C": "Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase", "D": "Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase.", "E": "Uroporphyrinogen III cosintetase." }, "Correct Answer": "Delta-amino levulinic synthetase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6008631c-70a6-46ba-87fb-b95746477338", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia ?:", "Options": { "A": "Age 1-9 years.", "B": "Phenotype B.", "C": "Karyotype with translocation 9; 22.", "D": "Leucocytosis of 25,000 / microL.", "E": "Hyperploid DNA index." }, "Correct Answer": "Karyotype with translocation 9; 22.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fc705907-bef4-47e6-828c-013a60b9b456", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Crohn's disease:", "Options": { "A": "It only affects the colon.", "B": "It presents as perianal disease, with development of fistulas or abscesses.", "C": "It is characterized by continuous involvement of the mucosa.", "D": "It is associated with alcohol consumption.", "E": "It starts in the infant stage of the individual." }, "Correct Answer": "It presents as perianal disease, with development of fistulas or abscesses.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e3986920-df63-41bd-85e5-d67009b72af1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hypertension developed in hyperaldosteronism is produced by:", "Options": { "A": "Increase in blood calcium.", "B": "Desensitization of the vascular wall to the vasoconstrictors.", "C": "Greater release of adrenaline and noradrenaline.", "D": "Increase in the reabsorption of Na + and H2O.", "E": "Decrease in blood volume." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase in the reabsorption of Na + and H2O.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0c728f96-03fd-4ee1-9f3e-90235435fb2e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If the thyroid hormones are increased and both TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and the uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland are decreased, it is a process of:", "Options": { "A": "Thyrotoxicosis not hyperthyroid.", "B": "Primary hyperthyroidism.", "C": "Hypophyseal hyperthyroidism.", "D": "Graves-Basedow disease.", "E": "Increase in gonadotropins." }, "Correct Answer": "Thyrotoxicosis not hyperthyroid.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "921d4f3e-f088-46a8-ba48-443b854720f2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pneumothorax occurs as a result of the entry of air into:", "Options": { "A": "The interstitial space.", "B": "The pleural space.", "C": "The peribronchial space.", "D": "The pulmonary circulation.", "E": "The systemic circulation." }, "Correct Answer": "The pleural space.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "01507792-ce4e-4276-b363-bfe89c7e51da", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Non-fluid, motor or expressive aphasia is associated with injuries in:", "Options": { "A": "The Wernicke area.", "B": "The arched fascicle.", "C": "The motor cortex", "D": "The Broca area.", "E": "The angular gyrus." }, "Correct Answer": "The Broca area.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "38bd20c4-7d6b-479f-9a2b-e778e7cc8fa2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In chronic bronchitis, it is characteristic:", "Options": { "A": "Destruction of alveolar walls.", "B": "Difficulty in the inspiratory flow.", "C": "Decrease in the volume of inspiratory reserve.", "D": "Elevation of capillary hydrostatic pressure.", "E": "Inflammation and mucosal hypersecretion of the respiratory tract." }, "Correct Answer": "Inflammation and mucosal hypersecretion of the respiratory tract.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "380a23ec-7974-4d74-922d-fe5be1bb17e9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is allodynia ?:", "Options": { "A": "Painful sensation triggered by non-painful stimuli.", "B": "Abnormal sensation, but not painful.", "C": "Sensation in which the patient has a high threshold of stimulation.", "D": "Tingling or numbness", "E": "Painful sensation increased in front of a painful stimulus." }, "Correct Answer": "Painful sensation triggered by non-painful stimuli.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f87a6d79-15ca-42dc-8b94-244ea28e4da8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the mechanism of action of the immunosuppressant drug everolimus ?:", "Options": { "A": "Inhibition of the activation of lymphocytes as membrane receptors.", "B": "Inhibition of the transmission of the activation signals.", "C": "Inhibition of nucleotide synthesis.", "D": "Inhibition of lymphocyte migration.", "E": "Inhibition of proliferation signals." }, "Correct Answer": "Inhibition of proliferation signals.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a0565a57-3d58-4801-a171-42b52b207f65", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following antidiabetics acts by inhibiting DPP-4 and prolonging the duration of the endogenous incretins GLP-1 and GIP ?:", "Options": { "A": "Glimepiride", "B": "Repaglinide.", "C": "Sitagliptin", "D": "Rosiglitazone.", "E": "Tolbutamide" }, "Correct Answer": "Sitagliptin", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ddb3fec1-585c-4e8b-a735-482d7062d83c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following antifungals is used in the treatment of invasive aspergillosis and severe candidiasis including Candida krusei and Candida glabrata ?:", "Options": { "A": "Voriconazole", "B": "Miconazole", "C": "Ketoconazole", "D": "Fluconazole", "E": "1 and 3 are correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Voriconazole", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "395ad621-48c0-44aa-a54d-a3ede081e15d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following antibiotics could be used in a patient with hypersensitivity to penicillin by skin tests ?:", "Options": { "A": "Piperacillin / tazobactam", "B": "Aztreonam", "C": "Ampicillin", "D": "Amoxicillin", "E": "Ceftazidime" }, "Correct Answer": "Aztreonam", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5942dc46-a6a2-424a-970e-ed7e938c3f0a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following medications can cause renal failure in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis by inhibiting the constrictor tone of the efferent arteriole ?:", "Options": { "A": "Acetaminophen.", "B": "Diclofenac", "C": "Enalaprilo.", "D": "Metamizole", "E": "Furosemide." }, "Correct Answer": "Enalaprilo.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b83ba947-8be2-4e35-a134-0cb55a53cf2f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why mechanism produces hyperprolactinemia haloperidol ?:", "Options": { "A": "Blockade of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors.", "B": "Blockade of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors", "C": "Blocking of H1 receivers.", "D": "Blockade of D2 receivers.", "E": "Blocking of 5-HT2 receptors." }, "Correct Answer": "Blockade of D2 receivers.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "809d6c43-3045-4290-a9cf-89f795fded6d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the mechanism of action of octreotide ?:", "Options": { "A": "Serotonergic receptor 5-HT4 agonist.", "B": "Motilin receptor agonist.", "C": "Somatostatin receptor agonist.", "D": "Antagonist of the motilin receptor.", "E": "Somatostatin receptor antagonist." }, "Correct Answer": "Somatostatin receptor agonist.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "497f6fa4-47ca-42a8-8fb1-634a0ac1d716", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs can alleviate the compensatory increases in heart rate and the release of renin that occur in heart failure ?:", "Options": { "A": "Milrinona.", "B": "Digoxin", "C": "Dobutamine", "D": "Enalapril", "E": "Metoprolol" }, "Correct Answer": "Metoprolol", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "378e23c5-3627-4630-a095-019c573257a3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old man, diagnosed with hypertension, has started a monotherapy treatment to decrease peripheral resistance and prevent the retention of CINa and water. The patient has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have identical beneficial actions to that already used, but without coughing the patient ?:", "Options": { "A": "Losartán.", "B": "Nifedipine", "C": "Prazosin", "D": "Propranolol", "E": "Enalaprilo." }, "Correct Answer": "Losartán.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "514f834c-125f-46d3-b5ed-9a6c0acd4cd6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Amantadine is a drug that can be used as:", "Options": { "A": "Antiviral and antiparkinsonian.", "B": "Antipsychotic and antiemetic.", "C": "Anxiolytic and antifungal.", "D": "Antifungal and antiparkinsonian.", "E": "Antifungal and anti-migraine." }, "Correct Answer": "Antiviral and antiparkinsonian.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "7b54c926-e307-4ec8-b93c-8ae5495307db", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Observe that the liquids coming from the synthesis of chloroquine had an antibacterial activity gave rise to the discovery of the quinolones. This group of antibiotics has various characteristics such as:", "Options": { "A": "Fluoroquinolones have a smaller spectrum of activity than first-generation quinolones.", "B": "The second generation quinolones are very effective against anaerobes.", "C": "Fluoroquinolones are not effective against enterobacteria.", "D": "Fluoroquinolones are effective against Gram-positive but less than Gram-negative.", "E": "The third and fourth generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against streptococci or staphylococci." }, "Correct Answer": "Fluoroquinolones are effective against Gram-positive but less than Gram-negative.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bd86eca2-249a-4c53-bb4d-61482e15ded8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs obtained by means of molecular engineering techniques is not applicable in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis ?:", "Options": { "A": "Infliximab.", "B": "Denosumab.", "C": "Adalimumab.", "D": "Anakinra", "E": "Etanercept." }, "Correct Answer": "Denosumab.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "21c25d90-597b-4499-9615-5f50a82328d4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A man suffering from bronchial asthma is undergoing a chronic treatment lasting several years with glucocorticoids. Which of the following adverse reactions detected in said patient is not due to the prolonged use of corticoid therapy ?:", "Options": { "A": "Poor healing of wounds.", "B": "Osteoporosis.", "C": "Arterial hypotension.", "D": "Thinning of the skin", "E": "Muscular atrophy." }, "Correct Answer": "Arterial hypotension.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "40846b14-d821-4236-805d-dd96a1c02f2f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "GnRH (ganodorelin) is a hypothalamic decapeptide that is secreted in a pulsatile manner. Lately a series of analogues have been developed that:", "Options": { "A": "All of them inhibit prolonged secretion of LH and FSH.", "B": "All of them are GnRH receptor agonists.", "C": "Goserelin and buserelin are antagonists of the GnRH receptor.", "D": "The prolonged treatment gives rise to a typical symptomatology of an excess of gonadal steroids.", "E": "GnRH agonists are contraindicated in prostate and breast cancer." }, "Correct Answer": "All of them inhibit prolonged secretion of LH and FSH.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6a1657c1-ac5e-4f53-8690-e72fd0eb931c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ms. X is a 76-year-old patient who has suffered several falls in recent years with fractures in both arms. The diagnosis by image denotes the evidence of osteoporosis and the traumatologist decides to start a treatment with teriparatide. We must consider that:", "Options": { "A": "Teriparatide is an analogue of vitamin D.", "B": "It is administered in a daily dose subcutaneously.", "C": "It is administered only intravenously.", "D": "Acts as a receptor agonist to vitamin D3.", "E": "It does not favor the increase of bone mass." }, "Correct Answer": "It is administered in a daily dose subcutaneously.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "45bdf4af-4e2a-4db4-bd0f-3106a397a075", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mr. X is a 67-year-old patient who has been prescribed atorvastatin orally due to high cholesterol levels that have not improved after dietary measures. Among the clinical applications of the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors we have:", "Options": { "A": "They are the drugs of choice in the case of pregnant women.", "B": "They are drugs of first choice in the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia.", "C": "They are not effective in the secondary prevention of myocardial infarction.", "D": "In severe dyslipidemias, in the case of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia, they should be combined with ezetimibe.", "E": "They are not effective in the secondary prevention of stroke." }, "Correct Answer": "In severe dyslipidemias, in the case of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia, they should be combined with ezetimibe.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0a10d0a0-e4ec-46c8-a000-94815fe94228", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The akathisia produced by some drugs is directly related to receptor blockade:", "Options": { "A": "Dopaminergic.", "B": "Serotoninergic", "C": "Histaminergic", "D": "Adrenergic", "E": "Cholinergic" }, "Correct Answer": "Dopaminergic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d9896309-3e5b-475d-be6b-0a6fa9e71b60", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mesalazine is used in therapy in the treatment of:", "Options": { "A": "Bronchial asthma in children.", "B": "The motion sickness.", "C": "The Syndrome of Gilles de la Tourette.", "D": "Crohn's disease", "E": "The hypogonadism." }, "Correct Answer": "Crohn's disease", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c0a67cec-41d7-4182-aa43-1eb0a6d48a63", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the antiemetic drugs reviewed, in which of them their pharmacological activity is NOT related to dopaminergic receptors ?:", "Options": { "A": "Granisetron.", "B": "Cleboprida.", "C": "Droperidol", "D": "Tietilperazine.", "E": "Domperidone" }, "Correct Answer": "Granisetron.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4207867a-7949-426f-a96a-a27cf14dfb31", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the drugs reviewed, which one is used in the prophylactic treatment of migraine ?:", "Options": { "A": "Dihydroergotamine", "B": "Meperidine", "C": "Flunarizine", "D": "Chlorpromazine", "E": "Sumatriptan" }, "Correct Answer": "Flunarizine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d2aae059-dbb9-4f6e-ae2d-17538b62c6ae", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the drugs reviewed, which of them does NOT act on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system ?:", "Options": { "A": "Atenolol.", "B": "Captopril.", "C": "Minoxidil", "D": "Eplerenone.", "E": "Aliskiren." }, "Correct Answer": "Minoxidil", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e75db7de-7f25-44af-89b3-d7da0ab5e829", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of asthma can be used on demand:", "Options": { "A": "Inhaled glucocorticoids at low doses.", "B": "Long-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist.", "C": "Short-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist.", "D": "Inhaled anticholinergics.", "E": "Inhaled disodium cromoglycate." }, "Correct Answer": "Short-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9f400aa2-5dfd-483d-9f8e-dff8b07cd4a2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the biosynthetic route of terpenes in plants ?:", "Options": { "A": "They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the fatty acid route.", "B": "They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate.", "C": "They are synthesized by the mevalonic route and the sikimico route.", "D": "They are synthesized by the sikimic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate.", "E": "They are synthesized by the polyacetate route." }, "Correct Answer": "They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f115a794-b7fe-42f9-b53d-80ca9dce4686", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among other properties with respect to hypericin we can indicate:", "Options": { "A": "It is a powerful hepatoprotector extracted from the roots of Hypericum perforatum.", "B": "It is a powerful cholagogue that is extracted from the resin of the Hypericum perforatum rhizome.", "C": "It is a removable antiretroviral of the aerial parts of Hypericum perforatum.", "D": "It is a laxative that is extracted from the leaves of Hypericum perforatum.", "E": "It is a potent hepatoprotective present in the fruits of Hypericum perforatum." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a removable antiretroviral of the aerial parts of Hypericum perforatum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "461bdf4b-437c-430b-b3fc-841754d27947", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the pharmacological activity of artemisinin (sesquiterpene lactone) extracted from Artemisia annua:", "Options": { "A": "It is a powerful hepatoprotective.", "B": "It is a powerful cholagogue.", "C": "It is a potent antitumor.", "D": "It is a selective antimalarial.", "E": "It is a potent antiviral." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a selective antimalarial.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9a770d56-a7bc-420f-8bbd-8d68f4167b18", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an animal species, the value of the elimination rate constant of a drug with linear pharmacokinetic behavior depends on:", "Options": { "A": "The route of administration.", "B": "The dose of drug administered.", "C": "The percentage of administered dose that arrives unaltered to the general circulation.", "D": "The speed at which the drug reaches systemic circulation.", "E": "The distribution and elimination of the drug." }, "Correct Answer": "The distribution and elimination of the drug.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "04c0bb6d-93c8-4b98-8ae1-95fb731263c4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The maximum urinary excretion of a drug refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The maximum concentration of unchanged drug in urine.", "B": "The maximum speed at which the drug can be excreted unchanged by urine.", "C": "The amount of urine collected after 7 biological half-lives after the administration of the drug.", "D": "The total amount of drug that is excreted unaltered in urine after the administration of a certain dose.", "E": "The amount of unchanged drug recovered in urine at 24 hours after the administration of a certain dose." }, "Correct Answer": "The total amount of drug that is excreted unaltered in urine after the administration of a certain dose.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "000423dd-ee43-4f76-920b-7943eaadbc84", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For a drug to permeate through the cornea, you must:", "Options": { "A": "Be totally ionized.", "B": "Present a very high polarity.", "C": "Join the lysozyme that is present in the tear fluid.", "D": "Present a certain lipophilicity and a minimum degree of water solubility.", "E": "Have weak acid character." }, "Correct Answer": "Present a certain lipophilicity and a minimum degree of water solubility.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "22fbbbb5-fa65-4531-aa23-296109d962e0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Biopharmaceutical Classification System, a drug that has low permeability and high solubility, such as cimetidine, is a drug of:", "Options": { "A": "Class I.", "B": "Class II", "C": "Class III", "D": "Class IV.", "E": "Class V." }, "Correct Answer": "Class III", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5621cb3c-3114-467f-8d80-30066f24c3cb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What dose should you administer orally every 12 hours of a drug whose plasma clearance is equal to 1 L / h if you want to reach an average concentration of 10mg / L equilibrium? Assume complete bioavailability (F = 1):", "Options": { "A": "120 mg.", "B": "12 mg.", "C": "200 mg.", "D": "10 mg.", "E": "With this information it is not possible to estimate the dose necessary to reach this equilibrium concentration." }, "Correct Answer": "120 mg.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "34c32f64-9465-4cc9-a307-5df6aeab4bf5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How much drug has been eliminated when 3 elimination half-lives have elapsed if 100 mg of drug has been administered IV via bolus and is adjusted to a monocompartmental model with first-order elimination:", "Options": { "A": "87.5 mg.", "B": "12.5 mg.", "C": "75 mg.", "D": "25 mg.", "E": "50 mg." }, "Correct Answer": "87.5 mg.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "df94fdf5-91d8-4146-9596-603b8dc906d7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What speed of perfusion of a drug should you administer to achieve a plasma equilibrium concentration of 10 mg / L knowing that it has a plasma clearance of 500 mL / h? (continuous perfusion):", "Options": { "A": "50 mg / h.", "B": "5 mL / h.", "C": "100 mg / h.", "D": "100 mg / mL.", "E": "5 mg / h." }, "Correct Answer": "5 mg / h.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f8afca3a-7e1a-437d-8e06-20fcf72feb66", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The independent parameter of the dissolution model, the solution efficiency, has two limitations. One of them is that the last experimental point has an arbitrary nature. What is the other limitation ?:", "Options": { "A": "At least 50% of the dose must be dissolved.", "B": "At least 60% of the dose must be dissolved.", "C": "At least 75% of the dose must be dissolved.", "D": "At least 80% of the dose must be dissolved.", "E": "At least 90% of the dose must be dissolved." }, "Correct Answer": "At least 90% of the dose must be dissolved.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6a4ec8a0-1268-4317-8f4a-aee0e5c27633", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following factors does not influence the permeation of drugs through the stratum corneum ?:", "Options": { "A": "Degree of ionization of the drug.", "B": "Fixation to the tear fluid proteins.", "C": "Osmolarity of tears.", "D": "Instilled volume.", "E": "Ocular Pigmentation." }, "Correct Answer": "Osmolarity of tears.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1895b607-c6bd-4877-b058-e4e8a393a634", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics is not correct:", "Options": { "A": "They are not absorbed practically in the gastrointestinal tract of normal patients.", "B": "They are absorbed in patients with severe renal insufficiency.", "C": "They have a very slow distribution phase.", "D": "They are not metabolized.", "E": "They present a second phase of very slow elimination." }, "Correct Answer": "They have a very slow distribution phase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7661b731-2c5a-43d2-b011-4ee0112444ed", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The magnitude of the steady state plasma concentration that is reached when a monocompartmental drug is administered in continuous perfusion is conditioned by:", "Options": { "A": "The time the perfusion is maintained.", "B": "The relationship between the rate of drug entry into the body (mg / h) and the elimination rate constant.", "C": "The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and the half-life of elimination of the drug.", "D": "The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and plasma clearance.", "E": "The administration of a rapid intravenous shock dose at the start of treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and plasma clearance.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "81d41a7b-5426-43b3-a4d4-f385f0aa8ae8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer in relation to the monitoring of plasma drug concentrations:", "Options": { "A": "Allergy reactions are related to the dose administered.", "B": "The extraction of the blood sample must be done once the balance of drug distribution in the organism has been reached.", "C": "The information provided by the analytical determination of plasma concentration is sufficient to perform the dosage individualization.", "D": "Only the immunoassay methods are valid for carrying out the analytical determination of the blood samples.", "E": "It must be done for all drugs that are administered intravenously." }, "Correct Answer": "The extraction of the blood sample must be done once the balance of drug distribution in the organism has been reached.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b6c406c5-31e8-4728-9955-0fa22c8ba0cf", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A drug with a seemingly monocompartmental distribution pattern is administered in the form of i.v. perfusion. at a constant speed of 20 mg / h for 48 h. Once the perfusion is finished, three blood samples are taken, which, when analyzed, allow the calculation of the primary parameters of the model Kel = 0.0495 h-1, concentration at the end of the perfusion (C48h) = 5,553 μg / mL, Vd = 66 L. At what time would the steady state be reached ?:", "Options": { "A": "14 h.", "B": "28 h.", "C": "42 h.", "D": "56 h.", "E": "70 h." }, "Correct Answer": "70 h.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "aae987c2-d61d-49f0-9541-3cf2dcffc519", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following administration routes are commonly used for drugs of a peptide and protein nature ?:", "Options": { "A": "Oral.", "B": "Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous.", "C": "Oral, intravenous and subcutaneous.", "D": "Oral, intranasal and inhalation.", "E": "Oral, intramuscular and intranasal." }, "Correct Answer": "Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "81df3172-7066-4da5-a33a-7d057b689a78", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of rosiglitazone is NOT correct ?:", "Options": { "A": "It has a bioavailability of 99%", "B": "The inactive metabolites are eliminated by urine after conjugation or in the form of sulfates.", "C": "It should not be prescribed in patients with liver disease.", "D": "It is necessary to readjust your dosage in the presence of kidney disease.", "E": "It should not be prescribed to the nursing mother." }, "Correct Answer": "It is necessary to readjust your dosage in the presence of kidney disease.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4fc10163-8c4e-40a7-af15-0d20f888b011", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following enzymes is classified as MAL:", "Options": { "A": "Lactate dehydrogenase - Oxidoreductase.", "B": "Chymotrypsin - Hydrolase.", "C": "Fumarasa - Liasa.", "D": "Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase - Ligase", "E": "Nucleoside monophosphate kinase - Isomerase." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleoside monophosphate kinase - Isomerase.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "772ffb07-8624-4355-b532-29f8ac42e8f0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Insulin decreases the expression of the gene:", "Options": { "A": "Fosfofructoquinasa-1.", "B": "Pyruvate kinase.", "C": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase.", "D": "Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.", "E": "Acetyl-CoA carboxylase." }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6deb7547-d963-4c25-826d-77549ad31795", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hepatic glycolysis differs from muscle glycolysis in that:", "Options": { "A": "A low blood glucose concentration results in the inhibition of hepatic pyruvate kinase but not of muscle.", "B": "Hexative hexokinase has more affinity for glucose than muscle hexokinase.", "C": "The glycolytic enzymes in the liver are located in the cytoplasm, while in the muscle they are in cytoplasms and mitochondria.", "D": "Hepatic glycolysis is anaerobic, while muscle glycolysis is aerobic.", "E": "The final product of hepatic glycolysis is acetyl-CoA, while in muscle glycolysis that pyruvate." }, "Correct Answer": "A low blood glucose concentration results in the inhibition of hepatic pyruvate kinase but not of muscle.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2ccae9b2-90ad-41c0-812f-3d743832624a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What two non-protein amino acids participate in the urea cycle ?:", "Options": { "A": "Proline and hydroxyproline.", "B": "Ornithine and citrulline.", "C": "Alanine and arginine.", "D": "Oxalacetate and malate.", "E": "Serine and GABA." }, "Correct Answer": "Ornithine and citrulline.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0b7099c6-d3db-47b6-ad1f-043eaac3120b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Heparin is:", "Options": { "A": "A plasma protein with no net charge with coagulant function.", "B": "A glycosaminoglycan with high density of sulphate groups in its structure and anticoagulant function.", "C": "A protease that facilitates the transformation of prothrombin into thrombin.", "D": "An extracellular matrix protein with no net charge, which gives rise to highly viscous solutions with a lubricating function.", "E": "A homopolysaccharide with anticoagulant function thanks to the high density of positive charges in its structure." }, "Correct Answer": "A glycosaminoglycan with high density of sulphate groups in its structure and anticoagulant function.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c3655b5d-4bdf-45a9-9661-a9fd114614d3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Protein kinase A (PKA):", "Options": { "A": "It induces the synthesis of glycogen in response to an increase in glucagon in the blood.", "B": "It is a membrane protein that is activated in response to an increase in circulating GTP.", "C": "It is activated through the cAMP produced in response to an increase in adrenaline in the circulation.", "D": "It inhibits the lipolysis of triacylglycerides accumulated in adipose tissue, in response to an increase in intracellular cAMP.", "E": "It is a monomeric protein that inhibits the synthesis of ATP and muscle contraction." }, "Correct Answer": "It is activated through the cAMP produced in response to an increase in adrenaline in the circulation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8cb2fe9b-d75a-4bf9-996e-eb9a5942e7e0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Malonyl-CoA produced in", "Options": { "A": "the beta-oxidation of fatty acids, inhibits the fatty acid synthase complex.", "B": "the citric acid cycle inhibits beta-oxidation.", "C": "the respiratory chain, inhibits the absorption of lipids during digestion.", "D": "the synthesis of fatty acids, inhibits beta-oxidation.", "E": "the synthesis of triacylglycerides, inhibits the production of cholesterol." }, "Correct Answer": "the synthesis of fatty acids, inhibits beta-oxidation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4f64bfa4-43de-4832-82e7-27d1fd4b4b7c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which coenzyme acts as an inhibitor of the citric acid cycle (or tricarboxylic acid cycle):", "Options": { "A": "Lipoic acid.", "B": "Ascorbic acid.", "C": "Biocytin.", "D": "Coenzyme Q.", "E": "NADH + H +." }, "Correct Answer": "NADH + H +.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1eed68ee-6a90-4d15-9ae2-f67b1f9e3b3e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glucocorticoids are hormones that are synthesized from:", "Options": { "A": "Cholesterol.", "B": "Glucose.", "C": "Glucagon.", "D": "Insulin.", "E": "Hill." }, "Correct Answer": "Cholesterol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "199ba482-9f6e-4f3f-80f8-3725f7b0c2c3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The oxidation of fatty acids in cells of higher plants takes place in:", "Options": { "A": "Endoplasmic reticulum.", "B": "Chloroplasts", "C": "Peroxisomes", "D": "Citosol", "E": "Mitochondria" }, "Correct Answer": "Peroxisomes", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bb677c00-a1a7-4979-9eed-7fbe578ef4b9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following types of transport through membranes does NOT exist:", "Options": { "A": "Ion transport facilitated by ionophore (against electrochemical gradient).", "B": "Facilitated diffusion (in favor of electrochemical gradient)", "C": "Primary active transport (against electrochemical gradient).", "D": "Ionic channel (in favor of electrochemical gradient).", "E": "Simple diffusion (in favor of concentration gradient)." }, "Correct Answer": "Ion transport facilitated by ionophore (against electrochemical gradient).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "935509da-cab9-4851-9471-cabcb7894813", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following coenzyme ratios with chemical groups transferred is NOT correct:", "Options": { "A": "Biocitin - CO2.", "B": "Coenzyme A - acyl groups.", "C": "Flavin adenine dinucleotide - electrons.", "D": "Thiamine pyrophosphate - amino groups.", "E": "Tetrahydrofolate - monocarbonated groups." }, "Correct Answer": "Thiamine pyrophosphate - amino groups.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "29077617-42e4-4e04-9b44-de0adffe6c56", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The structure of one of the following globular proteins is mostly in alpha helix and lacks beta sheet:", "Options": { "A": "Myoglobin", "B": "Chymotrypsin", "C": "Ribonuclease.", "D": "Lysozyme", "E": "Carboxypeptidase" }, "Correct Answer": "Myoglobin", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "658a21b5-835e-4c01-8b4a-5f55b046d219", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How many macromolecular complexes form the electronic transport chain ?:", "Options": { "A": "6 macromolecular complexes.", "B": "5 macromolecular complexes.", "C": "4 macromolecular complexes.", "D": "3 macromolecular complexes.", "E": "2 macromolecular complexes." }, "Correct Answer": "4 macromolecular complexes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "843d526a-f122-4210-a421-3b0a032174e5", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "All components of the respiratory chain:", "Options": { "A": "They pump protons.", "B": "They exchange electrons.", "C": "They are high molecular weight complexes.", "D": "They are membrane proteins.", "E": "They are soluble." }, "Correct Answer": "They exchange electrons.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b00b7b81-919b-4b8e-aee4-d85cfc36b008", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following sequences is added during the maturation or processing of the eukaryotic transfer RNA ?:", "Options": { "A": "Splicing site 5 'of the intron.", "B": "CCA sequence of amino acid charge.", "C": "Anticodon", "D": "3 'splicing site of the intron.", "E": "Leading sequence of the 5 'end." }, "Correct Answer": "CCA sequence of amino acid charge.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c5761ec6-6a23-4231-ac70-6c5f403a8910", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Histone deacetylases (HDAC) promote:", "Options": { "A": "A less condensed chromatin.", "B": "A weaker link between histones and DNA in nucleosomes.", "C": "The acetylation of lysine residues in histones.", "D": "That the poly (A) tail of the histone messenger RNAs be more extensive.", "E": "The termination of the transcription and the genetic silencing." }, "Correct Answer": "The termination of the transcription and the genetic silencing.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "32c1c29e-ec94-4ab1-95d3-a8dba2544dea", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The mission of the spliceosome is:", "Options": { "A": "Ensure that the transfer RNAs adopt the trefoil configuration.", "B": "Prevent ribosomes from entering the nucleus.", "C": "Perform polyadenylation of messenger RNA (mRNA).", "D": "Degrade defective proteins.", "E": "Facilitate the maturation of the mRNA precursor, since it approximates the splice points." }, "Correct Answer": "Facilitate the maturation of the mRNA precursor, since it approximates the splice points.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1fe11253-8488-4a75-b6ff-2d5e5a9cc9ef", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The primosome:", "Options": { "A": "It is also called primasa or Dna G protein.", "B": "It is the complex responsible for the synthesis of the Okazaki fragments.", "C": "It is a bacterial DNA ligase.", "D": "It is located in the mitochondria.", "E": "It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "af121b08-e0ce-47ce-b85b-afdd543de8c7", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the replication of the eukaryotic genes it participates:", "Options": { "A": "The Dna A and Dna B proteins", "B": "The complex of six proteins called ORC.", "C": "The eight protein complex called Dam methylase.", "D": "The MutL-MutS complex.", "E": "The MutH complex." }, "Correct Answer": "The complex of six proteins called ORC.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e86d1d4a-d0b8-4ee6-88c2-05720dbd13bf", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is inhibited by:", "Options": { "A": "Rifampicin", "B": "α-Amanitin.", "C": "Oligomycin.", "D": "Streptomycin.", "E": "Actinomycin D." }, "Correct Answer": "Actinomycin D.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "df7a2d44-f0cc-4128-8797-406f273fb9e1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In protein biosynthesis, base pairing takes place during the translation process between:", "Options": { "A": "RNA and DNA.", "B": "DNA and ribosomal RNA.", "C": "The transfer RNA and the ribosomal RNA.", "D": "The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA.", "E": "18S ribosomal RNA and 5S ribosomal RNA." }, "Correct Answer": "The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ebc40687-a56b-4a35-afe1-2e8067eb7942", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The synthesis of a human protein by a bacterium, to which human DNA has been introduced, demonstrates that:", "Options": { "A": "Evolution can be questioned.", "B": "Bacteria can acquire nucleus.", "C": "The genetic code is universal.", "D": "The human proteins are identical to the proteins of the bacteria.", "E": "The bacteria can be pathogenic." }, "Correct Answer": "The genetic code is universal.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bc9023fc-4189-4338-83b3-9a2a5d74f6f6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What consequence of RNA bases will be produced when the AGGCCTTTACGC DNA fragment is transcribed ?:", "Options": { "A": "TCCGGAAATGCG.", "B": "AGGCCUUUACGC.", "C": "UGGCCUUUUGCG", "D": "UGGCCUUUUCGC.", "E": "UCCGGAAAUGCG." }, "Correct Answer": "UCCGGAAAUGCG.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "88ec5f4b-363e-40de-a93e-0b3c3b07f303", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The RISC complex (RNA-induced silencing complex) of RNA silencing based on interference RNA:", "Options": { "A": "It degrades the guide strand of the small interfering RNA molecules (siRNA).", "B": "It recognizes defective proteins and promotes their degradation.", "C": "It has a structure similar to the ribosome, formed by numerous RNAs and proteins.", "D": "It is formed, among others, by the Dicer protein, a type III ribonuclease.", "E": "It is part of both the interference mechanism of the siRNA and the microRNA." }, "Correct Answer": "It is part of both the interference mechanism of the siRNA and the microRNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "78a42239-a11c-4da6-b571-595933b1bf7f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of enzymatic activity does primase present in DNA replication ?:", "Options": { "A": "RNA polymerase", "B": "Helicasa", "C": "DNA polymerase", "D": "RNA ligase.", "E": "DNA ligase." }, "Correct Answer": "RNA polymerase", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "58da20d7-1a67-4c40-a32e-bb8b4537c2b1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Analyzing several DNA polymerases involved in the replication of E. coli, one of them was found that had low processivity and low synthesis speed, what enzyme could be treated ?:", "Options": { "A": "DNA pol I.", "B": "DNA B.", "C": "DNA pol III.", "D": "Primasa.", "E": "DNA gyrase." }, "Correct Answer": "DNA pol I.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "817f7b34-5d4c-4a5a-9a8f-31ea5b5060e3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ribosomes have three binding sites for the transfer RNAs (RNAs), which are:", "Options": { "A": "Site A of acetyl, P of propyl and E of ethyl.", "B": "A site of aminoacyl, P of peptidyl and E of exit (from English, exit).", "C": "A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and transferase T of the peptide.", "D": "Site A of previous, P of posterior and E of entry (of English, entry).", "E": "A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and terminating T." }, "Correct Answer": "A site of aminoacyl, P of peptidyl and E of exit (from English, exit).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "345ef9c3-2db0-4046-823c-64a257a4ed53", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Given three DNA molecules of the same length (A, B and C) and in the same solvent, but with different richness in terms of G + C content (A: 50%, B: 60%, and C: 75% ), How would your melting temperatures (Tm) be ?:", "Options": { "A": "A> B> C.", "B": "Being in the same solvent, they would be the same in all three cases.", "C": "The DNA molecule C would not belong to a thermophilic bacterium, given its lower Tm.", "D": "C> B> A.", "E": "You can not know with the information of the statement." }, "Correct Answer": "C> B> A.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "56981446-7a5e-4475-9a8a-2aed11f48064", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which part of the cell is ribosomal RNA synthesized ?:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleolo.", "B": "Ribosomes", "C": "Vacuolas", "D": "Golgi apparatus.", "E": "Endoplasmic reticulum." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleolo.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "af121175-ae3d-4d57-b74e-44ce0474013e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The differential modification of RNA:", "Options": { "A": "It can result in multiple products from one gene.", "B": "It occurs thanks to the transcription bubble.", "C": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase I.", "D": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II.", "E": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase III." }, "Correct Answer": "It can result in multiple products from one gene.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9433b50f-406b-46a7-87ca-fe8c1a64956e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The structures of the condensed chromosomes are maintained by:", "Options": { "A": "Topoisomerases", "B": "Nucleolus proteins.", "C": "Fragments of Okazaki.", "D": "SMC proteins.", "E": "DNMT1 protein." }, "Correct Answer": "SMC proteins.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "15d1dcfe-28c4-44c6-9839-8300bd0154b6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The altered or minority nitrogenous bases:", "Options": { "A": "They are not detected in DNA.", "B": "They are not detected in the RNA.", "C": "They protect genetic information.", "D": "They are not detected in the tRNA.", "E": "They are not able to mate." }, "Correct Answer": "They protect genetic information.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5abd33dc-abd0-4c5d-94ac-2dbad4cb6dfd", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a determination of the activity of an enzyme, the depletion of the substrate:", "Options": { "A": "It is essential for most trials.", "B": "It may give falsely low results in sera with high enzymatic activity.", "C": "It occurs when the reagent is finished.", "D": "It occurs due to a defect in the spectrophotometer.", "E": "It can lead to falsely elevated results in sera with high enzymatic activity." }, "Correct Answer": "It may give falsely low results in sera with high enzymatic activity.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "09620a8a-1468-4b55-a1ab-288c5251fe45", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "From the following answers, which best defines a patient with microalbuminuria:", "Options": { "A": "Presence of renal disease in the terminal stage.", "B": "Nephrotic disease", "C": "Predictive diabetic nephropathy.", "D": "Glomerulonephritis", "E": "Orthostatic proteinuria" }, "Correct Answer": "Predictive diabetic nephropathy.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "707ceec7-6a58-44dd-8fd0-5123bc7b5f9e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What the term \"Serum Index\" refers to:", "Options": { "A": "Quantitative determination of hemoglobin, bilirubin and lipids present in a serum sample.", "B": "A set of tests that can be performed in a biochemical analyzer.", "C": "A record of specific batch calibrations.", "D": "A list of reference values ​​referred by age, sex and race.", "E": "A list of preservatives that can be used to keep the serum samples for longer." }, "Correct Answer": "Quantitative determination of hemoglobin, bilirubin and lipids present in a serum sample.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "dd4e4a31-04db-458b-939d-3ebf2a03a410", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Synovial fluid from patients with gout often contains:", "Options": { "A": "Hippuric acid crystals.", "B": "Tyrosine crystals.", "C": "Triple phosphate crystals.", "D": "Urate crystals.", "E": "Calcium oxalate crystals." }, "Correct Answer": "Urate crystals.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f666106c-a523-4bf6-97c6-d34dffbd1e1e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The syndrome of inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Hyponatremia", "B": "Hypovolemia", "C": "Concentrations of sodium ion in urine less than 20 mmol / L.", "D": "Osmolality in urine less than serum osmolality.", "E": "High concentrations of calcium ion." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyponatremia", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "61305d6a-0a08-4984-a096-b8d835c5b0d6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determination of the concentration of one of the following proteins in serum can give us information of a possible hemolytic anemia. Indicate which:", "Options": { "A": "Transferrin", "B": "Hemosiderin.", "C": "Ceruloplasmin.", "D": "Ferritin.", "E": "Haptoglobin." }, "Correct Answer": "Haptoglobin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ef392cfe-1fb9-4124-b111-fa3f53d5c5ba", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Being the standard deviation and the number of data, the standard error of the mean, Sm, of a data set is: √𝑠", "Options": { "A": "𝑆𝑚 = 𝑁 .", "B": "𝑆𝑚 = 𝑠 𝑁 . 𝑁", "C": "𝑆𝑚 = √𝑠 . √𝑠", "D": "𝑆𝑚 = √𝑁 . 𝑠", "E": "𝑆𝑚 = √𝑁 ." }, "Correct Answer": "𝑆𝑚 = √𝑁 .", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4d26722b-24ab-41de-9478-f6cbb737936c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The extraction technique that is used for gas chromatographic determinations in which the analyte is desorbed or thermally desorbed is called:", "Options": { "A": "Liquid-liquid extraction.", "B": "Extraction in solid phase.", "C": "Microextraction in solid phase.", "D": "Subextraction in solid phase.", "E": "Crystallization." }, "Correct Answer": "Microextraction in solid phase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7e7a5ce2-7dfb-430c-9ff1-d432fbc28955", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The cyclotron ion resonance by Fourier transform is the basis of:", "Options": { "A": "A mass ionization system useful for elementary analysis.", "B": "A system of atomization that is applied in atomic absorption for elements capable of generating hydrides.", "C": "A mass analyzer.", "D": "A system for introducing the sample in plasma emission spectrometry.", "E": "A detector system in mass spectrometry." }, "Correct Answer": "A mass analyzer.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a1769758-dfb5-4f8f-9576-179347b28250", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Affinity chromatography is characterized because:", "Options": { "A": "It is a modality of gas chromatography.", "B": "It is similar to paper chromatography.", "C": "It is a separation process based on the very selective or specific interactions that exist between biological macromolecules.", "D": "It is a technique of separating compounds according to their molecular weight.", "E": "It is a variant of chromatography that employ relatively non-polar stationary phases and more polar solvents, in contrast to normal phase chromatography." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a separation process based on the very selective or specific interactions that exist between biological macromolecules.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cf59fef1-8a4f-4857-b67b-0f40a8b92cb0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what chromatographic mode is the stationary phase formed by solid particles with controlled pore size? :", "Options": { "A": "Chromatography of distribution in normal phase.", "B": "Distribution chromatography in reverse phase.", "C": "Ion pair chromatography.", "D": "Ion exchange chromatography.", "E": "Chromatography of molecular exclusion or size." }, "Correct Answer": "Chromatography of molecular exclusion or size.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1fb2a418-21f9-4819-be3e-f7e980dcc4b4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The generation of the cold vapor is a form of introduction of the sample for the atomization that is used in atomic absorption spectrometry (EAA) to analyze:", "Options": { "A": "Lead and Arsenic.", "B": "Mercury.", "C": "Elements that have a low vapor pressure at room temperature.", "D": "Halogens of high molecular weight.", "E": "Alcalinotérreos." }, "Correct Answer": "Mercury.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "22a5a9b7-3e90-4062-a7dc-9b7ea4247a39", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In certain cases it is necessary to carry out previous treatments with oxidizing or reducing agents in redox evaluations in order to:", "Options": { "A": "Transform the analyte to an adequate oxidation state for subsequent evaluation.", "B": "Ensure that all the analyte is in solution.", "C": "Prepare the indicator solution so that it correctly rotates at the end point.", "D": "Make the reaction between titrator and analyte complete.", "E": "Improve the accuracy of the assessment." }, "Correct Answer": "Transform the analyte to an adequate oxidation state for subsequent evaluation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6cd33e83-3d79-4a14-8bed-9dabbb19c967", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The quality of a spectrum can be defined:", "Options": { "A": "Based on the relationship between the intensities of the bands containing information (S) and noise (R).", "B": "Based on the selected wavelength.", "C": "Only in function of the analytical signal.", "D": "Depending on the relationship between wavelength and noise.", "E": "Based on very low frequency noise." }, "Correct Answer": "Based on the relationship between the intensities of the bands containing information (S) and noise (R).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "032dba4e-703f-4dba-8de8-20445ce8c8e3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The absorbance of a medium solution at the isosbestic point is that determined to:", "Options": { "A": "The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in chemical equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent.", "B": "The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbing species in chemical equilibrium are not equivalent.", "C": "The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is maximum.", "D": "The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is minimal.", "E": "The wavelength of the species that participate in the equilibrium when it is displaced towards longer wavelengths." }, "Correct Answer": "The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in chemical equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a055c355-8dc3-400a-a9d9-cc816d94a7bd", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The use of the standard addition method in the calibration of an instrumental analysis method is recommended:", "Options": { "A": "Whenever possible", "B": "When analyzing complex samples in which important matrix effects are likely to occur and you want to minimize them.", "C": "When you want to determine very high concentrations of analyte.", "D": "When you want to use a dilution factor.", "E": "In automated acid-base volumetries." }, "Correct Answer": "When analyzing complex samples in which important matrix effects are likely to occur and you want to minimize them.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "39ca1513-830e-4b01-8e6b-720b71209b22", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "𝐸𝑎 According to the Arrhenius equation, k = 𝐴𝑒 𝑅𝑇", "Options": { "A": "The kinetic constant (k) decreases with increasing temperature.", "B": "The pre-exponential factor (A) is dimensionless.", "C": "In reactions with higher activation energy (Ea), the kinetic constant (k) depends enormously on the temperature.", "D": "The pre-exponential factor (A) and the kinetic constant (k) are inversely proportional.", "E": "The Arrhenius parameters are the kinetic constant (k) and the preexponential factor (A)." }, "Correct Answer": "In reactions with higher activation energy (Ea), the kinetic constant (k) depends enormously on the temperature.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bdf30f40-09aa-4d97-adfe-6727028621ad", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ethanol-water mixture has an azeotrope, this means that:", "Options": { "A": "From a certain concentration, the two liquids are immiscible.", "B": "The mixture has a minimum co-solution temperature.", "C": "Both components comply with Raoult's law.", "D": "The mixture is frozen at a single temperature.", "E": "Once the azeotropic composition is reached, the two liquids can not be separated by distillation." }, "Correct Answer": "Once the azeotropic composition is reached, the two liquids can not be separated by distillation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "83ac42ae-185e-4334-9c0a-5f0f9da5a961", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When dissolving a non-volatile solute in a solvent forming a diluted solution, it is observed:", "Options": { "A": "An increase in the freezing temperature of the solvent.", "B": "An increase in the boiling temperature of the solvent.", "C": "An increase in the vapor pressure of the solvent.", "D": "An increase in the chemical potential of the solvent.", "E": "A change in colligative properties depending on the type of solute." }, "Correct Answer": "An increase in the boiling temperature of the solvent.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "17eb35f0-7a51-42f5-9210-7356c0371c79", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The triple point of water is at 273.16 K and 611 Pascals:", "Options": { "A": "In no other combination of pressure and temperature it is possible to find the three phases of water in equilibrium.", "B": "Under these conditions, liquid and vapor become indistinguishable.", "C": "The sublimation process occurs at a pressure greater than 611 pascals.", "D": "It is not possible to find steam above 611 Pascals.", "E": "It is not possible to find water in solid state below 273.16 K." }, "Correct Answer": "In no other combination of pressure and temperature it is possible to find the three phases of water in equilibrium.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2a699d2a-7f3b-4f4a-b4ce-44721666dc84", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A spontaneous process is characterized because:", "Options": { "A": "In isolated systems the entropy decreases (ΔS <0).", "B": "At constant pressure and temperature, the Gibbs energy decreases (ΔG <0).", "C": "At constant pressure and temperature, the Helmholtz energy decreases (ΔA <0).", "D": "At constant volume and temperature, the Gibbs energy increases (ΔG> 0).", "E": "It is reversible." }, "Correct Answer": "At constant pressure and temperature, the Gibbs energy decreases (ΔG <0).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "59e8ffec-c2f7-4356-8b64-9cda8b43c6e8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The work of expanding a gas (W):", "Options": { "A": "It is a state function.", "B": "Equivalent to the heat associated with the process (Q).", "C": "Against constant pressure it is calculated with W = -Pext ΔV.", "D": "In a reversible isothermal process it is calculated with W = -nRTΔV.", "E": "Equivalent to the internal energy change during the process (ΔU)" }, "Correct Answer": "Against constant pressure it is calculated with W = -Pext ΔV.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "41c50eb9-33d1-47c9-bc6d-87b720333098", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The black indicator of Eriochrome T (N.E.T.) has the following colors depending on the pH:", "Options": { "A": "H2In¯rojo, HIn2- blue, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red.", "B": "H2In¯azul, HIn2- red, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red.", "C": "H2In¯rojo, HIn2- blue, In3- red wine and when complexed with metal it is orange.", "D": "H2In-red, HIn2- orange, In3- blue and when complexed with metal it is orange.", "E": "H2In¯azul, HIn2- orange, In3- red and when complexed with metal is orange." }, "Correct Answer": "H2In¯rojo, HIn2- blue, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "819c231d-dd50-4ef5-a175-e53f3159878f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the treatment of an overdose of paracetamol is used:", "Options": { "A": "Flumazenil.", "B": "Edetato sodium calcium.", "C": "Pralidoxime", "D": "N-acetylcysteine.", "E": "Nitro of amyl." }, "Correct Answer": "N-acetylcysteine.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "126b9bf8-e07d-418e-ad82-5cb3e2b0524e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The toxicological interest of the hair is due to:", "Options": { "A": "His analysis allows to know the toxic exposure in the past.", "B": "The change in their coloration can facilitate the diagnosis of poisoning.", "C": "It constitutes an effective protective barrier against the action of corrosives.", "D": "Its growth is interrupted by the chronic consumption of amphetamines.", "E": "Hair analysis is of no interest in Toxicology." }, "Correct Answer": "His analysis allows to know the toxic exposure in the past.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "702ced3b-8fd1-472d-89d9-5796fa10cfd6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The carcinogenic action of Benzo (a) pyrene:", "Options": { "A": "It is due to the production of oxygen free radicals.", "B": "It is due to its biotransformation in a dihydrodiol.", "C": "It is due to its biotransformation in an epoxide.", "D": "It increases in tissues rich in epoxide hydrolase.", "E": "It diminishes in tissues rich in cytochrome P450." }, "Correct Answer": "It is due to its biotransformation in an epoxide.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "837fb6fa-94f9-421b-a3d7-cb321e13961f", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Aminoglycosides can produce:", "Options": { "A": "Hepatotoxicity", "B": "Hematological abnormalities.", "C": "Adrenal toxicity.", "D": "Ocular toxicity.", "E": "Kidney toxicity." }, "Correct Answer": "Kidney toxicity.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "942f441d-28de-43c1-a775-d3b66a10825b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Iperite or mustard gas is a:", "Options": { "A": "Vesicant agent.", "B": "Biological weapon", "C": "Phytotoxic agent.", "D": "Incendiary agent", "E": "Neurotoxic agent." }, "Correct Answer": "Vesicant agent.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0eb93a11-1f6c-497b-b18e-5c2dce4527be", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The value of the admitted daily intake (ADI) of a food additive can be calculated from the following previously obtained data in animals:", "Options": { "A": "Level with no observed adverse effect (NOAEL).", "B": "Lower level with observed adverse effect (LOAEL).", "C": "Safety margin (MOS).", "D": "Toxic interval (IT).", "E": "Toxicity limit value (TLV)." }, "Correct Answer": "Level with no observed adverse effect (NOAEL).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eeb2cae0-97ca-4e2a-a1a8-76bb86b74a9b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In toxicology, the probability of adverse effects, harmful to health, from exposure to a toxic agent is known as:", "Options": { "A": "Danger.", "B": "Exposition.", "C": "Risk.", "D": "Answer.", "E": "Effect." }, "Correct Answer": "Risk.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "af6ee3b8-1198-4f73-9a4d-b5c8abeeeca3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The excitotoxins activate:", "Options": { "A": "Nicotinic receptors", "B": "GABAA receptors", "C": "Glycine receptors.", "D": "NMDA receivers.", "E": "Na + channels dependent on voltage." }, "Correct Answer": "NMDA receivers.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e05612d5-ae98-4043-97e5-e2873d45b0f3", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main method for the preparation of βceto esters is the reaction known as:", "Options": { "A": "Malonic synthesis", "B": "Acetoacetic synthesis.", "C": "Condensing of Claisen.", "D": "Perkin reaction.", "E": "Hofmann reaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Condensing of Claisen.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e082c94c-1a90-46ff-bae4-0e63da1ff002", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of Diels Alder is an example of reaction:", "Options": { "A": "Concerted and stereospecific.", "B": "Nucleophilic substitution of order 2.", "C": "Nucleophilic substitution of order 1.", "D": "Condensation polymerization.", "E": "Nucleophilic addition." }, "Correct Answer": "Concerted and stereospecific.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1e043124-d467-4f8e-a7da-2676a1f103cb", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The p-nitrobenzoic acid is:", "Options": { "A": "Less acid than benzoic acid.", "B": "Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid.", "C": "More acid than benzoic acid and with lower pKa.", "D": "More acid than benzoic acid and with higher pKa.", "E": "Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid and with lower pKa." }, "Correct Answer": "More acid than benzoic acid and with lower pKa.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "efbdc74b-8329-463a-b4e2-901ae708443d", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of bromine and cyclopentene leads to the production of 1,2-dibromocyclopentane by a mechanism:", "Options": { "A": "Of anti addition.", "B": "Of addition syn.", "C": "Substitution SN1.", "D": "Substitution SN2.", "E": "Of elimination." }, "Correct Answer": "Of anti addition.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2c634793-28a2-41b3-b259-b999b1c4ad57", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Grignard reagents attack the epoxides to give, after the appropriate hydrolysis:", "Options": { "A": "Carboxylic acids.", "B": "Cyclic amides.", "C": "Open aliphatic chains.", "D": "Open-chain alcohols.", "E": "Cyclic ethers." }, "Correct Answer": "Open-chain alcohols.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "90ef937b-0a2e-4276-96f4-66b9472b0543", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Esters can be obtained from carboxylic acids and alcohols, by applying the Fischer esterification reaction in which:", "Options": { "A": "A base is used as a catalyst.", "B": "A ketone is used as the solvent.", "C": "A reducing reagent is used.", "D": "An oxidizing agent is used.", "E": "Acid catalysis is used." }, "Correct Answer": "Acid catalysis is used.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f32658ee-c553-4a83-b89c-420c1d16f01c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following diatomic molecules has the lowest binding energy ?:", "Options": { "A": "N2", "B": "H2.", "C": "I2.", "D": "O2.", "E": "Cl2." }, "Correct Answer": "I2.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a2b155a3-1a4e-417c-9f46-3883d63ff8b0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following substances is used as a catalyst in the Contact Process during the manufacture of sulfuric acid ?:", "Options": { "A": "RuO2.", "B": "V2O5", "C": "Cr2O3.", "D": "RhO2.", "E": "PdO." }, "Correct Answer": "V2O5", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "713a88d5-8448-458c-9098-11fb766d1ac1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment ?:", "Options": { "A": "HCI.", "B": "NH3.", "C": "HF.", "D": "CO2", "E": "Trans-CHCI = CHCI." }, "Correct Answer": "HF.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c613c017-9fc1-4ad4-b08d-294b30b72b26", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has at least a 90º angle ?:", "Options": { "A": "H2O.", "B": "NH3.", "C": "CH4", "D": "SF4.", "E": "BF3." }, "Correct Answer": "SF4.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "13de4280-962d-42c2-a392-df8c78674114", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle ?:", "Options": { "A": "H2O.", "B": "NH3.", "C": "CH4", "D": "SO2.", "E": "BF3." }, "Correct Answer": "H2O.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4c18dc0a-4027-4967-b3a6-d89868f17c45", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which statement is true in relation to the Electron Repulsion Model of the Valencia layer applied to AB n molecules:", "Options": { "A": "The AB2 molecules are always linear.", "B": "The AB6 molecules are always octahedral.", "C": "The AB3 molecules are always triangular.", "D": "The AB4 molecules are always tetrahedral.", "E": "The AB5 molecules are always trigonal bipyramidal." }, "Correct Answer": "The AB6 molecules are always octahedral.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ef46f296-f4d5-49cc-a62e-1dc457d7a3c2", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus synthesize and store renin ?:", "Options": { "A": "The cells of the macula densa.", "B": "The mesangial cells.", "C": "The main cells.", "D": "The juxtaglomerular cells.", "E": "The cells interspersed." }, "Correct Answer": "The juxtaglomerular cells.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8f0f7904-5bce-408a-b2ba-1a97e60e452b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The thalamus is part of:", "Options": { "A": "The diencephalon", "B": "The mesencephalon.", "C": "The telencephalon.", "D": "The metencephalon.", "E": "The bulb." }, "Correct Answer": "The diencephalon", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1e808796-2221-4401-9eb0-9c4798060187", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What muscle has one of its origins (proximal insertion) in the coracoid process of the scapula ?:", "Options": { "A": "The triceps brachii.", "B": "The deltoid", "C": "The trapeze.", "D": "The supraspinatus.", "E": "The biceps brachii." }, "Correct Answer": "The biceps brachii.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d680bfed-a474-44ea-b7f4-7d3ed221a74b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The only autonomic adrenergic fibers are axons of neurons:", "Options": { "A": "Sympathetic preganglions.", "B": "Postganglionic sympathetics.", "C": "Preganglionic parasympathetic.", "D": "Postganglionic parasympathetic.", "E": "Parasympathetic ganglion." }, "Correct Answer": "Postganglionic sympathetics.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d5fa8296-206b-4f8e-87bd-18a71351c65b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The pterygoid process belongs to the bone:", "Options": { "A": "Ethmoid.", "B": "Zygomatic", "C": "Temporary.", "D": "Sphenoids", "E": "Scapula." }, "Correct Answer": "Sphenoids", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d0999ef9-b778-424d-bccf-892bda98462a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following structures belongs to the peritoneum ?:", "Options": { "A": "The dura mater.", "B": "The greater omentum.", "C": "The pleura", "D": "The pericardium.", "E": "The spleen" }, "Correct Answer": "The greater omentum.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c76c60d4-a787-4743-bf38-6c90c46a2fec", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We want to compare the means of two populations that follow normal distributions and have the same variance. We take two samples of size n1 and n2. When constructing a confidence interval we will have to calculate a value t for a Student's T distribution with:", "Options": { "A": "2 degrees of freedom.", "B": "n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom.", "C": "(n1 + n2) - 1 degrees of freedom.", "D": "(n1 x n2) / 2 degrees of freedom.", "E": "Degrees of freedom calculated with the formula of Welch or Smith-Satterwhite." }, "Correct Answer": "n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5cd5632d-432d-4807-a557-8f23ec8e1cef", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statistics is NOT affected by outliers in a sample ?:", "Options": { "A": "Sample mean.", "B": "Standard deviation.", "C": "Variance", "D": "Interquartile range.", "E": "Rank." }, "Correct Answer": "Interquartile range.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "db47a409-1bf3-4740-890c-ec8965ded36b", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We take sample of five individuals to whom we measure the LDL cholesterol value (mg / ml) obtaining: 180, 203, 104, 90 and 165. What is the median of this sample ?:", "Options": { "A": "180", "B": "203", "C": "104", "D": "90", "E": "165" }, "Correct Answer": "165", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1ab3f4b2-7618-41f7-bb34-7cd53d3b7981", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The utility value corresponding to a state of health, which can be used later in a cost-utility study, generally has a value:", "Options": { "A": "Between 0 and 1.", "B": "Between 0 and 10", "C": "Between 0 and 100.", "D": "Between -10 and +10.", "E": "Between -100 and +100." }, "Correct Answer": "Between 0 and 1.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c82ed3ce-9c82-407e-a5c7-b501ed09460e", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The objective of using the economic evaluation in the decision making process regarding drug financing is:", "Options": { "A": "Decrease spending on medicines.", "B": "Be more efficient", "C": "Be more effective", "D": "Use the safest drugs.", "E": "Use the drugs with the best benefit-risk balance." }, "Correct Answer": "Be more efficient", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f233acfe-a40b-4009-8e23-6583751610ce", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate the correct option regarding the defined daily dose of a medicine:", "Options": { "A": "Corresponds to the maximum daily dose.", "B": "Corresponds to the initial dose of a treatment.", "C": "Corresponds to the maintenance dose for the indication that requires a lower dose.", "D": "Corresponds to the average daily maintenance dose.", "E": "Corresponds to the initial dose for the main indication." }, "Correct Answer": "Corresponds to the average daily maintenance dose.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1ac77f53-f7db-42f0-a11c-f2765ba5cd12", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A medicine produced and guaranteed by a pharmacist, or under his direction, dispensed in his pharmacy or pharmacy service, listed and described by the National Form, and intended for direct delivery to the sick to whom such pharmacy or pharmaceutical service supplies is:", "Options": { "A": "Master formula", "B": "Prepared office.", "C": "Prefabricated medication", "D": "Intermediate product.", "E": "Medical device." }, "Correct Answer": "Prepared office.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "300f9583-a87b-4917-9517-ae2677cd67bc", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Free samples of industrially manufactured medicines are considered exceptional publicity; as such, they will only be delivered during a maximum time of:", "Options": { "A": "One year from the date of authorization of the medication.", "B": "Five years from the date of authorization of the medication.", "C": "Six months from the date of authorization of the medication.", "D": "Two years from the date of authorization of the medication.", "E": "One month from the date of authorization of the medication." }, "Correct Answer": "Two years from the date of authorization of the medication.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a2ebe865-e490-4a32-8102-323c3a132aa1", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pharmaceutical planning, in Spain, is the responsibility of:", "Options": { "A": "The municipal authorities.", "B": "The Interterritorial Council of the National Health System.", "C": "The county entities.", "D": "The state administration.", "E": "The autonomous communities." }, "Correct Answer": "The autonomous communities.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "942ba918-0b9a-416c-bebe-b52acef990f0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The molecules of the CD1 family (CD1a, CD1b, CD1c, CD1d and CD1e) are expressed in:", "Options": { "A": "All the cells of the organism.", "B": "Only in dendritic cells.", "C": "Only in macrophages.", "D": "Only in monocytes.", "E": "Some thymocytes, in dendritic cells, in monocytes and macrophages." }, "Correct Answer": "Some thymocytes, in dendritic cells, in monocytes and macrophages.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "a4830eda-1ebc-4560-b922-47db7e0322b0", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The DiGeorge syndrome is linked to:", "Options": { "A": "A defective development of the thymus.", "B": "An alteration of the secondary lymphoid tissue.", "C": "An alteration of the M cells", "D": "A maturation defect of B lymphocytes", "E": "An alteration in the regulatory systems of the complement." }, "Correct Answer": "A defective development of the thymus.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "478d080f-71ab-49c7-8d2f-e112cf62780c", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the physiology of the complement system, one of the following statements is false:", "Options": { "A": "Most of its components are inactive.", "B": "Its mode of activation is similar to the coagulation cascade.", "C": "It is subject to strict control of regulatory mechanisms.", "D": "It is only activated by two different routes: the classical and the alternative.", "E": "During its activation, multimolecular complexes are formed." }, "Correct Answer": "It is only activated by two different routes: the classical and the alternative.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "dd6796e8-f811-4fb7-becf-7947f30c91f6", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The CD40 ligand molecule (CD40L or CD154) is expressed in:", "Options": { "A": "Virgin T lymphocytes.", "B": "Activated T lymphocytes", "C": "NK lymphocytes.", "D": "Virgin B lymphocytes.", "E": "B activated lymphocytes." }, "Correct Answer": "Activated T lymphocytes", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "afcc99ea-e035-4d61-8712-1fb6726f4143", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The maturation process for the dendritic cell involves important changes in its physiology, such as:", "Options": { "A": "Decreased expression of the CCR7 marker.", "B": "Reduction of endocytic capacity.", "C": "Decreased expression of histocompatibility molecules.", "D": "Synthesis of IL-13.", "E": "Reduction of CD40 expression." }, "Correct Answer": "Reduction of endocytic capacity.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f4f38370-51db-4f73-8410-a62c6544e77a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Only one of the following cell types synthesizes interleukin IL-12; which one?:", "Options": { "A": "Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.", "B": "NK cells.", "C": "Myeloid dendritic cells.", "D": "Helper T lymphocytes.", "E": "Endothelial cells" }, "Correct Answer": "Myeloid dendritic cells.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3d78fcef-9bb5-4a4a-bc8a-d981c7368bac", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following cell types is the CD3 complex ?:", "Options": { "A": "T lymphocytes.", "B": "B lymphocytes", "C": "Eosinophils", "D": "Follicular dendritic cells.", "E": "Endothelial cells" }, "Correct Answer": "T lymphocytes.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "09d00a7c-873a-46ec-99ff-83f591596dc4", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The different subpopulations of effector T lymphocytes secrete different cytokines. Which of the following statements is false?:", "Options": { "A": "TH1 lymphocytes secrete IL-3.", "B": "TH17 lymphocytes secrete IL-6.", "C": "TH2 lymphocytes secrete IFN-gamma.", "D": "Cytotoxic T lymphocytes secrete TNFalpha.", "E": "The regulatory T lymphocytes secrete IL-10." }, "Correct Answer": "TH2 lymphocytes secrete IFN-gamma.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1ed28a3d-dbbd-4ba1-ba09-cc117a23af47", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The MIC-A protein, expressed in various cell types and induced by cellular stress situations, is recognized by:", "Options": { "A": "KIR receivers.", "B": "The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC).", "C": "The NKG2D receptor.", "D": "B lymphocytes", "E": "NOD type receivers." }, "Correct Answer": "The NKG2D receptor.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "81042215-7fee-4b62-8ade-1f490b1ea189", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patient with polyuria and polydipsia with a specific urine density greater than 1.040. From the following options indicate the most probable diagnosis:", "Options": { "A": "Alcohol intoxication", "B": "Suppression of ADH (vasopressin) by barbiturates.", "C": "Mellitus diabetes.", "D": "Lithium toxicity that causes diabetes insipidus.", "E": "Central deficit of ADH (vasopressin)." }, "Correct Answer": "Mellitus diabetes.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2201a259-0fc3-4f28-8ca4-c5277be5e337", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following heterocycles is considered a bioisosterer of the catecholic system ?:", "Options": { "A": "Pyridine", "B": "Indole.", "C": "Tetrazol", "D": "Thiophene", "E": "Benzimidazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Benzimidazole", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b4ddbcf8-8668-459f-be51-21762a944705", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Suppose that 40% of patients respond to treatment A. The average cost with A for the patients who respond is € 2,000 per patient. The average cost with A for patients who do not respond is € 5,000. What is the expected cost of treatment A for a patient ?:", "Options": { "A": "€ 2,000", "B": "€ 3200", "C": "€ 3500", "D": "€ 3,800.", "E": "€ 5,000" }, "Correct Answer": "€ 3,800.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "55170945-ff8c-43e9-aebb-abcb08a3904a", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Woman 63 years old, hypertensive. When beginning the pharmacological treatment their glycemic values ​​worsen. The antihypertensive pharmacological treatment that this situation may have caused will be:", "Options": { "A": "Fosfinopril.", "B": "Atenolol.", "C": "Hydrochlorothiazide.", "D": "Valsartan", "E": "Amlodipino" }, "Correct Answer": "Hydrochlorothiazide.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ae1b4894-c96b-4e5e-826e-86b0c70c9381", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following metals can be determined by complexometric or chelometric titration:", "Options": { "A": "All without exception.", "B": "All except transition metals.", "C": "All except lithium, sodium and potassium.", "D": "All except alkaline earth metals.", "E": "All except gold and silver." }, "Correct Answer": "All except lithium, sodium and potassium.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dcdac3c2-60bb-4ca4-9153-d0febd510025", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In pharmaceutical practice, office alcohol is used that meets the conditions for pharmaceutical use and thus qualifies alcohol:", "Options": { "A": "Of 95º or alcohol of 96º that owns to the exit of factory.", "B": "95º or 95º alcohol that it has at the factory outlet.", "C": "Of greater disinfecting and bactericidal power.", "D": "Of 100º.", "E": "Of greater disinfecting power although not bactericidal." }, "Correct Answer": "Of 95º or alcohol of 96º that owns to the exit of factory.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "60a43066-ea15-4a95-a848-30bdab54df50", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the cells of the gastric glands that secrete intrinsic factor called ?:", "Options": { "A": "Main.", "B": "Parietals", "C": "Mucous", "D": "Endocrine", "E": "Cells of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (SNED)." }, "Correct Answer": "Parietals", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "727cdafc-fc39-4f38-88eb-608db79afaa9", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the field of bacteriology, what statement is valid in relation to the phenomenon of phage conversion ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is a consequence of infection by a lytic phage.", "B": "It does not imply genotypic alterations.", "C": "It involves the lysogenization of the bacteria by a phage.", "D": "It does not imply phenotypic alterations.", "E": "It is a specialized process of conjugation." }, "Correct Answer": "It involves the lysogenization of the bacteria by a phage.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "795c2460-700d-4633-9eb3-f339cdc724da", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is true with respect to the alkaloid morphine ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is an isoquinoline alkaloid extracted from straw of Papaver somniferum.", "B": "It is a benzylisoquinol alkaloid extracted from latex of Papaver somniferum.", "C": "It is a tracheal alkaloid extracted from leaves of Papaver somniferum.", "D": "It is a quinolizidine alkaloid extracted from capsules of Papaver somniferum.", "E": "It is a pyrrolidinic alkaloid extracted from roots of Papaver somniferum." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a benzylisoquinol alkaloid extracted from latex of Papaver somniferum.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a1c63195-047a-4320-86e3-d868ee00add8", "topic_name": "pharmacology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº1 An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for acute abdominal pain that is accompanied by hypotension, tachycardia and fever of 38ºC. Between its antecedents it emphasizes a resection of left colon by carcinoma seven days before. After the initial resuscitation, a simple chest radiograph (shown) is performed, which is diagnostic of:", "Options": { "A": "Pneumoperitoneum", "B": "Intestinal obstruction.", "C": "Strangled crural hernia.", "D": "Left pneumothorax", "E": "Mesenteric ischemia." }, "Correct Answer": "Pneumoperitoneum", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "daf2bdf5-35c6-4041-95b2-a7779a1e925d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image No. 1 In the same patient, from the observation of the chest x-ray, it can be deduced:", "Options": { "A": "That the patient has pulmonary metastases.", "B": "Suspected nosocomial pneumonia.", "C": "A failure (dehiscence) of the colonic anastomosis should be considered.", "D": "Suspicion of PET", "E": "You have an infection of the surgical wound." }, "Correct Answer": "A failure (dehiscence) of the colonic anastomosis should be considered.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5bb2c8d6-becd-489e-9ef9-c811a44ef832", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº2 A 65-year-old man with a personal history of chronic alcoholic liver disease in functional stage A of Child in treatment with ibuprofen due to low back pain, presents a picture of red blood hematemesis. Upon his arrival at the emergency room, he presented a blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg. In the analytical sample, hemoglobin 10 gr / dL, platelets 250,000 / μL, urea 85 mg / dL and creatinine 1.1 mg / dL are the most important data. Urgent endoscopy is performed showing the image. Given these findings, what is the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It is only necessary to carry out transfusion of packed red cells and monitor the hemodynamic stability of the patient.", "B": "The endoscopic findings suggest a Forrest III classification.", "C": "The placement of bands is the endoscopic treatment of choice since it is a patient with liver disease.", "D": "It is necessary to perform an endoscopy at 12 o'clock to monitor the possibility of rebleeding in a systematic way.", "E": "It is necessary to perform endoscopic treatment with adrenaline 1: 10000 associated with the placement of an endoclip." }, "Correct Answer": "It is necessary to perform endoscopic treatment with adrenaline 1: 10000 associated with the placement of an endoclip.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8e5eda01-c18d-4db9-b8ee-fb94edf60722", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image no. 2 In the case described above and regarding pharmacological treatment, which is the correct statement.", "Options": { "A": "The pharmacological treatment is not necessary since the bleeding lesion has been identified.", "B": "The ideal treatment for this patient is perfusion of somatostatin since it is a hepatopathic patient.", "C": "The use of omeprazole at high doses reduces the recurrence of bleeding.", "D": "Ranitidine is the drug of choice to avoid pharmacological toxicity when dealing with a patient with chronic liver disease.", "E": "The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the first measure to be taken." }, "Correct Answer": "The use of omeprazole at high doses reduces the recurrence of bleeding.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7b23387e-0efd-40fe-b12b-6e8212cbeb52", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº3 58-year-old liver transplant patient with HCV + cirrhosis. After an uncomplicated postoperative period, the patient is referred to his home. Six weeks after the transplant, he was visited in the outpatient clinic, with a low grade of fever, a worsening of the general condition, a GOT level of 60 IU / L (8-40) and a GPT of 65 IU / L (8-50). with a pattern of marked cholestasis (GGT x 10 and FA x 8) with total bilirubin of 1.7 mg / dL (0.3-1). Likewise, a high number of copies of the HCV was appreciated. It was decided to perform a Doppler ultrasound in which a complete arterial thrombosis was reported. In view of these data, a CT scan and a cholangioresonance were requested, the images of which are presented in the figures. For the clinical, analytical and radiological data, indicate which is the most probable diagnosis of the current problem:", "Options": { "A": "Acute rejection mediated by antibodies with associated arterial thrombosis.", "B": "Early HCV recurrence.", "C": "Stenosis of the biliary anastomosis.", "D": "Extensive ischemic injury of intrahepatic bile ducts.", "E": "Complete thrombosis of intrahepatic portal branches." }, "Correct Answer": "Extensive ischemic injury of intrahepatic bile ducts.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "85fcd3e2-577a-4fff-b290-4eccaefcb01c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº3 Taking into account the diagnosis made. What is the treatment that the patient will probably need?", "Options": { "A": "Retransplant hepatic.", "B": "Treatment with Sofosbuvir and Daclatasvir.", "C": "Hepatic-jejunostomy.", "D": "Administration of 3 boluses of methylprednisolone and increase in basal immunosuppression.", "E": "Anticoagulation" }, "Correct Answer": "Retransplant hepatic.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a0ce48f6-ba95-4c40-8dac-3a79c4e887d0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº4 34-year-old man, athlete, who presents a picture of oppressive, continuous chest pain radiating to the back that is accentuated with deep inspiration, of 4 days of evolution, without fever. It refers to a picture of tonsillitis 2 months ago. Rhythmic cardiac auscultation without murmurs. It does not present data of hemodynamic alteration or heart failure. Normal analytical, except for discrete leukocytosis. When you arrive at the emergency room, an ECG is performed, shown in the figure. While waiting for the result of markers of myocardial injury, the most likely diagnosis in this patient is:", "Options": { "A": "Subacute myocardial infarction anteroseptal.", "B": "Tietze syndrome.", "C": "Osteomuscular thoracic pain with athlete's ECG.", "D": "Acute pericarditis", "E": "Unstable angina." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute pericarditis", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f50f0ee4-5186-4832-8ed5-119aaca08bdd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 4 In this patient, the procedure and / or treatment of choice that I would recommend is:", "Options": { "A": "Urgent catheterization.", "B": "Primary angioplasty.", "C": "Fibrinolysis.", "D": "Prednisone 10 mg / 12 hours.", "E": "Anti-inflammatories in prolonged treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "Anti-inflammatories in prolonged treatment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "39fff471-b4a1-4a53-b120-330b170292d7", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº5 62-year-old man, smoker of 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years and hypertensive, who comes to the clinic because of pain when walking in the gluteal area that begins at a distance of 300 meters and disappears with rest at 5 minutes. An Ankle / Arm index is made whose image is attached. Which is the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Critical ischemia of right lower limb.", "B": "Acute ischemia due to arterial embolism.", "C": "Chronic ischemia due to left iliac occlusion.", "D": "Leriche syndrome due to bilateral iliac occlusion.", "E": "Radiculopathy" }, "Correct Answer": "Chronic ischemia due to left iliac occlusion.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7626f0bf-99f3-40cb-bed6-68b18c5cd378", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 5 In this patient, what should be the initial treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Perform a diagnostic angiography plus an associated fibrinolysis.", "B": "Modify vascular risk factors, physical exercise and medical treatment.", "C": "The surgery of revascularization by bypass or by endovascular surgery.", "D": "Perform an urgent embolectomy.", "E": "Analgesic treatment and decrease physical exercise until symptoms improve." }, "Correct Answer": "Modify vascular risk factors, physical exercise and medical treatment.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3c19cd04-87e0-4174-a8c0-0436382e00ba", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº6 29-year-old woman smoker. Consultation for nocturnal cough and dyspnea on exertion. Provides a chest CT performed at your health center (see image). What is the radiological diagnosis of suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Mediastinal broadening.", "B": "Bibasal interstitial infiltrate.", "C": "Aortic dilatation", "D": "Atelectasia lobar.", "E": "Growth of right cavities." }, "Correct Answer": "Mediastinal broadening.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0a91b7d4-2989-468a-9a14-cb14f81d099c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 6 In a recent hemogram, the only notable fact is an eosinophilia of 16%. What diagnostic test of the following would provide more information in the study of the patient?", "Options": { "A": "Echocardiogram.", "B": "Determination of total Ig E and P-ANCAS.", "C": "Bronchofibroscopy.", "D": "Computed tomography.", "E": "Methacholine test and peak expiratory flow (peak flow)." }, "Correct Answer": "Computed tomography.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "597971c2-808c-4e72-b947-08b16a3dcae1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 7 A 60-year-old man consulted for dyspnea. A respiratory functional examination is performed (Spirometry with bronchodilator test, CO diffusion capacity test and Plethysmography) whose report is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis most compatible with the results?", "Options": { "A": "Bronchial asthma.", "B": "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.", "C": "COPD emphysema phenotype.", "D": "Thoracic restraint due to kyphoscoliosis.", "E": "Bronchiectasis" }, "Correct Answer": "COPD emphysema phenotype.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d6000c8b-2c81-4f25-9b02-929583f05247", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 7 In the previous patient, which of the following attitudes would be less justified?", "Options": { "A": "Perform a chest CT scan.", "B": "Request serum levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin.", "C": "Ask for a 6 minute walk test.", "D": "Request skin allergy tests.", "E": "Start treatment with bronchodilators." }, "Correct Answer": "Request skin allergy tests.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "92f005a3-e99e-4231-a80f-0f9b0eb7d79c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº8 A 63-year-old man with persistent pain and swelling, progressive deformity, functional impotence and prolonged rigidity after inactivity in hands, knees and feet for which he had not consulted previously. In an elemental analysis carried out in his company, he highlighted VSG 78 mm / hour, PCR 54 mg / L and uric acid 7.4 mg / dL. The X-ray of hands is shown in the image. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Tophaceous drop", "B": "Erosive arthrosis", "C": "Rheumatoid arthritis.", "D": "Pyrophosphate arthropathy.", "E": "Polymyalgia rheumatica." }, "Correct Answer": "Rheumatoid arthritis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d4ad6671-6e68-40ff-9128-ef3f1e17708d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 8 Conducting an ultrasound in this patient:", "Options": { "A": "It would only allow assessing the tendon affectation.", "B": "It has no use.", "C": "It detects synovitis but not erosions.", "D": "It does not detect synovitis or erosions.", "E": "It detects both synovitis and erosions." }, "Correct Answer": "It detects both synovitis and erosions.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "eb36bf16-2a07-42a8-9937-a6f52753f763", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº9 11-year-old boy who attends because 10 days ago he has a daily fever of predominance in the evening. In the last 2 days the fever has been increasing (up to 38.5º C). Has little appetite and has lost weight (2 kg). Three weeks ago he was kicked in the right knee. Although initially he only had pain later he noticed inflammation, which was increasing until it prevented him from walking. Analytical: elevation of PCR (75 mg / L) without other significant alterations. Simple radiology is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Osteomyelitis.", "B": "Ossifying myositis", "C": "Eosinophilic granuloma.", "D": "Osteosarcoma.", "E": "Osteoblastoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Osteosarcoma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "99b027aa-1600-4b78-876e-bb3c5c30dbfe", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 9 What would be the next step in the clinical management of this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Intravenous antibiotic treatment and radiological control in one month.", "B": "Perform fine needle aspiration of the lesion for microbiological study.", "C": "Magnetic resonance of the femur and then, if appropriate, biopsy of the lesion.", "D": "Anti-inflammatory treatment and clinical-radiological evolutionary control.", "E": "Perform a bone scan with gallium 67." }, "Correct Answer": "Magnetic resonance of the femur and then, if appropriate, biopsy of the lesion.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d3b5b322-660a-46be-944e-d0db146672ec", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº10 A 4-year-old and 6-month-old boy with a previous normal psychomotor development, which begins to present multiple episodes of medium disconnection with maintained tone and subtle rapid flashing of seconds throughout the day and learning difficulties in the last months. A waking electroencephalogram is performed. An image of the record is shown during the hyperventilation maneuver. What epileptic syndrome corresponds?", "Options": { "A": "Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.", "B": "Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.", "C": "Benign partial epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal tips.", "D": "Childhood absence epilepsy.", "E": "West syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Childhood absence epilepsy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "17704920-a762-48b4-96b2-77ce9bcdd3f3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 10 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is of choice?", "Options": { "A": "Carbamazepine", "B": "Vigabatrin", "C": "Valproic acid.", "D": "Topiramate.", "E": "Levetiracetam" }, "Correct Answer": "Valproic acid.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "10615fdd-650a-4c37-89f0-5426d549ce99", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº11 49-year-old patient without a history of interest. He reports a 2-week history of diffuse abdominal pain independent of ingestion and deposition and accompanied by occasional vomiting, malaise and profuse sweating. Analytical: Hb 12 gr / dL. Leucocytes 10x10 ^ 9 / L (Neutrophil 80%, Lymphocytes 15%, Monocytes 3%, Eosinophils 1%). Platelets 270x10 ^ 9 / L. Glucose 100 mg / dL, Urea 80 mg / dL, Creatinine 1.5 mg / dL, A. Uric 12 mg / dL, LDH 7800 IU / L; GOT, GPT and normal alkaline phosphatase. CT: Large mass (16cm) in retroperitoneum infiltrating pancreas, small bowel loops and right kidney. The biopsy is the one shown in the image. Immunohistochemistry: CD20 (+) CD3 (-) bcl 2 (-), CD10 +, bcl 6 (+), P53 (-), TDT (-) Mib1 (proliferation index) 100%. Genetics: rearrangement of 8q24, c-myc gene. Which is the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Diffuse B-cell large lymphoma.", "B": "Lymphocytic lymphoma", "C": "Follicular lymphoma 3b.", "D": "T-cell lymphoma of the intestinal type.", "E": "Burkitt lymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Burkitt lymphoma.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f3e5b96a-c1e0-4d3e-ba6e-bf4305c02dea", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº11 Which treatment is most appropriate in the previous patient?", "Options": { "A": "Cytoreductive surgery followed by chemotherapy type Rituximab-CHOP until complete remission.", "B": "Rituximab-CHOP / 21 x 6-8 cycles followed by retroperitoneal radiotherapy.", "C": "Rituximab-CHOP / 21 x 6-8 cycles followed by intensive QT and stem-cell transplantation (TASPE).", "D": "Intensive chemotherapy that includes Rituximab, high doses of cyclophosphamide and CNS prophylaxis.", "E": "Delay treatment until PET-CT and then treat with Rituximab-CHOP / 14 x 6-8 cycles." }, "Correct Answer": "Intensive chemotherapy that includes Rituximab, high doses of cyclophosphamide and CNS prophylaxis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1bdb64f5-7e07-49bf-aab4-8e1a14731c36", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 12 In the CT that is shown, the most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Polycystic kidney disease", "B": "Retroperitoneal mass.", "C": "Renal tuberculosis", "D": "Renal cystic neoplasia.", "E": "Obstructive uropathy." }, "Correct Answer": "Obstructive uropathy.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "35ad2487-b4d7-4628-9fcb-9ef81ba65a67", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 12 Which of the following is the most likely clinic of this patient's consultation?", "Options": { "A": "Macroscopic hematuria.", "B": "Poliglobulia, pain and fever.", "C": "Fever, pain and dark urine.", "D": "Oligoanuria and pain.", "E": "Febricule and sterile pyuria." }, "Correct Answer": "Fever, pain and dark urine.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9d2b30cf-cf8b-4369-ae68-1760ca64b414", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº13 A 31-year-old man reported a sudden onset of chills, high fever, joint and muscle pain, maculopapular rash predominantly in the extremities, headache and photophobia. It does not refer to any pathological antecedent of interest or travel abroad in the last two years. He is not aware of the existence of communicable diseases in his immediate environment. He lives in a suburban residential area of ​​the Spanish Levante. Physical examination highlights the blackish eschar that can be seen in the image. Point out the vector transmitter of the disease that the patient most likely presents.", "Options": { "A": "Ixodes ricinus.", "B": "Rhipicephalus sanguineus.", "C": "Aedes aegypti.", "D": "Pediculosis corporis.", "E": "Dermacentor variabilis." }, "Correct Answer": "Rhipicephalus sanguineus.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "41635ca1-9838-4073-87f3-185b199c6f62", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº13 Which treatment do you consider most appropriate?", "Options": { "A": "Ceftriaxone 1 g / day parenterally.", "B": "Doxycycline 100 mg / 12h oral.", "C": "Paracetamol 500 mg / 6h oral.", "D": "Chloramphenicol 500 mg / 6h oral.", "E": "Amoxicillin / clavulanic acid 1 g / 8h oral." }, "Correct Answer": "Doxycycline 100 mg / 12h oral.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "46194ebc-ff07-43f7-8aa5-eb52291a5122", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image no. 14 A 68-year-old man consults for a loss of general condition in the form of asthenia and anorexia and loss of 12 Kg in the last three months. The physical examination only shows a thin patient and the lesion on the soles of the feet that can be seen in the figure. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis and / or most appropriate attitude?", "Options": { "A": "I would look for immune suppression factors, because the lesion seems to correspond to a Norwegian scabies.", "B": "The skin lesion looks like a callus in a physiological support area, so for now, I would not consider it related to the loss of the general state.", "C": "The lesion suggests a palmo-plantar form of psoriasis.", "D": "It seems a form of diffuse seborrheic keratosis associated with age.", "E": "It suggests a paraneoplastic plantar keratoderma." }, "Correct Answer": "It suggests a paraneoplastic plantar keratoderma.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "583a8bd8-2d12-42b2-ab94-85d7a6903975", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº14 Suppose that the patient does not refer any family history of interest, has never taken illicit drugs or receives usual medical treatment. An analysis performed in a private mutual shows a microcytic and hypochromic anemia, a normal thyroid function, a serology for HIV negative and a determination of arsenic also negative. The chest x-ray is normal. To continue the study, numerous tests could be carried out. Which do you think could help us more at this time?", "Options": { "A": "A bone marrow aspirate.", "B": "A complete immunological study with ANA, ANCA and complement.", "C": "I would not do more tests immediately and follow the clinical evolution for a month.", "D": "A fibrogastroscopy.", "E": "A biopsy of the plantar lesion." }, "Correct Answer": "A fibrogastroscopy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d2fad89f-1266-43ef-bd2e-fd1b6a272435", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to the image nº15 Patient of 25 years of age transferred to the Rescue Box of the Emergency Service after traffic accident. At admission, he is hypotensive, tachycardic and tachypneic. Portable chest radiography shows right costal fractures from the fourth costal arch to the ninth and right pulmonary contusion image, and the pelvis is attached. What is the best behavior next?", "Options": { "A": "Perform abdominal ultrasound in the emergency box.", "B": "Request a chest computed tomography.", "C": "Request pelvic angiography.", "D": "Request computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis.", "E": "Immediately enter the patient in the intensive care unit." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform abdominal ultrasound in the emergency box.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0f197777-531e-4341-a207-d39383303b42", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image # 15 While we are exploring this patient, he has a sudden worsening of his hemodynamic state and an increase in his tachypnea. Tracheal deviation to the left, distended jugular veins and absence of ventilation in the right hemithorax are observed. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Progression of the right pulmonary contusion.", "B": "Expansive right cervical vascular injury.", "C": "Cardiac tamponade.", "D": "Right hemothorax", "E": "Tension pneumothorax." }, "Correct Answer": "Tension pneumothorax.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "77300e11-800a-401d-a47b-e9dd3805755f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image n ° 16 Patient of 84 years who presents an ulcerated tumor lesion that shows in the scalp of more than 20 years of evolution. No palpable locoregional adenopathies. Obviously the lesion must be biopsied for diagnostic confirmation but, a priori, which of the following diagnoses seems most likely?", "Options": { "A": "Merkel cell tumor.", "B": "Basal cell carcinoma.", "C": "Squamous carcinoma", "D": "Amelanotic malignant melanoma.", "E": "Cutaneous B-cell lymphoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Basal cell carcinoma.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "adfe6537-1d2e-4d1f-914e-13444e7cf0e2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image n ° 16 If the patient is treated surgically with adequate resection margins, what prognosis do you consider most likely?", "Options": { "A": "Healing very likely, with moderate possibility of local recurrence and very remote possibility of distant metastasis.", "B": "Local recurrence with an approximate probability of 50%.", "C": "Probability of lymph node metastasis greater than 50%.", "D": "Probability of distant metastasis greater than 30%.", "E": "In this case, surgical treatment should not be considered as the only therapeutic option." }, "Correct Answer": "Healing very likely, with moderate possibility of local recurrence and very remote possibility of distant metastasis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b870dd9d-6766-41d3-8536-874cf01c3371", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº17 You receive a biopsy of the duodenum of a 38-year-old woman with no other clinical information. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Intestinal lymphoma: infiltration of the lamina propria and the superficial epithelium by a monotonous lymphoid cell population.", "B": "Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac disease): intestinal villi atrophy, increased inflammatory infiltrate and intraepithelial lymphocytosis.", "C": "Lymphangiectasias: dilatation of lymphatic vessels located in the lamina propria of the mucosa.", "D": "Whipple's disease: accumulations of macrophages of wide cytoplasm and microvacuolate in the lamina propria of the mucosa.", "E": "Giardiasis: presence of Giardia lamblia trophozoites on the intestinal surface." }, "Correct Answer": "Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac disease): intestinal villi atrophy, increased inflammatory infiltrate and intraepithelial lymphocytosis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "da41eb7b-3bfa-4c31-9d02-d12a9b589720", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Question linked to image nº17 According to the diagnosis issued in the previous question, what is the best therapeutic option?", "Options": { "A": "Diet rich in proteins and low in fat.", "B": "Metronidazole", "C": "Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.", "D": "Chemotherapy.", "E": "Gluten-free diet" }, "Correct Answer": "Gluten-free diet", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "38642bcb-8afe-413b-b5cf-3cac2a08dcc6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is correct with respect to hepatic hemangiomas?", "Options": { "A": "They can be associated with the KasabachMerritt syndrome (thrombocytopenia and consumption coagulopathy), especially giant hemangiomas.", "B": "Surgical exeresis should be indicated from the moment it is diagnosed if its diameter is greater than 3 cm.", "C": "Percutaneous embolization is the most recommended therapeutic option for this type of tumor.", "D": "The best method for its diagnostic confirmation is percutaneous biopsy of the liver lesion.", "E": "Hepatic MRI does not usually offer much help for its diagnostic characterization." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be associated with the KasabachMerritt syndrome (thrombocytopenia and consumption coagulopathy), especially giant hemangiomas.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "af5e8f6f-11a5-4621-b196-dbf01a54501a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 76-year-old woman came to the emergency room referring to pain in the right groin and vomiting for about 6 hours. On examination, a hard consistency tumor is palpable just below the line joining the anterosuperior iliac spine and the pubis (which corresponds to the location of the inguinal ligament). Most likely, it is one:", "Options": { "A": "Direct inguinal hernia.", "B": "Spiegel hernia.", "C": "Indirect inguinal hernia.", "D": "Femoral hernia (crural).", "E": "Obturator hernia" }, "Correct Answer": "Femoral hernia (crural).", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1fd70af9-ce59-45b2-93b7-5016d66f5e23", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischemic heart disease and COPD, who underwent a complete rectocolonoscopy due to rectal bleeding, with the following findings: polypoid lesion 3 cm in diameter located 10 cm from the anal margin, occupying the half of the circumference. Rest of exploration without findings until blind. In the polyp biopsy, an adenocarcinoma limited to the submucosa is seen. Endorectal ultrasound: uT1N0. Pelvic MRI: T1N0. TC: No evidence of disease at a distance. What will be the most likely therapeutic decision to be made in the Multidisciplinary Tumor Commission?", "Options": { "A": "Abdominal-perineal rectum amputation.", "B": "Neoadjuvant radiotherapy and low anterior resection of the rectum by laparoscopy.", "C": "Transanal endoscopic microsurgery.", "D": "Anterior low resection of laparotomic rectus.", "E": "Anterior low resection of laparoscopic rectal route and adjuvant radiotherapy." }, "Correct Answer": "Transanal endoscopic microsurgery.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9e513f41-7716-4f3d-ab2c-3cac054b85af", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A colonoscopy of colorectal cancer screening is performed on a patient with ulcerative colitis with involvement up to the transverse colon. Colonoscopy shows no signs of inflammatory activity. Multiple biopsies were performed every 10 cm. The biopsies were reviewed by 2 expert pathologists demonstrating a focus of high grade dysplasia in one of the biopsies performed in the sigmoid colon. What would you indicate next?", "Options": { "A": "Repeat the colonoscopy to confirm the diagnosis.", "B": "Intensive surveillance with colonoscopy every 3 to 6 months.", "C": "Repeat the examination and perform a chromoendoscopy to identify the lesion and perform an endoscopic mucosectomy.", "D": "Total proctocolectomy.", "E": "Treatment with mesalazine at doses of 2-3 grams per day and repeat the scan at 3 to 6 months." }, "Correct Answer": "Total proctocolectomy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "31202b63-0625-4c3e-9f12-23c23ece928d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding gastroesophageal reflux disease, which of the following statements is true?", "Options": { "A": "The intensity and frequency of heartburn has little relationship with the presence and severity of endoscopic esophagitis.", "B": "Most patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have esophagitis at endoscopy.", "C": "Treatment with proton pump inhibitors usually achieves good control of symptoms but is not superior to placebo in the endoscopic cure of esophagitis.", "D": "Barrett's esophagus can progress to low-grade epithelial dysplasia, high-grade epithelial dysplasia, and finally squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.", "E": "Endoscopic screening and surveillance programs have unequivocally shown to be able to reduce mortality in patients with Barrett's esophagus." }, "Correct Answer": "The intensity and frequency of heartburn has little relationship with the presence and severity of endoscopic esophagitis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f9d7be1e-1002-4a9a-9b31-45a4be6f09df", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of these patients would the appropriate surgical treatment be the performance of an atypical wedge gastrectomy by laparoscopy without extended lymphadenectomy?", "Options": { "A": "Infiltrating and ulcerated gastric adenocarcinoma at the antro-pylorus level.", "B": "Subcardial infiltrating gastric adenocarcinoma.", "C": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor at the level of the gastric body-greater curvature.", "D": "Lymphoma MALT.", "E": "Barrett's esophagus with intestinal metaplasia and dysplasia." }, "Correct Answer": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor at the level of the gastric body-greater curvature.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "35489e29-4936-4e56-9437-7f7a84645c80", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in a stable hemodynamic situation. A gastroscopy is performed that reports: \"Ulcerated lesion on the posterior aspect of the duodenal bulb with non-pulsatile active hemorrhage. Forrest Ib. Endoscopic sclerosis with adrenaline is practiced, achieving hemostasis \". Point out the correct statement:", "Options": { "A": "The lesion described has a low risk of hemorrhagic recurrence.", "B": "In case of hemorrhagic recurrence, surgical intervention is essential.", "C": "The gastroduodenal artery may be affected by the location of the lesion.", "D": "The description and location of the ulcer suggest a Dieulafoy lesion.", "E": "In the case of surgical intervention, the practice of a truncal vagotomy is mandatory." }, "Correct Answer": "The gastroduodenal artery may be affected by the location of the lesion.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d9b2b891-b6fb-4a60-9598-dfdd8a86ecb4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 25-year-old man consults for jaundice. He practices bodybuilding and has injected anabolic steroids substitutes for 17alkalkyl, three weeks before. For a tonsillitis he had taken amoxicillin-clavulanic acid which he removed 15 days ago. Analytical: AST 1200 IU / L (normal upper limit, lsn 40), ALT 1300 IU / L (lsn 40), GGT 150 IU / L (lsn 50), alkaline phosphatase 180 IU / L (lsn 105), total bililrubin 4 , 8 mg / dL with direct bilirubin predominance. Serology of virus B: Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc positive. Ultrasound suggests grade I steatosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Hepatitis by amoxicillin-clavulanic acid.", "B": "Anabolic steroid hepatitis.", "C": "Acute hepatitis B virus", "D": "Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis.", "E": "Cholestasis due to drugs." }, "Correct Answer": "Hepatitis by amoxicillin-clavulanic acid.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "44a1f044-a438-4957-b904-726770ac27e7", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 66-year-old man, previously diagnosed with liver cirrhosis of alcoholic etiology, is brought to the Emergency Department due to an increase in the abdominal perimeter and temporo-spatial disorientation. On physical examination, there is evidence of ascites and \"flapping tremor\" or asterixis. Which of the following explorations should be done as a matter of urgency?", "Options": { "A": "A cranial computed tomography to rule out a cerebrovascular accident.", "B": "An abdominal ultrasound to confirm the presence of ascites.", "C": "An exploratory paracentesis to rule out a spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.", "D": "An electroencephalogram to confirm the existence of hepatic encephalopathy.", "E": "An abdominal computed tomography to rule out a hepatocellular carcinoma." }, "Correct Answer": "An exploratory paracentesis to rule out a spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3547cbfb-56e7-4929-acd8-e7db3a0316d2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The recommended antibiotic treatment for acute diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile is:", "Options": { "A": "Administer vancomycin orally.", "B": "Administer vancomycin intravenously.", "C": "Administer ciprofloxacin orally.", "D": "Administer metronidazole orally.", "E": "Administer rifaximin orally." }, "Correct Answer": "Administer metronidazole orally.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ee8a90f2-5ba0-41c1-9f5f-ff047a4baa8c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the process of defecation is TRUE:", "Options": { "A": "When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, relaxation of the internal anal sphincter occurs consciously.", "B": "When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, the external anal sphincter relaxes unconsciously.", "C": "The external anal sphincter is controlled by nerve fibers of the pudendal nerve, part of the somatic nervous system, and therefore under voluntary conscious control.", "D": "The propulsive movements of the colon under normal conditions require one hour to move the chyme through the entire colon from the ileocal valve.", "E": "During defecation the contraction of the floor of the pelvis occurs." }, "Correct Answer": "The external anal sphincter is controlled by nerve fibers of the pudendal nerve, part of the somatic nervous system, and therefore under voluntary conscious control.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8a6e41f6-92c2-4d72-aeeb-12a28196f7e2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to intraductal papillary mucinous tumors of the pancreas, point out the WRONG statement:", "Options": { "A": "They are potentially malignant tumors.", "B": "Its frequency has increased notably in the last decade.", "C": "Three subtypes are distinguished: main conduit, secondary conduit and mixed conduit.", "D": "They should be excised as soon as they are diagnosed, except the main duct variety.", "E": "Its first clinical manifestation can be a picture of acute pancreatitis." }, "Correct Answer": "They should be excised as soon as they are diagnosed, except the main duct variety.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6033558f-0e66-49b5-b1c3-bfbc4fbb093b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 49-year-old woman came to the emergency room due to shivering, fever of 39ºC, pain in the right hypochondrium, jaundice and vomiting. The scan reveals TA 100/50 mmHg. FC 110 lpm. Prostration and pain on palpation in the right quadrant, with positive Murphy. The analytical sample shows leukocytosis with left deviation and abdominal ultrasound, cholelithiasis, choledocholithiasis and dilation of the extrahepatic bile duct. Empirical treatment is started with antibiotic and fluid therapy. What is the most effective procedure to perform next?", "Options": { "A": "Maintain antibiotic treatment and support measures with posterior regulated cholecystectomy.", "B": "Laparoscopic cholecystectomy.", "C": "Placement of an external biliary drainage.", "D": "Urgent cholecystectomy with cannulation of the common bile duct.", "E": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with sphincterotomy." }, "Correct Answer": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with sphincterotomy.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f5ac8bd1-779d-4848-89df-7f461e858211", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 60-year-old woman, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, consults for palpitations of weeks of evolution. Provides an electrocardiogram performed a week ago in which he is in atrial fibrillation with an average ventricular rate of 70 beats / min. In the physical examination and in a new electrocardiogram performed in consultation is in sinus rhythm. Is it necessary to anticoagulate it chronically?", "Options": { "A": "It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it has a paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and is not currently in atrial fibrillation.", "B": "It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it is less than 75 years old and has not had a previous stroke.", "C": "You must be chronically anticoagulated because you have a CHADS of 2 and a CHADS-VASc of 3.", "D": "Anticoagulation is not necessary, but antiaggregation with acetylsalicylic acid may be prescribed.", "E": "Must be anticoagulated only with subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin when in atrial fibrillation." }, "Correct Answer": "You must be chronically anticoagulated because you have a CHADS of 2 and a CHADS-VASc of 3.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "41ed3b7b-b2e1-47e5-b6d1-c713b0d62fa5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 32-year-old man with no history of interest or cardiovascular risk factors. Clinic of dyspnea when climbing a floor of stairs of 1 month of evolution. Consultation due to sudden syncope preceded by exertion. Family history of death not explained abruptly in his brother. On physical examination, a more audible rumen systolic murmur with aortic focus is highlighted. The electrocardiogram performed in the consultation shows a sinus rhythm with a compatible pattern of left ventricular hypertrophy. An echocardiogram was performed to document an important asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum with a subvalvular dynamic gradient of 70 mmHg with moderate secondary mitral regurgitation and preserved left ventricular ejection fraction. Which therapeutic option is the LESS indicated?", "Options": { "A": "Beta-blockers.", "B": "Digoxin", "C": "Calcium-non-dihydropyridine antagonists.", "D": "Implantable automatic defibrillator.", "E": "Surgical septal myomectomy of Morrow." }, "Correct Answer": "Digoxin", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a5340154-2ee1-4d35-b49a-e4203ad1c926", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 65-year-old man, smoker and diabetic, is brought to the Emergency Department for presenting an oppressive, deep-throating sweat for about an hour. In the ECG performed, sinus rhythm was observed at 80 bpm and a complete block of the left branch. What should our attitude be?", "Options": { "A": "Perform an analytical determination of troponin and wait for its result to confirm the presence of an acute myocardial infarction.", "B": "Treat the patient as if it were an infarction with ST-segment elevation, proposing a reperfusion therapy as early as possible.", "C": "To implant a transcutaneous pacemaker before the possibility of developing a more advanced block.", "D": "Perform an urgent CT to rule out the presence of an acute pulmonary embolism.", "E": "As it could be an acute pericarditis, we will administer NSAIDs." }, "Correct Answer": "Treat the patient as if it were an infarction with ST-segment elevation, proposing a reperfusion therapy as early as possible.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "455f3123-d281-4e56-893a-309b66a82565", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient goes to the hospital for a myocardial infarction with ST segment elevation. Upon arrival, he is hypotensive, presents crackles and a systolic murmur is heard 3/6. What is your diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Cardiogenic shock.", "B": "Rupture of free wall of left ventricle.", "C": "Acute mitral failure due to papillary muscle rupture.", "D": "Cardiac tamponade.", "E": "Thrombosis of the common trunk." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute mitral failure due to papillary muscle rupture.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2c153d1c-72bb-4d58-ac8a-7805c1a6e5d3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The interventions that contribute to success after a cardiac arrest that occurred in the street are called \"survival chain\". Which of the following options make up the proper order of its links?", "Options": { "A": "Immediate defibrillation. Ask for help. Life support maneuvers. Post-resuscitation care", "B": "Open the airway. Ask for help. Defibrillation Post-resuscitation care.", "C": "Immediate thoracic compressions. Defibrillation and request for help. Post-resuscitation care.", "D": "Word of mouth ventilation Intermittent chest compressions. Defibrillation Ask for help. Post-resuscitation care.", "E": "Early recognition and ask for help. Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Early defibrillation. Post-resuscitation care" }, "Correct Answer": "Early recognition and ask for help. Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Early defibrillation. Post-resuscitation care", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "04d832b3-ab86-4f14-85ca-ba700dcb2986", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Man of 55 years, obese, dyslipidemic and active smoker. In study for refractory hypertension without evidence of cardiac or renal damage so far. He refers to morning headache with daytime hypersomnia. ABPM was performed (ambulatory blood pressure monitoring 24 hours) and arterial hypertension was confirmed despite 3 drugs, one of them diuretic, with higher nighttime blood pressures than daytime blood pressure. What diagnostic test would you request next with your clinical suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Determination of catecholamines in urine 24h.", "B": "Hormonal determination of renin-aldosterone.", "C": "Night polysomnography.", "D": "Doppler ultrasound", "E": "CT aorta." }, "Correct Answer": "Night polysomnography.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f8237956-ea53-477a-b76b-3fab741c697d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following statements about the epidemiology and prognosis of heart failure is INCORRECT. Point it out", "Options": { "A": "Between 60 and 70% of patients die in the first 5 years after establishing the diagnosis of heart failure.", "B": "The functional situation of the patient with heart failure is the one that best correlates with the expectation of survival.", "C": "Diastolic dysfunction predominates in elderly women with a history of chronic hypertension.", "D": "Heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is usually observed in male patients with ischemic heart disease.", "E": "The prevalence of heart failure is decreasing in the last decade thanks to better control of cardiovascular risk factors." }, "Correct Answer": "The prevalence of heart failure is decreasing in the last decade thanks to better control of cardiovascular risk factors.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8834adf6-1a5c-42f7-ab5e-8d12b8b65f11", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patient of 79 years, hypertensive, hyperlipidemic, diabetic and with COPD in treatment with inhaled anticholinergics. He presents chronic atrial fibrillation on anticoagulant treatment with dicumarin. After a 3-day cough, yellow sputum and fever of 38 ° C, presented in the last 24 h progressive worsening with dyspnea of ​​effort, orthopnea and malleolar edema. The examination included a TA of 170/95 mmHg, dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 20 rpm and auscultation with bilateral wheezing and crackling in bases. Tachyarrhythmia at 110 bpm. Discrete malleolar edemas. What is the approach to follow?", "Options": { "A": "The patient probably has pneumonia and the priority is to perform a chest X-ray to confirm it.", "B": "It is probably an exacerbation of your COPD due to respiratory overinfection. Reinforce the basic treatment with an inhaled beta-2, corticoids and antibiotics and monitor evolution.", "C": "You probably have a component of left heart failure associated with a febrile respiratory infection. It would be a priority to treat it with vasodilators and diuretics in addition to the treatment that corresponds to their respiratory infection, bronchodilators, etc.", "D": "The patient is not classified for the severity of his COPD, which would indicate an immediate spirometry to adjust the treatment to the severity of the obstruction. It would also associate an antibiotic given the apparent picture of respiratory overinfection.", "E": "An echocardiogram would be the first exploration to be performed to rule out a possible component of heart failure associated with the exacerbated COPD episode presented by the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "You probably have a component of left heart failure associated with a febrile respiratory infection. It would be a priority to treat it with vasodilators and diuretics in addition to the treatment that corresponds to their respiratory infection, bronchodilators, etc.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bb692056-2114-4c8a-af69-fea06ec02b28", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The volume overload of the left ventricle appears in:", "Options": { "A": "Stenosis of heart valves.", "B": "Coarctation of the aorta.", "C": "Resting angina.", "D": "The insufficiencies of the heart valves.", "E": "Rheumatic fever." }, "Correct Answer": "The insufficiencies of the heart valves.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1534a122-31d9-4747-8976-554a3c0a182d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most frequent etiology of aortic stenosis in adults?", "Options": { "A": "Rheumatic", "B": "Congenital", "C": "Degenerative or calcified", "D": "Post endocarditis.", "E": "Ischemic" }, "Correct Answer": "Degenerative or calcified", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "98435a9e-1bc1-4a34-bd94-9c45ce3ddd58", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a patient with asthma symptoms, diagnostic confirmation of the disease will be made first by:", "Options": { "A": "The finding of a reversible obstruction of air flow in spirometry.", "B": "A positive allergic skin test.", "C": "An increase in the number of eosinophils in the induced sputum.", "D": "The elevation of nitric oxide in exhaled air (FENO).", "E": "The presence of a specific IgE in blood to an aeroallergen." }, "Correct Answer": "The finding of a reversible obstruction of air flow in spirometry.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "72bddd9b-bf43-450b-9741-f34e1bad19eb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The surgical treatment of COPD, or lung volume reduction surgery, is currently a therapeutic weapon more within the multidisciplinary treatment of it. Which of the following statements is correct?", "Options": { "A": "The indication for surgical treatment will be in those patients who have moderate / severe congestive heart failure at the same time.", "B": "The presence of a pulmonary artery systolic pressure lower than 45 is an absolute contraindication.", "C": "COPD with emphysematous predominance in lower and middle lobes associated with pleural pathology is associated with better results.", "D": "The presence of a diffuse distribution of emphysema with FEV1> 20% and DLCO <20% are indicators of good prognosis.", "E": "Pre-surgical rehabilitation along with the distribution of emphysema in the upper lobes and the ability to perform postoperative physical exercise makes the results of the surgery beneficial." }, "Correct Answer": "Pre-surgical rehabilitation along with the distribution of emphysema in the upper lobes and the ability to perform postoperative physical exercise makes the results of the surgery beneficial.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0a2613b0-1bf2-4567-b3b0-07905d50ae3f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the treatment of patients with COPD, point out the FALSE answer:", "Options": { "A": "The regular use of ipratropium bromide has been associated with a decrease in mortality.", "B": "In a patient with arterial oxygen saturation of less than 90% and signs of pulmonary hypertension, the use of supplemental oxygen should be considered.", "C": "The regular use of inhaled corticosteroids does not influence the rate of deterioration of lung function.", "D": "Long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists provide symptomatic benefits similar to those of ipratropium bromide.", "E": "In patients hospitalized for exacerbation, corticosteroid therapy has been shown to shorten hospitalization time." }, "Correct Answer": "The regular use of ipratropium bromide has been associated with a decrease in mortality.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a85bf222-bf5d-4e1f-83bb-d444b6105190", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "73-year-old man, ex-smoker, history of hypertension, grade II obesity, type 2 diabetes and severe COPD with chronic home oxygen therapy. He went to the Emergency Department due to a progressive increase in his habitual dyspnea, purulent expectoration and a temperature of 37.9ºC in 4 days of evolution. His family doctor had prescribed moxifloxacin, paracetamol, deflazacort, aerosol therapy and increased oxygen flow 2 days before. On physical examination the patient is in regular general condition, conscious, sleep tendency, tachypneic at 28 rpm and utilization of accessory muscles, temperature 38.2ºC, oxygen saturation of 87%, TA 115/62 mmHg, heart rate 110 lpm; vesicular murmur diminished globally, wheezing and scattered rhonchi and moist crepitations in bases. The analyte highlights 16,500 / uL leukocytes with 14,900 neutrophils, hemoglobin 14 g / dL, glucose 240 mg / dL, urea 56 mg / dL, creatinine 1.3 mg / dL, Na 133 mEq / L, K 3.7 mEq / L. In the ECG, sinus tachycardia was observed. The arterial blood gases show: pH 7.29, pCO2 64 mmHg, pO2 59 mmHg, HCO3 28 mg / dL. The chest radiograph shows no condensation or pleural effusion. Which of the following clinical management options would you establish in the first place?", "Options": { "A": "Start treatment with intravenous diuretics, oxygen with a high-flow 50% mask and continue with the rest of the prescribed treatment.", "B": "Start treatment with salbutamol and steroid sprays, add a cephalosporin to the antibiotic treatment, intensify oxygen therapy in nasal glasses at 4 liters per minute and maintain deflazacort.", "C": "Start treatment of acidosis with 1M bicarbonate, correct hyperglycemia, maintain antibiotic treatment and prescribe steroids plus intravenous diuretics.", "D": "Given the patient's serious situation, orotracheal intubation would be carried out prior to preparation (pre-oxygenation and premedication) and to notify Intensive Care Medicine.", "E": "Start treatment with non-invasive mechanical ventilation (two-level positive pressure mode), prescribe salbutamol aerosols and intravenous steroids and maintain intravenous antibiotic treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "Start treatment with non-invasive mechanical ventilation (two-level positive pressure mode), prescribe salbutamol aerosols and intravenous steroids and maintain intravenous antibiotic treatment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "52fe7d14-be58-4c38-8723-af1758db9efa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 58-year-old woman attended the consultation due to dyspnea of ​​medium effort, muscle weakness in the upper extremities and dysphagia to solids of three months of evolution. Physical examination revealed a loss of strength in the upper limbs with preserved sensitivity. Pulmonary auscultation shows generalized hypophisis. A chest x-ray is performed, showing uninspired lungs and laminar atelectasis in the lung bases. Gasometry shows pH 7.39, PCO2 48 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 28 mmol / L, SatO2 93%. The combination of physiological mechanisms that best explain this gasometry is:", "Options": { "A": "Decrease in FiO2 (inspired fraction of oxygen) and alteration of diffusion.", "B": "Alteration of diffusion and disturbance of the ventilation / perfusion relationship.", "C": "Alveolar hypoventilation and decrease in FiO2.", "D": "Disorder of the ventilation / perfusion relationship and alveolar hypoventilation.", "E": "Increased pulmonary artery pressure and decreased diffusion." }, "Correct Answer": "Disorder of the ventilation / perfusion relationship and alveolar hypoventilation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7c0130ac-12b4-4508-83d0-b73ed2d61434", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnea and a non-productive cough several years old. In chest X-ray, pleural plaques are seen in the mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleura. On CT, these plaques are confirmed, also appreciating the presence of reticulonodulillar involvement predominantly in lower fields. Among the following, what attitude would you recommend in the first place?", "Options": { "A": "Complete your smoking history.", "B": "Inquire about occupational exposure.", "C": "Request blood tests to rule out eosinophilia.", "D": "Do complete respiratory functional tests.", "E": "Propose a transbronchial biopsy." }, "Correct Answer": "Inquire about occupational exposure.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1f0c2a11-60d1-4a94-9aee-bcb6f17ed0ce", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The practice of posteroanterior chest x-ray in forced expiration is very useful for the diagnosis of:", "Options": { "A": "Loculated pleural effusion.", "B": "Pneumothorax minimum.", "C": "Hemothorax", "D": "Pulmonary atelectasis.", "E": "Pericarditis" }, "Correct Answer": "Pneumothorax minimum.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "385ebbd4-9aac-44f7-9faa-f39639357638", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 38-year-old man went to the emergency room for progressive dyspnea and dry cough of a week of evolution. He does not have a history of interest. The vital signs are: temperature 37.8ºC, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 105 bpm and respiratory rate 30 rpm. In the respiratory exploration, percussion dullness, diminution of tactile (vocal) thrill, and diminution of respiratory noises at the base of the right hemithorax stand out. The rest of the physical examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Pleural effusion", "B": "Lobar pneumonia", "C": "Acute bronchitis.", "D": "Pulmonary tuberculosis", "E": "Pneumothorax." }, "Correct Answer": "Pleural effusion", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e0ddccaf-3767-4bdb-ad06-02695be0b41d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 68-year-old patient has a tumor mass diagnosed of small cell lung carcinoma in the right main bronchus at 1 cm from the tracheal carina. Mediastinoscopy shows contralateral adenopathies that are positive. The recommended treatment would be:", "Options": { "A": "Chemotherapy with right pneumonectomy.", "B": "Surgery and subsequent radiotherapy of all affected ganglion chains.", "C": "Right pneumonectomy and posterior chemotherapy.", "D": "Chemotherapy and radiotherapy.", "E": "Radiotherapy." }, "Correct Answer": "Chemotherapy and radiotherapy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c77ade7a-ea1e-488b-82bd-de3df467998b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient reporting chest and cervicobrachial pain. Physical examination reveals miosis and unilateral enophthalmos. Chest X-ray shows opacity at the apex and erosion of the first ribs. What is your diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Pancoast tumor.", "B": "Mediastinal tumor.", "C": "Localized pleural mesothelioma.", "D": "Bronchioloalveolar tumor.", "E": "Small cell lung cancer with brain metastases." }, "Correct Answer": "Pancoast tumor.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "96884529-6205-4b3c-abc3-f92ebd7a0fcf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old woman with two weekly episodes of headache lasting between one and three days, hemicranial, intense, accompanied by sono and photophobia and nausea. As a preventive treatment, I would NOT consider one of these drugs:", "Options": { "A": "Propranolol", "B": "Flunarizine", "C": "Carbamazepine", "D": "Topiramate.", "E": "Nadolol" }, "Correct Answer": "Carbamazepine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a9abcb67-b2f6-482d-a3cc-70d5f2e8b6d3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 30-year-old woman, previously healthy, presents a picture of right facial weakness in the course of about 20 hours, so she can not close her right eye and her mouth has been twisted. Refers to see double with the right lateral gaze. Which of the following diagnostic possibilities seems most likely?", "Options": { "A": "Bell's palsy", "B": "Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (herpetic facial paralysis).", "C": "Sarcoidosis", "D": "Left sylvian infarction with involvement of the rolandic operculum.", "E": "Protuberant involvement due to an outbreak of multiple sclerosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Protuberant involvement due to an outbreak of multiple sclerosis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5d5d9b40-0c5d-4994-9db7-fb2b3e31e156", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "50-year-old man, mechanic, consulted for a two-year evolution of difficulty in handling the right hand and a feeling of stiffness in the arm. His wife notices his expressionless face and reports that he has very vivid nightmares that wake him up agitated. During the examination, rigidity was observed in the right limbs and slow walking without right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Left thalamic lacunar infarct.", "B": "Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis.", "C": "Parkinson's disease", "D": "Cervical plexopathy", "E": "Corticobasal degeneration." }, "Correct Answer": "Parkinson's disease", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cbd9cd7e-55c6-43f9-b56c-84e4e3a8478c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 7-year-old boy presents a subacute picture of cerebellar ataxia and intracranial hypertension. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates an expansive lesion in the cerebellar vérmix that captures contrast and obstructs the fourth ventricle. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Meningioma", "B": "Cerebellar metastasis.", "C": "Glioblastoma multiforme.", "D": "Medulloblastoma", "E": "Lymphoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Medulloblastoma", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a70d519f-621f-45ad-9913-07e09cd024f6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patient of 70 years with the only antecedent of being ex-alcoholic for 3 years and diagnosed with atrophic gastritis. Consultation for a 4-month evolution that began with distal and symmetrical paresthesias in the lower limbs and progressively added gait difficulty, this being impossible without help, and confusional episodes of paroxysmal presentation. On neurological examination, the cranial nerves are normal, have a slight bradypsychia, failures in deep sensation in four limbs, pseudo-dystonic attitude in the upper limbs, finger-nose dysmetria and bilateral knee heel with closed eyes, extenuated osteotendinous reflexes, bilateral Babinski and distal paresis in upper limbs. Point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "Perform a blood count and determination of B12 when funicular myelosis is suspected.", "B": "Perform an MRI looking for atrophy of vermis and cerebellar foliae before the high suspicion of alcoholic cerebellar degeneration.", "C": "Initially, 100 mg of intravenous thiamine should be administered because of suspicion of Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy.", "D": "The first thing to do would be a determination of natremia to rule out a central pontine myelinolysis.", "E": "Perform an electromyographic study when there is a high suspicion of primary lateral sclerosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a blood count and determination of B12 when funicular myelosis is suspected.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3af06153-5b04-4c08-87a5-31809fc2b89b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 52-year-old male presents with acute form a confusional syndrome, paresis of both external ocular rectus muscles and gait ataxia.", "Options": { "A": "Hyperglycemic encephalopathy.", "B": "Korsakoff encephalopathy.", "C": "Cerebellar infarction.", "D": "Administer thiamin immediately.", "E": "Lead poisoning." }, "Correct Answer": "Administer thiamin immediately.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2918b574-1498-4d9a-b7f1-ce6f60cab9ce", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old student who, after three weeks of a cold in the upper respiratory tract, visited the doctor for a sensation of numbness in his hands and loss of limb strength in recent days. The picture was preceded by low back pain. In the exploration, it stands out, decrease of asymmetric muscular force in upper and lower extremities, loss of osteotendinous reflexes. In this patient the most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Myasthenia gravis.", "B": "First outbreak of multiple sclerosis.", "C": "Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy.", "D": "Dermatomyositis", "E": "Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "36fd8293-2b93-4e9c-a5aa-9e3f7c230005", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes of 20 years of evolution, hypertension and prostatism in treatment, consulted for repeated episodes of syncope. The episodes have occurred while standing, after meals and have been preceded by an oppressive pain in the nape, neck and shoulder girdle. Which of these complementary tests is essential?", "Options": { "A": "Brain and cervical MRI.", "B": "Angio-MR of the supra-aortic trunks.", "C": "Nuclear medicine study of cerebral dopamine transporter (SPECT with ioflupane).", "D": "Measurement of blood pressure in decubitus and standing.", "E": "24-hour Holter record of the electrocardiogram." }, "Correct Answer": "Measurement of blood pressure in decubitus and standing.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "75672bf6-32b0-4636-a9f2-cf56b643541c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following symptoms is NOT present in the Wallemberg syndrome, usually produced by ischemia of the dorsal-lateral region of the bulb?", "Options": { "A": "Diffuse", "B": "Dysphagia", "C": "Piramidalism", "D": "Ataxia.", "E": "Horner syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "Piramidalism", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "09315771-eb43-4a45-8a77-5a6ac046c08d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to Hereditary Spherocytosis it is true that:", "Options": { "A": "It is a congenital hemolytic anemia of inheritance linked to the X chromosome that causes severe anemia.", "B": "It is characterized by a decrease in osmotic fragility.", "C": "It manifests as episodes of acute medication anemia.", "D": "Splenectomy is the treatment of choice when it is symptomatic.", "E": "It is rarely associated with cholelithiasis." }, "Correct Answer": "Splenectomy is the treatment of choice when it is symptomatic.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4ebd3505-1cef-4223-beab-6c2d07a448ad", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old patient who went to the emergency room for general malaise, headache and progressive tiredness in recent weeks. On physical examination, a slight icteric dye of the skin and mucous membranes was detected and a 2-cm splenomegaly was felt under the costal margin. The analytical presents hemoglobin 8.6 g / dL, VCM 100 fL. The number of reticulocytes is high and anisopoikilocytosis is observed in the blood smear. In the biochemistry highlights LDH 1300 IU / L, bilirubin 2.2 mg / dL and undetectable haptoglobin. Which test is the most appropriate to guide the diagnosis of the patient?", "Options": { "A": "Fecal occult blood test.", "B": "Test of Coombs.", "C": "Determination of iron, cobalamin and folic acid.", "D": "Abdominal ultrasound.", "E": "Bone marrow aspirate." }, "Correct Answer": "Test of Coombs.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "da75ca39-aa27-4489-99f5-7cacee56f8ef", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "35-year-old woman on hormonal treatment for infertility. He went to the emergency department due to constitutional syndrome and paresthesias in the left side of the body. In blood tests, Hb 7.5 g / dL, reticulocytes 10% (0.52%), platelets 5,000 / uL, normal leukocytes, LDH 1,200 IU / L, direct negative Coombs test, undetectable haptoglobin are detected. Morphology of peripheral blood with abundant schistocytes. Normal coagulation tests. What is the diagnostic suspicion and the most appropriate treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Start steroids.", "B": "Von Willebrand disease. Administration of desmopressin.", "C": "Thrombocytopenic purpura. Start steroids and platelet transfusion.", "D": "Evans syndrome. Start steroids.", "E": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Treatment with plasmapheresis." }, "Correct Answer": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Treatment with plasmapheresis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "19383e66-c4e6-4079-bc97-325eff53feec", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 70-year-old man should undergo cataract extraction surgery. He has a mitral mechanical prosthesis for 10 years and is being treated with acenocoumarol. The electrocardiogram shows a sinus rhythm. Which of the following recommendations do you find most appropriate?", "Options": { "A": "Perform eye surgery without stopping acenocoumarol.", "B": "Suspend acenocoumarol 5 days before surgery and restart it the day after it.", "C": "Suspend acenocoumarol 5 days before surgery, start low molecular weight heparin 3 days before surgery and suspend it 24 hours before surgery.", "D": "Suspend acenocoumarol 1 day before the intervention and use fresh frozen plasma during it.", "E": "Suspend acenocoumarol 1 day before the intervention and give vitamin K just before it." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform eye surgery without stopping acenocoumarol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1be08daf-780d-4229-9f7b-5d2fd57ce211", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 29-year-old woman with a history of abundant rules and long-standing iron-deficiency anemia who have required treatment with ferrotherapy since she was 17 years old. Consult because after a tooth extraction you have hemorrhage that has required local hemostatic treatment. He relates that a maternal aunt presents frequent epistaxis. In analytical presents: 8000 leukocytes / uL, Hb 10.7 g / dL, VCM 76 fL, 380,000 platelets / uL; the biochemistry is normal. Prothrombin activity 90%; INR 0.9; Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) 48 sec (39 sec) with an APTT ratio of 1.3 and fibrinogen derivative 340 mg / dL. What is the most likely diagnostic suspicion and how would it confirm it?", "Options": { "A": "Hemophilia A and mixtures test.", "B": "Lupus anticoagulant and ANAS study.", "C": "Sideroblastic anemia and spinal aspiration.", "D": "Congenital thrombocytopathy and study of platelet aggregation.", "E": "Von Willebrand disease and determination of factor vW." }, "Correct Answer": "Von Willebrand disease and determination of factor vW.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6b499f5c-3b75-47fd-a9c1-104cc88e63f0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to multiple myeloma?", "Options": { "A": "The cytogenetics and serum levels of albumin and beta2-microglobulin are important data for the prognosis.", "B": "Bortezomib, thalidomide, lenalidomide and polychemotherapy are very useful therapeutic tools.", "C": "Autogenic transplantation of hematopoietic progenitors provides a long progression-free survival.", "D": "Allogeneic transplantation should be considered an experimental procedure (of unproven efficacy).", "E": "Radiation therapy has no role in the treatment of the disease or its complications." }, "Correct Answer": "Radiation therapy has no role in the treatment of the disease or its complications.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "426ad875-7b89-4ee2-ac0d-036dd77b8054", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patient of 74 years of age, asymptomatic, who in a routine analysis presents platelets 40,000 platelets / μL, the remainder being the normal blood cell count and the complete normal biochemistry. Point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "The most likely diagnosis is an Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura and steroid treatment should be started as soon as possible.", "B": "It is a serious thrombocytopenia with a high risk of spontaneous bleeding.", "C": "A peripheral blood smear should be performed to rule out pseudotrombocytopenia or spurious thrombocytopenia before further measurements are made.", "D": "The most probable diagnosis is that of a myelodysplastic syndrome, so the initial test to be performed would be a bone marrow study.", "E": "An initial study should be performed with viral serologies, autoimmunity study and abdominal ultrasound. If all these tests were normal, the study should be completed with a peripheral blood smear." }, "Correct Answer": "A peripheral blood smear should be performed to rule out pseudotrombocytopenia or spurious thrombocytopenia before further measurements are made.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "048b1423-a311-47ed-a3bb-b89252f165dd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pruritus is a typical manifestation of all the following diseases, except:", "Options": { "A": "Hodgkin lymphoma.", "B": "Polycythemia vera.", "C": "Mycosis fungoides", "D": "Systemic mastocytosis.", "E": "Acute myeloblastic leukemia." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute myeloblastic leukemia.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "010a1268-6228-49c8-b9c9-a54ed1090441", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for pulmonary embolism confirmed by angio-CT. He has no history of recent surgery, trauma or travel. He refers to Raynaud's phenomenon for 2 years, and the previous year he had an abortion at 12 weeks of gestation. He has no family history of venous thromboembolic disease. The activated partial thromboplastin time is 56 sg (normal 25-35 sg) and the platelet count is 120000 / uL. Which of the following diagnostic tests would help you most in the diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Antithrombin III.", "B": "Lupus anticoagulant.", "C": "Factor V of Leiden.", "D": "Protein C.", "E": "Protein S." }, "Correct Answer": "Lupus anticoagulant.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8d1ae2c5-e386-4331-89d6-040e7d57bf57", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patient with diabetes mellitus, weight loss, anemia and necrolytic migraine erythema. The most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Somatostatinoma.", "B": "Insulinoma", "C": "Vipoma", "D": "Gastrinoma", "E": "Glucagonoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Glucagonoma", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1beb6d90-931a-406d-b06e-fb35345a0b65", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 78-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis 5 years ago, high blood pressure, depression and generalized anxiety. Take hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, citalopram and aspirin. Live alone in sheltered apartments. Eat little, typically coffee and toast for breakfast, fruit and half a sandwich to eat and salad for dinner. Walk 1.5 km daily. It measures 152 cm and weighs 39 Kg. The blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and the heart rate is 82 bpm. Laboratory tests included basal glycemia of 147 mg / dL (1 month ago it was 152 mg / dL), creatinine 1.0 mg / dL (estimated glomerular filtration rate 28 ml / min), urea 32 mg / dL and glycosylated hemoglobin 9 ,5%. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for diabetes?", "Options": { "A": "Insulin glargine subcutaneous 8 U per day.", "B": "Oral metformin at a dose of 850 mg every 12 hours.", "C": "Oral Glibenclamide 10 mg daily.", "D": "It does not need pharmacological treatment, only diet.", "E": "Pioglitazone 15 mg daily." }, "Correct Answer": "Insulin glargine subcutaneous 8 U per day.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "11157993-32ce-4aa2-a64b-68a625a0f891", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Metformin is recommended as initial treatment in most consensus of treatment of type 2 diabetes, for efficacy, safety and price; However, its use has some limitations and it is obligatory to suspend it in some clinical situations. In which of the following situations would you NOT consider stopping this treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Introduction of long-acting insulin analogue due to poor metabolic control.", "B": "Alcohol intake greater than 50 g / day as usual.", "C": "CT scan with intravenous contrast.", "D": "Diarrheic picture with elevated plasma Cr at 2.5 mg / dL.", "E": "Acute ischemia of the lower extremities with significant tissue hypoxia." }, "Correct Answer": "Introduction of long-acting insulin analogue due to poor metabolic control.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "06d5cb1a-39b3-48eb-af15-35e5f2b2ec2d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the risk factors of cardiovascular diseases, which of the following statements is NOT correct?", "Options": { "A": "Regarding LDL cholesterol, the therapeutic objective depends on the global cardiovascular risk.", "B": "Type 2 diabetic patients should be considered at high cardiovascular risk and the objective in terms of LDL cholesterol should be <100 mg / dL.", "C": "There is not enough evidence that low levels of HDL cholesterol suppose a cardiovascular risk factor.", "D": "The important thing about the risk associated with hypertension is that it improves when blood pressure is reduced regardless of the type of drug used.", "E": "The existence of coronary disease in the family is a risk factor for the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "There is not enough evidence that low levels of HDL cholesterol suppose a cardiovascular risk factor.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7599fa88-caf8-4e3a-8612-4e0c6e8ba583", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old man with hypogonadism of hypothalamic origin secondary to operated craniopharyngioma, undergoing intramuscular treatment with testosterone undecanoate every 12 weeks, which is referred to us from another center for follow-up. The patient interrogates us in the initial visit about the follow-up of his basic pathology, possible adverse events of the hormonal treatment and probabilities of having offspring in the future. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?", "Options": { "A": "Serum testosterone levels should be measured just before each subsequent injection.", "B": "The goal of treatment is to maintain serum testosterone concentrations in the normal range of normality.", "C": "It is indicated to check the hematocrit on an annual basis.", "D": "Treatment with intramuscular testosterone for a prolonged period will increase the chances of conception with your partner.", "E": "The treatment with testosterone does not require the monitoring of luteinizing hormone concentrations." }, "Correct Answer": "Treatment with intramuscular testosterone for a prolonged period will increase the chances of conception with your partner.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4b01b992-c1e7-43cd-b1bd-89d824759804", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 25-year-old man with no personal or family history of interest, who enters Neurosurgery due to a cranial fracture due to a motorcycle accident. Three days later it begins abruptly with polyuria, polydipsia and intense thirst both during the day and at night. In the study conducted, a urinary volume of 7 liters with urinary osmolarity of 190 mOsm / L (90-1200) and plasma osmolarity of 292 mOsm / L (275-295) was observed. The plasma Na is 143 mmol / L. A water restriction test is performed and after checking that there is no increase in urinary osmolarity, a dose of 2 micrograms of desmopressin subcutaneously is administered. The posterior urinary osmolality is 410 mOsm / kg. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Primary polydipsia.", "B": "Central diabetes insipidus.", "C": "Acute adrenal insufficiency.", "D": "SIADH.", "E": "Nephrogenic insipid diabetes." }, "Correct Answer": "Central diabetes insipidus.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "fe673ce4-c190-4977-8aa6-e56e5a22e792", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following statements, one is NOT a trigger for abdominopsychoneurological crises in acute porphyria. Indicate which:", "Options": { "A": "The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.", "B": "The enzymatic hepatic inducer drugs.", "C": "The infections", "D": "A restrictive diet in proteins.", "E": "The protease inhibitors used in HIV infection." }, "Correct Answer": "A restrictive diet in proteins.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ab360e9b-7ae3-4a81-b0f1-45d8c9175bed", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The gluten-free diet is the cornerstone in the treatment of celiac disease. In this regard, there are numerous products manufactured with an uncertain composition in terms of gluten, often being misleading labeling. Of the following food groups, which one can we consider completely safe in the diet of a celiac patient?", "Options": { "A": "Canned meat: Hamburgers, meatballs.", "B": "Milk and derivatives: yogurt, cheese, cream, curd.", "C": "Sauces, condiments and food additives.", "D": "Integral pasta: noodles, macaroni, noodles.", "E": "Delicatessen products, sausages, pâtés." }, "Correct Answer": "Milk and derivatives: yogurt, cheese, cream, curd.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6830d2bd-b3b8-42ea-949e-0b0a160eaad3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding the loss of bone mass in patients treated with glucocorticoids, what statement do you consider correct?", "Options": { "A": "If the dose of prednisone received by the patient is less than 15 mg per day, for a time less than 6 months, it is not a real problem and no preventive measure should be taken.", "B": "Thiazides have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, both in the hip and in the spine, in patients treated with glucocorticoids. Therefore, its use should be recommended in these patients as a preventive measure.", "C": "It is recommended to perform a bone densitometry after the first year of treatment with glucocorticoids, since before there is no loss of bone mass.", "D": "All patients treated with glucocorticoids should receive an adequate supply of calcium and vitamin D, which can come from the diet or from pharmacological supplements.", "E": "The loss of bone mass is observed, especially in the hip, so the densitometry of the spine has no use in its assessment." }, "Correct Answer": "All patients treated with glucocorticoids should receive an adequate supply of calcium and vitamin D, which can come from the diet or from pharmacological supplements.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5f2827b8-1320-4fff-897c-c4bd10df71fa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 33-year-old woman with a loss of 6 kg in the last 4 months, asthenia and anorexia. Amenorrhea for 2 months. The hormonal results indicate a basal cortisol serum concentration of 108 nmol / l (baseline normal value 115-550) and 123 nmol / l after stimulation with ACTH. The baseline plasma concentration of ACTH is 48 pmol / l (normal value: 2-12). What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Primary adrenal insufficiency.", "B": "Secondary adrenal insufficiency.", "C": "Tertiary adrenal insufficiency due to hypothalamic lesion.", "D": "ACTH-producing pituitary tumor (corticotropinoma).", "E": "More tests should be done since the diagnosis is inconclusive." }, "Correct Answer": "Primary adrenal insufficiency.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "46a0e142-eee9-4f54-baa8-a10dc37e0529", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following clinical pictures is compatible with the diagnosis of subacute thyroiditis?", "Options": { "A": "A 38-year-old woman with a 2-week history of thyroid pain, elevated T4 and T3, low TSH, and increased technetium uptake on the scan.", "B": "A 42-year-old man with a history of pain in the thyroid gland 4 months ago, fatigue, general malaise, low concentrations of free T4 and high TSH levels.", "C": "A 31-year-old woman with enlarged thyroid gland, painless on palpation, low TSH, high free T4 and T3, and increased technetium uptake on scintigraphy.", "D": "A 30-year-old woman under treatment with oral contraceptives, with discomfort in the neck and palpable thyroid nodule that behaves as a solid on ultrasound. Increase in total T4 with normal TSH.", "E": "A 46-year-old man who consulted due to fatigue during the last 3 months. In the analytical, low concentrations of free T4 and T3 and TSH were observed." }, "Correct Answer": "A 42-year-old man with a history of pain in the thyroid gland 4 months ago, fatigue, general malaise, low concentrations of free T4 and high TSH levels.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d5f70380-68c2-402d-a1f6-28cbc592b4da", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which statement regarding the substitution treatment with L-thyroxine in a patient with hypothyroidism is correct?", "Options": { "A": "Thyroid function will be determined 48 hours after its initiation to assess efficacy.", "B": "In elderly patients and in order to improve symptomatology quickly, treatment with L-T4 is started at a dose of 150-200 micrograms per day.", "C": "In pregnancy, thyroid hormone requirements usually increase by about 50 micrograms per day, over the previous dose.", "D": "The medication should be taken in the middle of meals.", "E": "It is advisable to administer a gastric protector simultaneously to avoid gastritis." }, "Correct Answer": "In pregnancy, thyroid hormone requirements usually increase by about 50 micrograms per day, over the previous dose.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1e44cedb-0a27-41be-a878-dd937c82ffa8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the alterations of the acid-base balance?", "Options": { "A": "The arterial pH is regulated by the Henderson-Hasselbach equation and is 7.35-7.45.", "B": "Hypercapnia (increase in PaCO2) is a consequence of the increase in CO2 production.", "C": "Metabolic acidosis occurs due to increased endogenous acid production, acid accumulation and / or loss of bicarbonates.", "D": "In patients with lactic acidosis it is common to find an anion gap or difference greater than 12 mmol / L.", "E": "The use of alkalizing solutions should be reserved for cases of severe acidemia with ph <7.20." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypercapnia (increase in PaCO2) is a consequence of the increase in CO2 production.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8472126a-fc9f-46a1-9ee6-2ec44847641d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 47-year-old man consulted for edema in lower limbs of 3 weeks of evolution. In blood analysis, creatinine 1.3 mg / dL, total cholesterol 270 mg / dL and albumin 2.4 g / dL. In the urine sediment, it presents 15-20 red cells per field and in urine of 24 hours proteinuria is detected 3.7 g / day. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Minimal change disease.", "B": "Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis.", "C": "Membranous nephropathy", "D": "Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I.", "E": "Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis." }, "Correct Answer": "Membranous nephropathy", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a30fe258-5fa0-4727-b3c8-065d86fc7f4c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 68-year-old woman diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Treatment with Isoniacid, Rifampicin and Ethambutol was started. At 12 days after the start of treatment, he consulted for fever of 38ºC, skin rash, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, lumbar pain, oliguria and eosinophilia with acute deterioration of renal function. The urine test revealed hematuria, leukocyturia with eosinophiluria in Wright's stain and non-nephrotic proteinuria (1.2 grams daily). With these clinical data the most likely diagnosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Acute tubular necrosis due to drug nephrotoxicity.", "B": "Acute tubular necrosis of ischemic etiology.", "C": "Ateroembolic disease.", "D": "Thrombotic occlusion of the main renal artery.", "E": "Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis." }, "Correct Answer": "Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "51809dba-f840-4eb9-abef-df32baf0cb6a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following types of glomerulonephritis is there a greater indication of IECAS or ARA-II as antiproteinuric therapy?", "Options": { "A": "Segmental and focal glomerulosclerosis secondary to hyperfiltration.", "B": "Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis.", "C": "Extracapillary glomerulonephritis.", "D": "Glomerulonephritis due to minimal changes.", "E": "Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis." }, "Correct Answer": "Segmental and focal glomerulosclerosis secondary to hyperfiltration.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "cf1b23bb-c72e-44ae-a32c-15f72a06fd5a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following clinical situations carries a greater risk of progression of chronic kidney disease and would require more strict control by the nephrologist?", "Options": { "A": "Diabetic patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 46 mL / min and a urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 25 mg / g.", "B": "Diabetic patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 89 mL / min and urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 475 mg / g.", "C": "Hypertensive patient with glomerular filtration rate of 65 mL / min and urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 150 mg / g.", "D": "A 70-year-old hypertensive patient with 1 simple cyst in each kidney, a glomerular filtration rate of 35 mL / min and an albumin / creatinine ratio in urine of 10 mg / g.", "E": "An 87-year-old hypertensive patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 30 mL / min and a urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 5 mg / g." }, "Correct Answer": "Diabetic patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 89 mL / min and urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 475 mg / g.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ffc7107f-a5c5-444b-bb06-853bb47d873c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Chronic interstitial nephropathies affect the tubular structures and the renal interstitium. If we analyze the functional defects that these pathologies can produce, we will NOT wait to find:", "Options": { "A": "Isostenuria.", "B": "Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.", "C": "Tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis in the renal histological study.", "D": "Normal or little expressive urinary sediment.", "E": "Proteinuria of less than 2 grams per day." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a7b46b16-2322-4396-ad76-5991ff522567", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "18-year-old girl who came to the Hospital for edema in lower limbs of 1 week of evolution, highlighting in the laboratory a proteinuria in the nephrotic range with hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia. In the anamnesis he refers to recurrent oral aphthae, arthritis of small joints of the hands, malar rash and photosensitivity. In the etiological study, the presence of ANA and antiDNA with hypocomplementemia stands out. The determination of ANCA is negative. A renal biopsy is performed in which we could find any of these types of glomerulonephritis, EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Mesangial GNF.", "B": "Necrotizing GNF paucinmune.", "C": "Focal proliferative GNF.", "D": "Diffuse proliferative GNF.", "E": "Membranous GNF." }, "Correct Answer": "Necrotizing GNF paucinmune.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "609eb5c3-b8a7-42d0-a63b-42bdeda796fc", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following combinations of drugs is commonly used in the maintenance treatment of patients with a kidney transplant?", "Options": { "A": "Tacrolimus, cyclosporine and mycophenolate mofetil.", "B": "Tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids.", "C": "Tacrolimus, sirolimus and mycophenolate mofetil.", "D": "Tacrolimus, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil.", "E": "Cyclosporine, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil." }, "Correct Answer": "Tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9f7709f8-e827-48a5-a365-397891d390a9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 78-year-old man who underwent cardiac catheterization with revascularization of the right coronary artery 3 weeks ago and consulted for nausea and vomiting of 3 days of evolution. It presents arterial pressure of 185/85 mm Hg and purple lesions on the toes of both feet. In the analytical, urea 230 mg / dL and creatinine 5.8 mg / dL were observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Malignant arterial hypertension.", "B": "Acute tubular necrosis by contrast.", "C": "Rapidly progressive renal failure.", "D": "Renal atheroembolic disease.", "E": "Bilateral renal artery stenosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Renal atheroembolic disease.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c92225b8-ccde-44a5-b906-7e6dad44229c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 65-year-old man with no medical history of interest who consulted for fine micturition, incomplete emptying, diurnal urinary frequency every 3 hours and nocturia 1-2 times. Rectal examination reveals a medium-large prostate without nodules. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 0.5 ng / mL. It provides reno-vesico-prostatic ultrasound that indicates a prostatic volume of 35 g, with absence of postvoid residual and without other evaluable alterations. What will be our attitude towards this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Offer radical prostatectomy as a treatment for your prostate cancer.", "B": "Request scintigraphic study to rule out the presence of bone and visceral metastases secondary to prostate cancer.", "C": "Start treatment with androgen blockade with LHRH analogs given the demonstrated efficacy of this drug in the treatment of patients with BPH.", "D": "Indicate surgical desobstructive treatment (transurethral resection of the prostate) as the treatment of choice for prostate hyperplasia.", "E": "Consider treatment with alpha-blockers as an initial treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)." }, "Correct Answer": "Consider treatment with alpha-blockers as an initial treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4481fbe8-3c8d-4e7b-9679-efee390170a5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 31-year-old woman with a history of nephritic colic 4 years ago consulted in the emergency department for left lumbar pain of colic characteristics for 3 days with the appearance of fever during the last 12 hours. The presence of 15,000 leukocytes / uL, 85% neutrophils, creatinine 0.8 mg / dL and PCR 20 mg / dL stand out in the blood analysis. The urine sediment reports countless leukocytes / field. Which of the following statements is true?", "Options": { "A": "Since it is an uncomplicated urinary tract infection, we must treat it with oral antibiotherapy and evolutionary control.", "B": "It is advisable to perform an urgent imaging study to rule out obstruction of the upper urinary tract that requires drainage.", "C": "This patient has a complicated urinary tract infection and it is most likely that the causative agent is S. aureus.", "D": "It is best to start treatment with fluconazole and control it in the outpatient clinic in 1 week.", "E": "The patient has acute pyelonephritis and the optimal treatment is the combination of bladder catheterization with intravenous antibiotic therapy." }, "Correct Answer": "It is advisable to perform an urgent imaging study to rule out obstruction of the upper urinary tract that requires drainage.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ca0ba03a-8816-4050-a4f6-8273be60c1ad", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs would indicate as first-line treatment in a 53-year-old patient diagnosed with metastatic clear cell renal cancer?", "Options": { "A": "Sunitinib.", "B": "Cetuximab.", "C": "Fluoropyrimidine", "D": "Panitumumab.", "E": "Bleomycin." }, "Correct Answer": "Sunitinib.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "20bc9bff-c2e1-4388-be9c-c206cc073908", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "78-year-old man with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A history of 2 admissions for heart failure and atrial fibrillation in the last 6 months. In current treatment with infliximab, prednisone, furosemide, enalapril, carvedilol and acenocoumarol. Enter again for biventricular heart failure clinic. The ECG showed atrial fibrillation at 102 bpm and advanced left bundle branch block. An echocardiogram shows biatrial dilation, thickening of the left ventricular wall with ejection fraction of 45% and restrictive pattern. The analytical highlights: Hb 10 gr / dL, creatinine 2.1 mg / dL (FG 20 mL / min), CRP 124 mg / L, rheumatoid factor 240 U / L, BNP 980 ng / L, proteinuria 4.8 g / 24h. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Cardio-renal syndrome type 2.", "B": "Amyloidosis AA.", "C": "Myocarditis of giant cells.", "D": "Toxicity due to infliximab.", "E": "Membranous glomerulonephritis associated with RA." }, "Correct Answer": "Amyloidosis AA.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1191d59e-ae06-4417-a03a-d3de8a0cd5cf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 40-year-old man goes to the emergency department for inflammation of the right knee of about 24 hours of evolution. The patient does not report previous trauma and is the first episode of arthritis that presents. A the anamnesis directed that 4 weeks ago he returned from a trip to Morocco and that being there he presented chills and diarrhea that subsided after a week. The examination also revealed inflammation of the right Achilles tendon. What is the attitude to follow?", "Options": { "A": "It is a spondyloarthropathy, start treatment with methotrexate.", "B": "Immobilize the knee with a bandage for 15 days and give non-steroidal anti-inflammatories.", "C": "Practice an arthrocentesis to perform culture, analysis of microcrystals and cellular counting of the synovial fluid.", "D": "Perform an arthroscopy.", "E": "It is a gouty arthritis, I would start treatment with allopurinol." }, "Correct Answer": "Practice an arthrocentesis to perform culture, analysis of microcrystals and cellular counting of the synovial fluid.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f5e4bc31-1cfa-4aee-b427-689ed479350f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 36-year-old woman diagnosed with systemic scleroderma diffuse form 2 years ago, is treated with 30 mg of prednisone in her health center for an eye problem. The patient consulted for headache and the clinical examination revealed high blood pressure and a deterioration in kidney function that was not known. The patient is referred to the emergency department with the suspicion of a sclerodermal renal crisis. Indicate which of the following statements is correct:", "Options": { "A": "The sclerodermal renal crisis is more frequent in the limited form of scleroderma.", "B": "The use of steroids at moderate doses can precipitate its appearance.", "C": "The diagnosis requires a renal biopsy.", "D": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are routinely used to prevent its occurrence.", "E": "The treatment of choice would be a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist." }, "Correct Answer": "The use of steroids at moderate doses can precipitate its appearance.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1da4d40-4979-418c-84f9-b4ef3179b153", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is NOT considered a classification criterion for systemic lupus erythematosus?", "Options": { "A": "Cutaneous vasculitis", "B": "Photosensitivity", "C": "Hemolytic anemia.", "D": "Pericarditis", "E": "High concentration of antinuclear antibodies." }, "Correct Answer": "Cutaneous vasculitis", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "635184a1-5c5d-4057-8201-4ec27b3df782", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to osteoarthritis, what statement is correct?", "Options": { "A": "There is a close correlation between the radiological findings and the symptomatology of the patients.", "B": "The symptomatic involvement of the hip is much more frequent than the involvement of the knee.", "C": "Obesity has not been shown to be a risk factor for its development.", "D": "The presence of a high sedimentation rate strongly supports the diagnosis.", "E": "Morning stiffness usually lasts less than 30 minutes." }, "Correct Answer": "Morning stiffness usually lasts less than 30 minutes.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "aa6879ff-8282-4990-ba5b-74a260f70901", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 35-year-old woman consulted for the appearance of maculo-papular lesions in the upper limbs without other symptoms. The biopsy of one of them demonstrates the presence of noncaseating granulomas. Blood tests are normal except for an elevation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels. On chest radiography, bilateral hilar adenopathies are detected. Which of the following considers the most appropriate attitude?", "Options": { "A": "Start treatment with corticosteroids orally.", "B": "Start treatment with oral hydroxychloroquine.", "C": "Start treatment with azathioprine orally.", "D": "Start treatment with leflunomide orally.", "E": "Continue study without starting treatment." }, "Correct Answer": "Continue study without starting treatment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c1063d5e-6031-4e80-8d01-99c584b01ad9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following traumatic injuries requires, in order to avoid local complications, an earlier treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Posterior traumatic luxation of the hip.", "B": "Displaced fracture of the femoral neck of the elderly.", "C": "Trochanteric fracture of the elderly.", "D": "Cup fracture.", "E": "Subtrochanteric fracture." }, "Correct Answer": "Posterior traumatic luxation of the hip.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "df80a816-14c7-4eb5-bd28-edddf464fbbb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most frequent complication of astragalus neck fractures is:", "Options": { "A": "Reflex algodystrophy.", "B": "Vicious consolidation", "C": "Pseudoarthrosis", "D": "Osteonecrosis.", "E": "Neurological injury of the posterior tibial." }, "Correct Answer": "Osteonecrosis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8fdd8031-3eb4-462b-92a7-f5ddae73abbb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a 14-year-old patient with Down syndrome who presents with nucalgia (normal neurological examination) and is going to be subjected to general anesthesia (orotracheal intubation) for elective abdominal surgery, the following should be ruled out:", "Options": { "A": "Atloaxoid instability.", "B": "Tracheoesophageal fistulas.", "C": "Brain tumor.", "D": "Vocal cord hyperplasia.", "E": "Hydrocephalus" }, "Correct Answer": "Atloaxoid instability.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a35098b8-8869-437b-a313-eff83d30242c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 23-year-old boy, who makes a jump while playing basketball, falls on his right lower limb with his knee in hyperextension, applying a sharp turn to his knee while keeping his foot fixed on the ground. The patient, perceives a snap and sharp pain in his knee, unable to continue playing. Note feeling of instability when performing the support of said extremity. On clinical examination, intense articular effusion is seen, so arthrocentesis is performed, which shows an important acute hemarthrosis without the presence of droplets of fat supernatanting in the extracted fluid. The mobility of the knee is free and the Lachman maneuver is positive. What is the diagnostic suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Break in cube handle of the inner meniscus.", "B": "Isolated rupture of the lateral collateral ligament.", "C": "Fracture by tearing of the anterior tibial spine.", "D": "Unicondylar fracture of the medial condyle.", "E": "Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament" }, "Correct Answer": "Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "46be7e30-5841-4306-bf91-e1f5e2a631a0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 20-year-old boy goes to the emergency room for fever of 39ºC, chills, papules and hemorrhagic pustules on the distal extensor surfaces of the extremities and arthritis of the knee. What is your diagnosis of initial suspicion?", "Options": { "A": "Rheumatoid arthritis.", "B": "Reiter syndrome.", "C": "Urica Drop", "D": "Gonococcal arthritis.", "E": "Vasculitis of Cogan." }, "Correct Answer": "Gonococcal arthritis.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "017ce9f6-f974-4330-b4ad-046633a7067a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following species of Candida spp, is usually resistant or at least have a decreased sensitivity to fluconazole?", "Options": { "A": "C. albicans.", "B": "C. tropicalis.", "C": "C. parapsilosis.", "D": "C. Krusei.", "E": "C. giliermondii." }, "Correct Answer": "C. Krusei.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ceaa9953-5c94-4faa-81de-9f17f5e65a95", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient from Bolivia diagnosed with Chagas disease underwent a blood count that showed 1,100 eosinophils / μL (12% of leukocytes). Which of the following diagnoses is LESS likely?", "Options": { "A": "Infestation by Schistosoma haematobium.", "B": "Infestation by Ancylostoma duodenale.", "C": "Infestation by Strongyloides stercoralis.", "D": "Infestation by Ascaris lumbricoides.", "E": "Infestation by Necator americanus." }, "Correct Answer": "Infestation by Schistosoma haematobium.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a7fddac9-c197-4c4f-ac57-8ca4f8e122e9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 60-year-old patient who came to the hospital's emergency department due to a left chest pain, cough and yellowish sputum, a temperature of 38.7ºC, a sensation of shortness of breath. Artificial saturation of 02 80%. Hemogram leukocytes 12000 / uL with 86% polymorphonuclear cells. Chest x-ray: alveolar infiltrate on the left base with air bronchogram. On suspicion of pneumonia, pneumococcal Ag is made in urine, which is positive and sputum culture is sent to the Microbiology service. Which empirical antibiotic treatment of the indicated ones is more correct in expectation of microbiological results?", "Options": { "A": "Ceftazidime", "B": "Clarithromycin", "C": "Azithromycin", "D": "Ceftriaxone", "E": "Doxycycline" }, "Correct Answer": "Ceftriaxone", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4a018f35-b1e0-41d2-b799-f631e53d0056", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 73-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room accompanied by the family due to a picture of chills and a productive cough of purulent mucus that lasted about 2 days; they also report a tendency to drowsiness with a decrease in oral intake to both liquids and solids. As background we report that the patient is diagnosed with hypertension, DM type 2 and incipient dementia. The physical examination highlights a thin patient, with discrete mucous dryness, sleepy but reactive to verbal commands. Meningism or motor or sensory focality is not objective. Temperature 35.9ºC. Heart rate 118 bpm, BP 84/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 rpm. O2 Saturation 93%. Cardiac tachyarrhythmic auscultation without murmurs. Respiratory auscultation with crackles in the right base. Point out the TRUE answer:", "Options": { "A": "Among the measures to be taken when sepsis is suspected, antibiotic therapy is administered in the 1st hour of arrival, although this attitude has not been correlated with a decrease in mortality.", "B": "The early administration of IV fluids is essential to maintain adequate tissue perfusion, the goal being to maintain an average blood pressure> 65 mmHg.", "C": "Among the complementary tests that are received we observed a lactate> 5.6 mmol / L; it must be taken into account but as long as hemodynamic stability is maintained we should not worry.", "D": "In fact, the diagnosis of sepsis is not correct since the absence of fever rules out it.", "E": "The patient presents hypotension despite intensive administration of intravenous fluid therapy; It is time to administer vasoactive drugs, with isoproterenol being the choice." }, "Correct Answer": "The early administration of IV fluids is essential to maintain adequate tissue perfusion, the goal being to maintain an average blood pressure> 65 mmHg.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "46f1fcac-14c3-436f-a2ab-c6253ee7d63f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main indication for using 4 drugs in the initial treatment of tuberculosis is:", "Options": { "A": "Affectation of the central nervous system.", "B": "High prevalence of primary resistance to isoniazid.", "C": "Cavitated and extensive pulmonary tuberculosis with large bacillary load.", "D": "Disseminated tuberculosis associated with HIV infection.", "E": "Extrapulmonary tuberculosis in immunodepressed patients of any origin." }, "Correct Answer": "High prevalence of primary resistance to isoniazid.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "95591ad2-544f-4b38-a319-ab66fa04a879", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following analytical determinations is less useful for decision making in the follow-up and control of an HIV-infected person?", "Options": { "A": "CD4 lymphocyte count in peripheral blood.", "B": "Quantification of immunoglobulin.", "C": "Measurement of viral load.", "D": "Studies of HIV resistance to antiretroviral drugs.", "E": "Analysis of the co-receptor tropism." }, "Correct Answer": "Quantification of immunoglobulin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "76960e13-5db5-4637-8187-db29941b7478", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The analysis of the data obtained from cases of Ebola virus disease in Guinea and Sierra Leone, allows us to affirm that:", "Options": { "A": "The mortality of the infection exceeds 85%.", "B": "The treatment is based on support measures (hydroelectrolitic replenishment i.v. and antibiotics).", "C": "More than half of the cases correspond to health personnel.", "D": "Gastrointestinal hemorrhage is a common cause of mortality.", "E": "Mortality is higher in adolescents." }, "Correct Answer": "The treatment is based on support measures (hydroelectrolitic replenishment i.v. and antibiotics).", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8163bb8c-d8e1-41c9-b8d4-78f9c63b646e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 40-year-old patient, classified as ASA I according to the scale of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, is undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. The intervention takes place initially without complications, but fifty minutes into the procedure there is a significant increase in the levels of teleespiratory carbon dioxide (CO2), without altering the oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry or raising the ventilation pressures . What would be your diagnosis of presumption and your attitude to this finding?", "Options": { "A": "With these findings we must suspect the existence of subcutaneous emphysema, so we must explore the patient and request that the insufflation pressure of the pneumoperitoneum be reduced or even interrupted.", "B": "The most likely diagnosis is a pneumothorax secondary to carbon dioxide or capnothorax, so an urgent chest radiograph must be ordered and the insertion of a thoracic drain must be prepared.", "C": "The elevation of carbon dioxide levels is normal in the context of a laparoscopic intervention. The only attitude to take is to increase the minute volume in the anesthetic machine.", "D": "The placement of the orotracheal tube should be checked for the possibility that it has progressed and that we are facing an endobronchial intubation, which is relatively frequent in this surgery due to the elevation of the diaphragm secondary to the pneumoperitoneum.", "E": "Elevation of the teleespiratory carbon dioxide, without affecting ventilation pressures, is typical of massive pulmonary embolism. The intervention must be interrupted, ventilated with pure oxygen and prepare vasoactive drugs for the possible hemodynamic instability." }, "Correct Answer": "With these findings we must suspect the existence of subcutaneous emphysema, so we must explore the patient and request that the insufflation pressure of the pneumoperitoneum be reduced or even interrupted.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2674b7d4-8674-44a3-8d7d-7982e97f6ab8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient comes to the clinic for general malaise and yellowing of the skin and his doctor suspects that it is a hepatitis A picture. Which of the following answers constitutes the most accurate and safest factor to determine the pre-test probability ( before carrying out any study) of what is said table?", "Options": { "A": "Intensity of jaundice.", "B": "Frequency of hepatitis A in the environment.", "C": "Days of duration of the painting.", "D": "Professional experience on jaundice pictures.", "E": "Previous illnesses of the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "Frequency of hepatitis A in the environment.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "d6b8ca03-3ee7-4b29-a2e8-11ad4a6d7f2c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "JMC, a 14-year-old patient admitted to the Emergency Department. The attending physician considers a blood transfusion necessary. The parents of the patient express their refusal to be given blood, signing the corresponding document of refusal to transfusion. The doctor warns that if the transfusion is not carried out, his life is in danger. They insist on their refusal, the alleged reason for the rejection is basically religious. Which of the following options would be the most correct?", "Options": { "A": "Transfuse the patient.", "B": "Transfuse the patient, but only when he has lost consciousness.", "C": "Transfer the case to the healthcare ethics committee so that it adopts the decision.", "D": "Respect expressed preference and attend without transfusion", "E": "I would inform the judge and not administer any treatment until the latter indicated it." }, "Correct Answer": "I would inform the judge and not administer any treatment until the latter indicated it.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f2180033-0532-4f2f-a0d2-bde212c8ecd0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the clinical interview:", "Options": { "A": "The doctor has to show friend before professional.", "B": "The doctor should avoid warning the patient of the time available to assist him.", "C": "The professional must verify that the patient has understood the information.", "D": "It is advisable to take long breaks to avoid fatiguing the patient.", "E": "The doctor, during the interview, must remain standing or placed behind the head of the bed." }, "Correct Answer": "The professional must verify that the patient has understood the information.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "085b1d14-07ae-4a40-8395-fceee8a16bc8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old girl suffers a bicycle fall with trauma to the abdominal area with the handlebar. A few hours after the trauma begins with intense pain in the left hypochondrium, so he goes to consult an emergency service. Upon arrival the patient is pale and sweaty, the blood pressure figures are 82/54 mmHg and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute. What kind of shock is the most likely to suffer from this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Hypovolemic", "B": "Septic.", "C": "Cardiogenic", "D": "Anaphylactic.", "E": "Neurogenic" }, "Correct Answer": "Hypovolemic", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "df05cf51-1a60-432f-9076-15ff07513545", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Young person who goes to the emergency room for second degree flame burn of 10% of the body surface, affecting the right arm in an extensive and circular way. There is no arterial pulse in the hand measured by Doppler. What is the treatment of choice?", "Options": { "A": "Cures with occlusive silver sulfadiacin and evaluation of depth per week.", "B": "Lymphatic drainage and assess a vascular by-pass.", "C": "Escarotomy or emergency decompression incisions.", "D": "Expectant behavior", "E": "Amputation of the extremity." }, "Correct Answer": "Escarotomy or emergency decompression incisions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5a511512-7a0c-4c73-99b4-5cbeec913aea", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Enter in our plant from the Emergency Room to study an 80-year-old patient reporting weight loss and nonspecific central-abdominal discomfort, together with loss of appetite. The diagnostic process that we must develop during your admission will be guided by the following principles EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "All those tests that can bring light to the process suspected by the doctor covering the widest differential diagnosis from the beginning will be carried out.", "B": "The healthcare process will be adapted to the individual clinical context of the patient and it will be sought that the latter be a participant in the decisions regarding diagnosis and treatment.", "C": "It is important to think first of all in the most ordinary way, only later, once the most frequent entities are discarded with certainty, to consider the odd.", "D": "Some complementary tests may be redundant and may not add value to the diagnostic process, but at the cost of health. Thus, before two complementary tests of similar performance, it will always be decided by the most economical and least risky.", "E": "It is essential that the doctor does not add new discomforts with the practice of complementary explorations that are not strictly necessary." }, "Correct Answer": "All those tests that can bring light to the process suspected by the doctor covering the widest differential diagnosis from the beginning will be carried out.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a0a22c71-04fa-41d4-a0c3-be17b46015fa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A patient consulted for recent and progressive development of acropachies and general deterioration. The search for possible underlying neoplasia begins. Which of the following tumors is more likely to be diagnosed?", "Options": { "A": "Gastric adenocarcinoma.", "B": "Esophageal epidermoid.", "C": "Mediastinal thymoma.", "D": "Follicular thyroid.", "E": "Pleural mesothelioma." }, "Correct Answer": "Pleural mesothelioma.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4901bb13-bc59-4f5c-a62d-1665334cf9b8", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We attended an 87-year-old hypertensive, diabetic woman with heart failure class D and a baseline functional grade 3-4 of the NYHA in the Emergency Department. In the last six months he entered from the Emergency Department in our service 6 times. The last time was an admission of torpid evolution in which her possible intensive ICU care was assessed, but it was discarded given her baseline situation and the patient's desire to avoid supportive measures of doubtful and invasive effectiveness. He came back 48 hours after the discharge of his last admission for clinical increase of dyspnea to grade 4 in the context of cough and purulent expectoration. It is poorly perfused and its saturation with oxygen therapy using an O2 reservoir mask is 85%. In relation to the diagnostic and therapeutic attitude to adopt, it is necessary to bear in mind that:", "Options": { "A": "The precise and immediate diagnosis by CT of the thorax and the obtaining of microbiological samples, even of an invasive nature, is crucial to adjust the treatment.", "B": "Given the advanced age and clinical situation, therapeutic abstention is recommended, \"primun non nocere\", given the evolution of the picture.", "C": "It is essential to explicitly define the therapeutic objectives, simplifying them and avoiding unnecessary treatments, as well as respecting the values ​​and preferences of the patient and his family.", "D": "It is a high-risk community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) that requires intensive treatment with ventilatory support, including mechanical, and high-spectrum antibiotic therapy for the risk of bacterial multiresistance.", "E": "It is an end-of-life process in an agonizing situation to whom priority should be given to sedation to alleviate their suffering." }, "Correct Answer": "It is essential to explicitly define the therapeutic objectives, simplifying them and avoiding unnecessary treatments, as well as respecting the values ​​and preferences of the patient and his family.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d49b7ece-f92e-498e-a9c6-0bc9ba9aae02", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The most frequent malignant tumor of the submaxillary gland is:", "Options": { "A": "Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.", "B": "Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma.", "C": "Lymphoma", "D": "Cylindroma or cystic adenoid carcinoma.", "E": "Papillomatous cystadedenolymphoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Cylindroma or cystic adenoid carcinoma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "df7c674f-3a6c-497a-8112-da85184ed7cf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Faced with a patient with diffuse otitis externa, what is the initial treatment?", "Options": { "A": "Surgery.", "B": "Antibiotics plus analgesics, both intravenously.", "C": "Antibiotics and analgesics, both orally.", "D": "Cleaning of the external auditory canal, topical antibiotic therapy plus oral analgesics.", "E": "Topical antibiotics" }, "Correct Answer": "Cleaning of the external auditory canal, topical antibiotic therapy plus oral analgesics.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e5660a91-137e-4542-97d9-1a3a9b914b61", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within head and neck carcinomas, what type of tumor is most obviously related to the human papillomavirus?", "Options": { "A": "Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx.", "B": "Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx.", "C": "Squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx.", "D": "Adenocarcinoma sinonasal.", "E": "Undifferentiated carcinoma of cavum." }, "Correct Answer": "Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bb93fba1-aed2-48d4-8a6d-20f06503a966", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 1-year-old boy, who did not pass the tests of auditory screening at birth and who has auditory brainstem evoked potentials that determine bilateral mild-moderate hearing loss in the right ear and moderate-severe hearing loss in the left ear. What is the most correct attitude to follow at the present time?", "Options": { "A": "Perform an audiometry within 6 months to confirm the diagnosis.", "B": "Surgery to adapt a cochlear implant in the right ear.", "C": "Wait until 3 years to check if you develop the language.", "D": "Adaptation of bilateral hearing prosthesis and logopedic rehabilitation.", "E": "Surgery to adapt a cochlear implant in the left ear." }, "Correct Answer": "Adaptation of bilateral hearing prosthesis and logopedic rehabilitation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "ec11327a-3074-4c3c-bde2-8bd3173c388d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A baby with 39º C of axillary temperature, edema of the left eyelid and rhinorrhea on the same side goes to the emergency room. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Pansinusitis", "B": "Left maxillary sinusitis.", "C": "Left ethmoid sinusitis.", "D": "Sphenoid sinusitis left.", "E": "Left frontal sinusitis." }, "Correct Answer": "Left ethmoid sinusitis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b87a6947-db0e-42ed-8dfa-140c8e957db0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following skin diseases is associated with celiac disease?", "Options": { "A": "Atopic dermatitis.", "B": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "C": "Molluscum contagiosum.", "D": "Annular granuloma.", "E": "Rosacea" }, "Correct Answer": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "dcfab991-bfa0-44a9-b33c-235152defd53", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following clinical contexts should make us suspect a paraneoplastic process and, therefore, obliges us to perform a screening for malignancy?", "Options": { "A": "13-year-old boy with palpable purpura on lower limbs and buttocks, arthralgias and abdominal pain.", "B": "36-year-old man with maculo-papules with a central bulla \"on target\" on his back, hands, palms and forearms with erosions and ulcerations on the oral mucosa.", "C": "A 44-year-old woman with erythema in both malar and nasal dorsal regions, photosensitivity and palmar erythema in fingertips.", "D": "A 27-year-old man with depigmented macules well delimited symmetrically in the peribucal, periorbital region and in the distal part of the fingers and toes together with alopecia in plaque in the occipital region with short and broken hair stems without scaling or erythema.", "E": "A 68-year-old woman with progressive muscle weakness in limb root, erythema and violaceous periorbital rash and keratotic papules on the dorsal aspect of the interphalangeal joints." }, "Correct Answer": "A 68-year-old woman with progressive muscle weakness in limb root, erythema and violaceous periorbital rash and keratotic papules on the dorsal aspect of the interphalangeal joints.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b879bddd-ff76-4b36-a971-81e2a04f191b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The following entities may be accompanied by ocular inflammation (uveitis) except one. Indicate which:", "Options": { "A": "Sarcoidosis", "B": "Juvenile idiopathic arthritis.", "C": "Behçet's disease.", "D": "Marfan's disease", "E": "Multiple sclerosis." }, "Correct Answer": "Marfan's disease", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b6c39646-55fb-4094-9c7c-b839bff2f8fc", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 30-year-old woman who came to the emergency room due to loss of vision, pain, red eye and photophobia of OI of 5 days of evolution. In the differential diagnosis you must include all these pathologies EXCEPT one:", "Options": { "A": "Anterior uveitis.", "B": "Corneal ulcer.", "C": "Traumatic iritis", "D": "Sclerouveitis.", "E": "Serous central chorioretinopathy." }, "Correct Answer": "Serous central chorioretinopathy.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5278be2a-1add-40ba-9de2-f43f9cb05736", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 75-year-old man who reported decreased visual acuity in his right eye of two weeks of evolution. In the fundus examination, soft drusen and serous detachment at the level of the macula are seen. What treatment is currently the most indicated for this disease?", "Options": { "A": "Focal photocoagulation with laser.", "B": "Photodynamic therapy.", "C": "Intravitreal injections of anti-angiogenic drugs.", "D": "Posterior vitrectomy.", "E": "Observation." }, "Correct Answer": "Intravitreal injections of anti-angiogenic drugs.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3c33d6b7-ca14-4482-a4cd-c72baf27f4f3", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What analysis should be controlled in maintenance treatments with lithium salts?", "Options": { "A": "Hepatic enzymes.", "B": "Antinuclear antibodies.", "C": "Ferritin and sideremia.", "D": "Thyroid and renal function.", "E": "Tirocalcitonina." }, "Correct Answer": "Thyroid and renal function.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "218df80e-28c2-4c5c-81f9-0ce6d3f6e5c2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following characteristics is NOT typical of the contents of obsessive ideas?", "Options": { "A": "Sexual thoughts", "B": "Phonemes", "C": "Need for symmetry.", "D": "Pathological doubt.", "E": "Pollution." }, "Correct Answer": "Phonemes", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a4a2aaac-ab0a-4c83-a4ed-146a205d8649", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Man of 42 years, married, with three children under age. No psychiatric history. After an ERE in the bank where he worked, he is finally fired and has been unemployed for 5 months. He does not find another work activity. He comes to consultation with the following clinical picture: general discouragement, lack of appetite, nervousness, insomnia, recurrent worries about his future and avoidance of socio-family activities. Which diagnostic option of the following is the most appropriate?", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive disorder", "B": "Adaptive disorder with anxious-depressive symptoms.", "C": "Social phobia.", "D": "Dysthymia", "E": "Anxiety with agoraphobia." }, "Correct Answer": "Adaptive disorder with anxious-depressive symptoms.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "49351039-a430-47d7-bb4c-d594f97d8eff", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Stereotyping is called:", "Options": { "A": "Strange buccolingual gestures.", "B": "Repeated and unnecessary repetition of an act.", "C": "Very bulky movements that increase the expressiveness of the gestures.", "D": "Very intense psychotic agitations.", "E": "Apparent gestures accompanied by profanity." }, "Correct Answer": "Repeated and unnecessary repetition of an act.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f198006d-2d64-4e86-b14a-c2c5e97ee532", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 28-year-old man brought to the emergency room, on a Saturday morning, in a state of psychomotor agitation and delirious ideas. His companion reports previous abuse, by the patient, of cocaine. What sign / symptom would you NOT expect to find?", "Options": { "A": "Hypothermia.", "B": "Tachycardia.", "C": "Mydriasis.", "D": "Diaphoresis", "E": "Thoracic pain." }, "Correct Answer": "Hypothermia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "656578a4-bf95-463e-a9a7-a32355641421", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 67-year-old man comes to the surgery accompanied by two of his children who say that his father has been showing increasing memory losses in the last two months. Prior to this he went through a season in which he had low mood. Over the last few months, he has also begun to give a \"no se\" or \"I do not care\" answer to most of the questions that are asked while increasing their complaints of complaint and discomfort due to their forgetfulness , especially in the mornings. In spite of all this, it seems to work with relative comfort on a day-to-day basis. One of the following would be the most indicated drug for the treatment of this patient, point it out.", "Options": { "A": "Quetiapine", "B": "Lamotrigine", "C": "Tacrina.", "D": "Donepezil", "E": "Sertraline" }, "Correct Answer": "Sertraline", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1a835522-77ab-41db-8e09-61ec82455604", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the course of a patient's interview, you realize that you are not understanding what the patient is saying. He decides to focus his attention on the discourse and realizes that he does not have a guiding idea even though specific fragments of it are understandable. This alteration of the thinking language, typical of schizophrenia on the other hand, is what in psychopathology is known as:", "Options": { "A": "Dissociation of thought.", "B": "Fugue of ideas.", "C": "Persistent language.", "D": "Disorganization of thought.", "E": "Blocking of thought." }, "Correct Answer": "Disorganization of thought.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "00ceb572-433c-4c95-9694-d9c600640dfa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 28-year-old violinist who is consulting for having presented panic attacks during his public performances in the last 3 months. The crises are accompanied by intense fear of being blocked and not being able to continue with the performance, something that would be humiliating for him. This fear has made him cancel his next performances. In the rest of his daily activities he does not experience this fear, nor does he experience it when he rehearses with his orchestra colleagues. What diagnosis would you consider most likely for this case?", "Options": { "A": "Simple phobia", "B": "Panic disorder", "C": "Social phobia of execution.", "D": "Generalized anxiety disorder.", "E": "Agoraphobia." }, "Correct Answer": "Social phobia of execution.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bec5d115-7fb3-4238-8100-3b773500b6eb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 28-year-old Caucasian woman, Nulípara, attends an annual gynecological examination and requests the possibility of reducing the risk of ovarian cancer given that her mother died of this neoplasm at 64 years of age. In the detailed questioning, no other family history of ovarian or breast cancer is identified. Which of the following strategies is the most appropriate to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer in this patient?", "Options": { "A": "Bilateral tubal occlusion.", "B": "Bilateral laparoscopic salpingo-oophorectomy.", "C": "Continuous daily administration of aspirin at low dose.", "D": "Advise her to use artificial lactation if she is pregnant.", "E": "Treatment with combined oral contraceptives." }, "Correct Answer": "Treatment with combined oral contraceptives.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8187c412-7ceb-4ee1-9de8-715ce6653d0b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Human papilloma virus has been linked to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and cervical cancer. Which genotype is the most oncogenic?", "Options": { "A": "Genotype 16.", "B": "Genotype 11", "C": "Genotype 6.", "D": "Genotype 23.", "E": "Genotype 55." }, "Correct Answer": "Genotype 16.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bbb3985b-64a9-4fec-b612-225312afd6c0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following data does NOT correspond to a fungal vulvovaginitis ?:", "Options": { "A": "Pregnancy increases the risk of this infection.", "B": "It can occur in women who never had sex.", "C": "Vaginal discharge with white patches or lumps adhered to the walls of the vagina is typical.", "D": "It can be diagnosed in a fresh smear of vaginal discharge without the need for staining.", "E": "Adding a drop of potash to the vaginal discharge gives off a strong fishy odor." }, "Correct Answer": "Adding a drop of potash to the vaginal discharge gives off a strong fishy odor.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2d0ef3cb-def6-4994-9552-ac75f72846ea", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Primigesta of 41 years, in the 38th week, with gestational diabetes treated with a diet of 2200 Kilocalories and essential hypertension. He went to the emergency room for sudden-onset hypogastric pain, with involvement of his general condition, accompanied by a scarce metrorrhage of dark blood. In Non-Stress Monitoring (MNS) we detect a non-reactive fetal heart rate pattern. The main diagnostic suspicion will be:", "Options": { "A": "Decompensation of your gestational diabetes.", "B": "Premature detachment of the placenta.", "C": "Severe pre-eclampsia", "D": "Break of \"vasa previa\".", "E": "Previous placenta." }, "Correct Answer": "Premature detachment of the placenta.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9456b08b-0b7e-40de-a818-d19271cca19d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A pregnant woman of 31 weeks goes to the emergency department referring loss of fluid through the vagina. Objective speculum exploration of clear fluid through the external cervical os. It is apyletic. The cardiotocographic record does not reveal contractions and the fetal heart rate is normal. The ultrasound scan reveals no malformations and the cervix is ​​not shortened. What therapeutic combination would it indicate?", "Options": { "A": "Tocolytics, corticosteroids and antibiotics.", "B": "Tocolytics and antibiotics.", "C": "Tocolytics and corticosteroids.", "D": "Oxytocin, corticosteroids and antibiotics.", "E": "Corticosteroids and antibiotics" }, "Correct Answer": "Corticosteroids and antibiotics", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4195a085-b03a-46ad-81f1-edab69615907", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency room due to abdominal pain and scarce vaginal blood loss. It refers to an amenorrhea of ​​7 weeks. You perform a pregnancy test, with a positive result. What is the next step?", "Options": { "A": "Perform a vaginal ultrasound examination.", "B": "Recommend home rest and repeat the pregnancy test in a week.", "C": "Evacuate the uterus by curettage by aspiration.", "D": "Standard progesterone micronized vaginally until week 14 of gestation.", "E": "Evacuate the uterus by intravaginal administration of prostaglandins." }, "Correct Answer": "Perform a vaginal ultrasound examination.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d6bdbf2e-c3fc-408c-aa35-115872aff74f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the behavior of obstetric patients exposed to Varicella, it is FALSE:", "Options": { "A": "Infected women should be separated from other obstetric patients.", "B": "All obstetric patients exposed, without certainty of prior immunity, must make a serological determination of their immunization status.", "C": "Specific immunoglobulin should be administered to exposed non-immune obstetric patients.", "D": "The maximum period for administering the specific immunoglobulin after contact is 96 hours.", "E": "Pregnant women without immunity to Varicella-Zoster virus can be vaccinated during pregnancy to prevent primary infection." }, "Correct Answer": "Pregnant women without immunity to Varicella-Zoster virus can be vaccinated during pregnancy to prevent primary infection.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "66ce29bd-f12f-4d34-8add-4eaa43843277", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "With vaginal ultrasound, from how long after conception is it possible to see an embryo with a heartbeat?", "Options": { "A": "Between 14 and 21 days.", "B": "Between 21 and 28 days.", "C": "Between 28 and 35 days.", "D": "Between 35 and 42 days.", "E": "Between 42 to 49 days." }, "Correct Answer": "Between 21 and 28 days.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7cdeb006-ef39-456e-aa98-8a5dcbfded06", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following answers is FALSE regarding breast cancer.", "Options": { "A": "The majority of tumors (70%) have receptors for hormones.", "B": "The stage measured according to the TNM system is one of the prognostic factors of the disease.", "C": "The presence of axillary adenopathies contraindicates breast surgery.", "D": "Anthracyclines and taxanes are the chemotherapeutic agents most used in the complementary treatment.", "E": "The breast-conserving surgery associated with radiotherapy has comparable results to mastectomy." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of axillary adenopathies contraindicates breast surgery.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6898a934-6dcc-49f1-a75a-01bcde0e6595", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which gene is most frequently associated with acquired mutations in breast cancer?", "Options": { "A": "p53.", "B": "PTEN.", "C": "BRCA-2.", "D": "BRCA-1.", "E": "Her2 / neu." }, "Correct Answer": "p53.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "40b3ff6f-61f8-4d0c-a638-9e409f60cc2f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding substance abuse by the adolescent, point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It is usually an individual consumption which indicates a better prognosis.", "B": "The onset of abuse in adolescence has not shown an increased risk of becoming addicted.", "C": "It is independent of the risk of HIV infection.", "D": "The most popular drug among teenagers is cannabis.", "E": "It should be considered in adolescents who come to the emergency with a crisis." }, "Correct Answer": "It should be considered in adolescents who come to the emergency with a crisis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "33ed5edf-2c59-47a8-a92f-4605add8afd4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following congenital heart diseases is NOT considered as heart disease that produces volume overload ?:", "Options": { "A": "Interauricular communication.", "B": "Ventricular communication.", "C": "Defects of the atrio-ventricular septum.", "D": "Coarctation of the aorta.", "E": "Persistent ductus arteriosus." }, "Correct Answer": "Coarctation of the aorta.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0a10cba3-58e5-4622-9794-cb7ff7b73078", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the most frequent type of esophageal atresia:", "Options": { "A": "Prenatal ultrasound performed in the third trimester allows diagnosis in 6080% of cases.", "B": "It is associated in 50% of cases with microgastria and neural tube defects.", "C": "The distance between the proximal and distal atresic pockets is greater than in the other types of atresia.", "D": "Gastrostomy should be performed in the first 48 hours of life to allow enteral feeding.", "E": "The presence of air in the stomach and small intestine on abdominal radiography confirms the existence of a distal fistula." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of air in the stomach and small intestine on abdominal radiography confirms the existence of a distal fistula.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "23b8bb53-e48d-4edc-91dc-fe38d7d911e1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "To decide to postpone discharge to a child in maternity 48 hours after childbirth, the following criteria will be taken into account EXCEPT one, indicate it.", "Options": { "A": "Jaundice evident on the first day of life.", "B": "VDRL positive.", "C": "Weight loss of 7%.", "D": "Breastfeeding not established.", "E": "Lack of evacuation of meconium." }, "Correct Answer": "Weight loss of 7%.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ba248134-3fcb-46e5-ae37-14877343346a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following data is NOT specific to hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?", "Options": { "A": "Metabolic alkalosis", "B": "Projective vomiting of bilious content.", "C": "Family incidence", "D": "Predominance of the masculine sex.", "E": "Palpable mesoepigastric mass." }, "Correct Answer": "Projective vomiting of bilious content.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "34ce9336-ce67-40c1-9b2d-f0f3c20ce88d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Diabetes mellitus type MODY (maturityonset diabetes of the young) is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "It is an autosomal dominant disorder.", "B": "It is characterized by a genetic defect in the function of beta cells of the pancreas.", "C": "Share the same HLA risk as Diabetes Mellitus type 1.", "D": "The patients have a slight fasting hyperglycemia.", "E": "They may need treatment with insulin for their control." }, "Correct Answer": "Share the same HLA risk as Diabetes Mellitus type 1.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "58fd29dc-80b2-4019-aadd-74690968cc2a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most common developmental complication in bacterial meningitis in the pediatric age?", "Options": { "A": "Hearing loss", "B": "Residual epilepsy", "C": "Mental retardation.", "D": "Hydrocephalus", "E": "Visual defects." }, "Correct Answer": "Hearing loss", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6e6e83ee-0fca-40d0-a7f7-fa3a4ca8b8f6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A premature newborn presents at 2 days of life a picture of poor general condition, subcutaneous petechiae and ecchymoses and persistent bleeding from the puncture sites. The chest radiograph is compatible with pulmonary hemorrhage. In the coagulation study, prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times are elongated. The platelet count is 105,000 / uL. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation secondary to neonatal sepsis.", "B": "Neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia.", "C": "Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia.", "D": "Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn due to vitamin K deficiency.", "E": "Neonatal hemorrhage due to platelet dysfunction." }, "Correct Answer": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation secondary to neonatal sepsis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f2a8f4f2-e6fb-43d4-9451-1a1b11d25c45", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following correlates with retinopathy of the premature newborn?", "Options": { "A": "The bilirubin.", "B": "Gentamicin", "C": "The corticoids", "D": "The Oxigen.", "E": "Fentanyl" }, "Correct Answer": "The Oxigen.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "026acb63-5fc6-4429-9470-08d25264a1e4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The parents of a 2-year-old girl consult because they are concerned about their daughter's development. They have observed that approximately from 18 months, their behavior is different from that of other children of their age. Until then, they had attributed their limited interaction to the fact that they were becoming more independent, and the lack of language development, to which they were not yet enrolled. In the consultation you observe that the girl does not respond when she calls her by her name, shows little eye contact, performs vocalizations without communicative intention, and does not look at where the parents point her. Given these findings, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT one:", "Options": { "A": "Parents should be reassured, recommended schooling as soon as possible, and arrange a follow-up in 3 months.", "B": "The most likely diagnosis is autistic spectrum disorder.", "C": "A diagnostic evaluation must be carried out by a team with experience in autism.", "D": "Appropriate early intervention is recommended.", "E": "The origin of the disorder is multifactorial." }, "Correct Answer": "Parents should be reassured, recommended schooling as soon as possible, and arrange a follow-up in 3 months.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ddd7e1a4-428d-41a8-90d8-f4a683e06b6d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "If you want to study the efficacy and safety of a new cytostatic for a specific oncological process and, at the same time, contrast the efficacy that adds a new monoclonal antibody to this treatment, what would be the most appropriate study design?", "Options": { "A": "Parallel test.", "B": "Cross test", "C": "Factorial test.", "D": "Sequential test.", "E": "Test of n = 1." }, "Correct Answer": "Factorial test.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "42bc6588-4d55-4a23-93ef-665880bce521", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these statements is NOT a characteristic of phase I clinical trials?", "Options": { "A": "They usually have non-therapeutic goals.", "B": "They can be done in healthy volunteers.", "C": "They can be done in patients.", "D": "They are usually randomized.", "E": "They are usually open." }, "Correct Answer": "They are usually randomized.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "52479102-e56a-44f1-9d05-7258919b43e9", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "When comparing the characteristics of pragmatic or confirmatory clinical studies with explanatory or exploratory clinical studies, which of the following is an advantage of the former?", "Options": { "A": "Information about subgroups of patients representative of the usual clinical practice.", "B": "Very homogeneous sample, with little variability.", "C": "Greater capacity to detect differences in the effectiveness of interventions.", "D": "Greater internal validity", "E": "Smaller sample size" }, "Correct Answer": "Information about subgroups of patients representative of the usual clinical practice.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "39c80244-9ef1-47ed-9f6c-741457eb123f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "He is presented with a cohort study involving 1000 female smokers and 2000 non-smoking women of the same age. If, after 5 years, 30 smokers and 20 nonsmoking women have experienced a stroke, what would be the relative risk and the attributable risk?", "Options": { "A": "Relative risk = 3, attributable risk = 10 out of every 1000.", "B": "Relative risk = 3, attributable risk = 20 out of every 1000.", "C": "Relative risk = 1.5, attributable risk = 10 out of every 1000.", "D": "Relative risk = 1.5, attributable risk = 30 out of 1000.", "E": "Relative risk = 10 out of 1000, attributable risk = 3." }, "Correct Answer": "Relative risk = 3, attributable risk = 20 out of every 1000.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "747d6539-d28a-4b7c-b8e5-10001274dc97", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A study is being conducted in a health center to determine the effect of exposure to tobacco smoke in children of smoking parents. For this purpose, a group of healthy children between 3 and 7 years old whose parents are smokers is selected and at the same time an equal number of children whose parents are non-smokers are selected in the same center. A year later, the appearance of respiratory diseases during that year will be investigated in both groups. Indicate the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "The study design is a prospective cohort.", "B": "The study design is cases and controls.", "C": "The study design follows a qualitative methodology.", "D": "The study is experimental.", "E": "The type of design used is efficient to study rare diseases." }, "Correct Answer": "The study design is a prospective cohort.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e790a734-b628-436c-8aec-aecf34f2a61f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A study has been carried out to determine the risk of upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) associated with the use of different non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For this purpose, 2,777 patients with UGIB and 5,532 patients matched with the previous ones were included by age and month of admission or consultation, in the same hospitals, but for reasons that had nothing to do with the use of NSAIDs. The comparative risk of suffering a UGIB associated with previous exposure to different NSAIDs was calculated. What kind of study is it?", "Options": { "A": "Cohort study.", "B": "Cases and controls study.", "C": "Transversal study.", "D": "Experimental study", "E": "Ecological study" }, "Correct Answer": "Cases and controls study.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3ec02c34-f50e-485f-a999-8b78e1770cb5", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The presence (x = 1) or absence (x = 0) of bacteriuria has been determined in a group of subjects. What kind of variable is it?", "Options": { "A": "Ordinal.", "B": "Numeric", "C": "Categorical", "D": "Continuous quantitative", "E": "Discrete quantitative." }, "Correct Answer": "Categorical", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1ff8ff19-ce29-4f82-9375-0459b6a08481", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A population estimate of blood creatinine levels is made in a group of pregnant women, obtaining the following results: mean (×) 0.8 mg / dL; typical deviation (s) 0.62 mg / dL; sample size (n) 85 women. According to the previous data, the confidence interval for the population mean (μ) with a confidence level of 95% (Z = 1.96) is:", "Options": { "A": "0.8 ± 0.04.", "B": "0.8 ± 0.13.", "C": "0.8 ± 0.62.", "D": "0.8 ± 1.96.", "E": "0.8 ± 0.07." }, "Correct Answer": "0.8 ± 0.13.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e13d50f6-2ad2-48ec-acec-d178e732b787", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Some studies show signs that there is a relationship between the quality of people's sleep and the tendency to depression. To obtain the above results, the researchers used two different questionnaires, one on the quality of sleep and another on the symptoms of depression that assigned a score to each patient in each of them. What statistical test do you think they used to test your hypothesis?", "Options": { "A": "Test \"Student's t\".", "B": "Logistic regression analysis.", "C": "Analysis of variance.", "D": "\"Chi square\" test.", "E": "Correlation coefficient." }, "Correct Answer": "Correlation coefficient.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "35d17ee4-9764-4df0-b5ed-5525dcce7956", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In economic evaluations, which of the following costs correspond to indirect non-health costs?", "Options": { "A": "Hospitalization of the patient.", "B": "Care at the patient's home.", "C": "Loss of patient productivity.", "D": "Travel expenses of the patient.", "E": "Rehabilitation of the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "Loss of patient productivity.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "dbc32097-a3ad-4917-8566-0da713a9379e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a pharmacoeconomic study, drug A produces a life expectancy of 5 years with a total cost of 5,000 euros, while drug B produces a life expectancy of 6 years with a total cost of 15,000 euros (average values ​​per patient) . The decision criterion is based on choosing the most effective intervention with a cost-effectiveness threshold of 30,000 euros per year of additional life earned per patient, what drug is cost-effective compared to the other and why?", "Options": { "A": "Drug B, because the incremental cost-effectiveness with respect to A is below the cost-effectiveness threshold.", "B": "Drug A, because it costs much less than B and there is only one year of difference in life expectancy.", "C": "Drug A, because the incremental cost-effectiveness of B with respect to A is above the cost-effectiveness threshold.", "D": "Drug B, because each year of life has a cost of 29,500 euros below the cost-effectiveness threshold.", "E": "Drug A, because the incremental cost-effectiveness with respect to B is above the cost-effectiveness threshold." }, "Correct Answer": "Drug B, because the incremental cost-effectiveness with respect to A is below the cost-effectiveness threshold.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "3013b72f-003d-47f3-8e7c-46a7b3795c0e", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A study is carried out to investigate the association between factor X and disease Z. To do this, 120 subjects with the disease and 420 controls (without the disease) are matched by age and sex. In both groups it is found that 20 subjects were exposed to factor X. What is the odds ratio (OR) between factor X and disease Z?", "Options": { "A": "OR = 1 (no association).", "B": "OR = 2.", "C": "OR = 4", "D": "OR = 6", "E": "OR = 8" }, "Correct Answer": "OR = 4", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f7bb3124-4476-4a75-b81c-d2701cbeba18", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a clinical trial, the non-inferiority of the HDP-MDI inhaler (experimental) was evaluated against the FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler (control). The lower clinically relevant limit was set at -50 ml in the forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1). The results showed an absolute difference in FEV1 between treatments of +8 mL in favor of the HDP-MDI inhaler (95% confidence interval: -59 ml to +67 ml). Point out the CORRECT answer:", "Options": { "A": "The new HDP-MDI inhaler is superior to the control inhaler.", "B": "The FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler is non-inferior to the experimental inhaler.", "C": "The study is not conclusive.", "D": "Both inhalers are equivalent.", "E": "The HDP-MDI inhaler is non-inferior to the control inhaler." }, "Correct Answer": "The study is not conclusive.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3a76376d-4d60-448d-b3c4-9dc57f162f8a", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Does vaccination with inactivated poliomyelitis vaccine generate group immunity? (point to the correct answer).", "Options": { "A": "Yes", "B": "Do not.", "C": "Only when vaccines are used with adjuvants.", "D": "Only against polio virus type 3.", "E": "Only if it is administered with DTP vaccine." }, "Correct Answer": "Yes", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "1d47470e-b8dd-4c53-b72f-5122252433fd", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding vaccination with rubella vaccine in pregnant women, point out the correct answer:", "Options": { "A": "It should be encouraged as it is very convenient for Public Health.", "B": "It is the procedure of choice for the control of congenital rubella syndrome.", "C": "It is no longer considered as an indication of abortion.", "D": "It is allowed in the case of vaccines of strain RA 27/3, but not in the case of vaccines of the strain Cendehill.", "E": "It must be administered in conjunction with specific immunoglobulin" }, "Correct Answer": "It is no longer considered as an indication of abortion.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1c23c829-a86b-4dd2-bcf3-f00e0829ffa4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a clinical trial that evaluates the efficacy of a hypolipidemic agent in the primary prevention of coronary heart disease, if the researchers have planned analysis of intermediate results and in view of them suspending the study before its completion they must know that:", "Options": { "A": "The study can only be interrupted when in some intermediate analysis there is a difference between the results of the interventions, p <0.05.", "B": "Only interruption is justified in those studies that have mortality as the outcome variable.", "C": "If the intervention is safe, the study can not be interrupted before it has finished.", "D": "When a clinical trial is interrupted early, the effect of the evaluated intervention is often overestimated.", "E": "The performance of intermediate analyzes decreases the Type I error." }, "Correct Answer": "When a clinical trial is interrupted early, the effect of the evaluated intervention is often overestimated.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "cb436c54-f3c5-4070-a11d-00acfbf24707", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "When screening for a disease, aimed at high-risk groups, looking for disease in its initial stage, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Simple screening, non-selective, precocious.", "B": "Simple, selective, precocious screening.", "C": "Multiple, non-selective, late screening.", "D": "Multiple screening, selective, precocious.", "E": "Simple, selective, delayed screening." }, "Correct Answer": "Simple, selective, precocious screening.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b528e736-eb13-43cf-9cdb-040cec6648ac", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 52-year-old woman is detected on a mammogram by a nodule and is advised to perform a biopsy by puncture with ultrasound control. The patient asks you about the probability of having cancer if the test comes out positive. Since you have no experience in this area, you are looking for and find a study that includes 112 patients, 18 with cancer and 94 without cancer. Of the 18 patients with cancer, the puncture gave a positive result in 16 and of the 94 patients without cancer the puncture gave a negative result in 88. With these data the correct answer is:", "Options": { "A": "0,727.", "B": "0.93.", "C": "0.645.", "D": "0.56.", "E": "It can not be calculated because the prevalence of the disease is not known." }, "Correct Answer": "0,727.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "53e25e26-57a1-4392-810e-0f61dbb74646", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A group of researchers conducted a prospective study to evaluate the efficacy of three alternatives in the treatment of acute otorrhea in children with tympanostomy tubes. Randomized, 76 children received oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, 77 received ear drops with hydrocortisone-bacitracinacolistin and other 77 children did not receive any pharmacological treatment, only observation. The main variable was the presence of otorrhea. What kind of study is it?", "Options": { "A": "Cohort study.", "B": "Post-authorization study of prospective follow-up.", "C": "Post-authorization study linked to the authorization.", "D": "Clinical trial", "E": "Transversal study." }, "Correct Answer": "Clinical trial", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "080ed905-bef8-4ca4-97ec-39f084a8598c", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "We have the registry of subjects who are vaccinated against the flu in a specific region and campaign, which includes information at the time of vaccination on pathological history, age, sex and type of vaccine. For the same subjects we also have the registry with hospital discharge diagnoses, which occurred after the date of vaccination, and there is a personal identifier common to both registers. Indicate which of these studies would be possible to carry out using only the aforementioned sources of information:", "Options": { "A": "An analytical cohort study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing Guillain-Barré syndrome in the first 16 weeks after influenza vaccination.", "B": "A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of acute myocardial infarction in the first 16 weeks after anti-flu vaccination.", "C": "A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of fever in the first week after the influenza vaccination.", "D": "A clinical trial that compares the risk of serious post-vaccine reactions (involving hospital admission) with two of the types of influenza vaccines used in that campaign.", "E": "A case-control study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing an acute myocardial infarction." }, "Correct Answer": "A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of acute myocardial infarction in the first 16 weeks after anti-flu vaccination.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "de771e91-902b-4de9-a677-aaa02dc92940", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a cohort study, the population treated with an anticoagulant drug had an incidence of severe hemorrhage of 3%, while in the untreated population the incidence of severe bleeding was 1%, with the NNH (\"Number Needed to Harm\") of 50. What is the correct interpretation of this data?", "Options": { "A": "In the group treated with the anticoagulant 50 people presented a severe hemorrhage.", "B": "In the group treated with anticoagulant there were 50 cases of severe hemorrhage more than in the untreated group.", "C": "The risk of severe hemorrhage in those treated with the anticoagulant was 50 times higher than in those not treated.", "D": "It was necessary to treat 50 people with the anticoagulant to produce 1 case of severe hemorrhage attributable to the drug.", "E": "Of every 100 patients treated with the anticoagulant, 50 had a severe hemorrhage." }, "Correct Answer": "It was necessary to treat 50 people with the anticoagulant to produce 1 case of severe hemorrhage attributable to the drug.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2e67daf7-889d-44ba-90bf-c83e82ee4538", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a meta-analysis of 15 studies, the incidence of myocardial infarction with the new drug Tromboclean is 10.8% compared to 8% with heparin. The relative risk is 1.35, with a 95% confidence interval of 1.15 to 1.50 and absence of significant heterogeneity between studies (p-value of heterogeneity = 0.95). Point out the CORRECT answer:", "Options": { "A": "The heterogeneity is not significant, which suggests that the results are inconclusive.", "B": "Trombo Clean presents a risk of myocardial infarction similar to that of heparin.", "C": "It can not be ruled out with a 95% confidence that Tromboclean reduces the risk of myocardial infarction by 50%.", "D": "Thromboclean increases the absolute risk of myocardial infarction between 15% and 50%.", "E": "Heparin presents a significantly lower risk of myocardial infarction than Tromboclean." }, "Correct Answer": "Heparin presents a significantly lower risk of myocardial infarction than Tromboclean.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7180419d-58d5-4198-a2da-98049f3f7f03", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "After a strong blow to the knee and especially if the affected lower limb is resting on the floor, the so-called \"unfortunate triad\" may occur that affects three elements of the anatomical components of the knee joint. What are these?", "Options": { "A": "Peroneal collateral ligament, posterior cruciate ligament and lateral meniscus.", "B": "Tibial collateral ligament, anterior cruciate ligament and medial meniscus.", "C": "Tibial collateral ligament, posterior cruciate ligament and anterior cruciate ligament.", "D": "Anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament and medial meniscus.", "E": "Peroneal collateral ligament, tibial and anterior cruciate collateral ligament." }, "Correct Answer": "Tibial collateral ligament, anterior cruciate ligament and medial meniscus.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7dbea1d2-d2c6-4012-be00-ee72fdd5abf6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following cranial nerves has the longest path through a bone canal?", "Options": { "A": "The trigeminal.", "B": "The pathetic or troclear.", "C": "The optician", "D": "The facial.", "E": "The olfactory." }, "Correct Answer": "The facial.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "571f9bdb-ff85-475d-b84b-680052a7278f", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Reviewing the CT angiography of a 70-year-old man under study for abdominal aortic aneurysm, the radiologist reports the presence of complete occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient is completely asymptomatic. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery occurs asymptomatically on many occasions since the irrigating territory can receive flow from:", "Options": { "A": "The middle colic artery.", "B": "The gastroduodenal artery.", "C": "The left inferior epigastric artery.", "D": "The splenic artery.", "E": "The gastroepiploic artery." }, "Correct Answer": "The middle colic artery.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a8acbddd-8007-4717-a239-77220156db90", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the most common malignant tumor of the thyroid?", "Options": { "A": "Oxyphilic carcinoma", "B": "Papillary carcinoma", "C": "Follicular carcinoma.", "D": "Anaplastic carcinoma", "E": "Spinal carcinoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Papillary carcinoma", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "22f44179-5f28-4e73-b1d6-15416cad0622", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which of the following entities is NOT the Epstein-Barr Virus involved?", "Options": { "A": "Infectious mononucleosis", "B": "Burkitt lymphoma.", "C": "Large B cell lymphoma in immunosuppressed patients.", "D": "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "E": "Cervical carcinoma" }, "Correct Answer": "Cervical carcinoma", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "1e574775-c68a-439e-ac69-df5b1ea231b6", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the exogenous factors that favor the appearance of gout are the drugs. Of the following indicated, which one do you consider that it does NOT favor hyperuricemia?", "Options": { "A": "Acetylsalicylic acid at doses lower than 1g daily.", "B": "Hydrochlorothiazide", "C": "Cyclosporin A.", "D": "Ethambutol", "E": "Estrogens" }, "Correct Answer": "Estrogens", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8ae66d7d-0e01-48f5-ae25-3e1324be3fd2", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "The development of generic drugs is based on the evaluation of the bioequivalence of the generic compared to a reference product already marketed. This concept refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The evaluation of equivalence in clinical efficacy trials.", "B": "The assessment of similarity in clinical trials of tolerance.", "C": "The equivalence in the distribution process of a drug and, therefore, to the verification that it has the same concentrations in the place of action.", "D": "The evaluation of pharmacokinetic equivalence.", "E": "The verification of a similar effect of the factors that influence the bioavailability of a drug." }, "Correct Answer": "The evaluation of pharmacokinetic equivalence.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b7d6f6dc-07b2-43f6-85b5-05f396554caa", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a 60-year-old man with moderate renal insufficiency, treatment is started, without administration of loading dose, with a digitalis medication. Under these conditions, the half-life or plasma half-life of digitalis is estimated at 72 hours. Indicate how much treatment time in days should elapse from the start of treatment to reach the steady state concentration or equilibrium concentration.", "Options": { "A": "In 3 days.", "B": "Between 3 and 9 days.", "C": "Between 12 and 15 days.", "D": "More than 30 days", "E": "More than 60 days" }, "Correct Answer": "Between 12 and 15 days.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "24d8a4f2-b93e-4c52-9400-ce90ceb41f80", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following anticoagulants which is a direct inhibitor of thrombin:", "Options": { "A": "Dabigatran", "B": "Apixaban.", "C": "Rivaroxaban.", "D": "Acenocoumarol.", "E": "Clopidogrel" }, "Correct Answer": "Dabigatran", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "48a5406b-45c7-4e9e-b472-0beab4e3e12d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following conditions causes a decrease in the O2 saturation of the hemoglobin that is not due to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen?", "Options": { "A": "Ventilation-perfusion ratio lower than normal.", "B": "Anemia.", "C": "Carbon monoxide poisoning.", "D": "Hypoventilation.", "E": "Shunt venoarterial." }, "Correct Answer": "Carbon monoxide poisoning.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "30228ac4-9b95-4b3b-a3dc-f08e70593e04", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the mentioned vasoactive substances preferentially contracts the glomerular efferent arterioles in most physiological states?", "Options": { "A": "Adrenalin.", "B": "Noradrenaline", "C": "Endothelin", "D": "Angiotensin II.", "E": "Bradykinin" }, "Correct Answer": "Angiotensin II.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2aaebfa8-b296-4d9e-9961-e42b6e553a6d", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What studies should be performed in an adenocarcinoma with prominent mucinous differentiation of ascending colon diagnosed in a 32-year-old man?", "Options": { "A": "Reorganization of the MYC gene.", "B": "Analysis of microsatellite instability.", "C": "Study of mutations of the RET gene.", "D": "Study of BRCA1-2 mutations.", "E": "Studies of TP53 mutations." }, "Correct Answer": "Analysis of microsatellite instability.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a7f27a50-abe0-491a-b99e-1ddf566b5053", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A healthy couple has an 8-year-old daughter with hepatosplenomegaly. The laboratory of biochemical genetics has detected in it a deficiency of the acid beta-glucosidase enzyme (glucocerebrosidase) and molecularly presents the mutation N370S in homozygosis. Which diagnosis is correct?", "Options": { "A": "Fabry disease (Xq22.1).", "B": "Huntington's disease (4p16.3).", "C": "Autosomal dominant cerebellar ataxia SCA1 (6p22.3).", "D": "Adrenoleukodystrophy (Xq28).", "E": "Gaucher disease (1q22)." }, "Correct Answer": "Gaucher disease (1q22).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2a58bd1b-0fdd-4101-abd6-437d10551da0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following in an oncogene whose transcription product is a membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity of a growth factor?", "Options": { "A": "HER2 / neu.", "B": "p53.", "C": "myc", "D": "APC.", "E": "Ras." }, "Correct Answer": "HER2 / neu.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c1bad07f-6c6b-4df2-ad15-d884194df058", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding B lymphocytes.", "Options": { "A": "Its two main subpopulations are called B-helper and B-cytotoxic.", "B": "They are the cells responsible for the production of antibodies in the rejection of an autologous transplant of hematopoietic progenitors.", "C": "They are the target cells of the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (rituximab).", "D": "They require co-stimulation CD20-CD19 for the expression of the CD3 molecule on its surface.", "E": "It is the type of majority lymphocyte in the peripheral blood of patients with Bruton's disease." }, "Correct Answer": "They are the target cells of the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (rituximab).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "920325d9-b109-4589-a303-9cd71b21a0ec", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions:", "Options": { "A": "Eosinophils and mast cells play an important role.", "B": "There are no cellular elements involved.", "C": "Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity reactions play a key role.", "D": "There are no elements of the immune system involved in atopy.", "E": "The IgE immunoglobulin receptor does not intervene." }, "Correct Answer": "Eosinophils and mast cells play an important role.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "49345622-534d-472d-9c8f-136e1e8aa540", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "An 8-month-old girl meets diagnostic criteria for hemophagocytic syndrome / hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis-fever, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, hipetransaminasemia, increased sCD25-and has a defect in the capacity of degranulation of her lymphocytes (expression of CD107a). Point out the correct therapeutic attitude in this case:", "Options": { "A": "Quickly initiate HLA typing and immunosuppressive therapy for the donor search (haematopoietic stem cell transplant).", "B": "Biological treatment with Daclizumab (antiCD25) as the only therapy until the molecular diagnosis of the disease is obtained.", "C": "Symptomatic and supportive treatment (transfusion of red blood cells and platelets) and avoid any immunosuppressant drug.", "D": "Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy via iv for the treatment of an eventual microorganism that triggers hemophagocytosis.", "E": "Treatment with intravenous gamma globulins, to maintain for life." }, "Correct Answer": "Quickly initiate HLA typing and immunosuppressive therapy for the donor search (haematopoietic stem cell transplant).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a857fdc2-abfe-4fe0-9cb8-064d8b70ed4b", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 43-year-old man consulted for diarrheal syndrome, and reported among his background 3 pneumonias in adulthood. Which of the following immunological studies should we request ?:", "Options": { "A": "Serum immunoglobulin count and antibody production capacity test.", "B": "Phagocytosis test and oxidative metabolism of neutrophils.", "C": "Apoptosis test (programmed cell death) in the circulating lymphocytes of the patient.", "D": "Study of the repertoire and clonality of the T lymphocytes (alpha / beta).", "E": "In this patient, it would not be appropriate to request any immunological study." }, "Correct Answer": "Serum immunoglobulin count and antibody production capacity test.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "bbd76e57-bb18-4dd1-89a2-0f4d3a6bf9f1", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what clinical situation would you use a combined antimicrobial treatment?", "Options": { "A": "In an acute pharyngotonsillitis in a child.", "B": "In a community pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae in a teenager.", "C": "In an acute meningitis in an elderly patient.", "D": "In a postmenopausal patient with a recurrent urinary infection.", "E": "In a skin abscess in a young patient." }, "Correct Answer": "In an acute meningitis in an elderly patient.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5687b995-368f-4421-8a0e-6185fdfce2bb", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "8-year-old boy who goes to the Emergency Room because he has been bitten by a child while playing, about 6 hours ago. It presents a slight incisocontuse wound on the right forearm. In addition to considering other measures, what antimicrobial would you recommend?", "Options": { "A": "Ciprofloxacin, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora.", "B": "Aztreonam, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of Enterobacteriaceae.", "C": "Amoxicillin-clavulanate, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of gram-positive and anaerobic flora.", "D": "Fluconazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of yeasts such as Candida albicans.", "E": "Metronidazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora." }, "Correct Answer": "Amoxicillin-clavulanate, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of gram-positive and anaerobic flora.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "963efae5-7249-40e6-b60f-3c5ed0406d73", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following bacterial species is not an Enterobacteriaceae?", "Options": { "A": "Escherichia coli", "B": "Proteus vulgaris.", "C": "Klebsiella pneumoniae.", "D": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "E": "Salmonella enteritidis." }, "Correct Answer": "Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "14ce3851-eaf2-431d-adf4-12a346457d76", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 69-year-old woman consulted for dysuria and frequency, symptoms that she has suffered numerous times in the last two years. He says that he has been taking cotrimoxazole in a daily dose for three months, prescribed by his family doctor. In the hospital's emergency department, a sediment and a urine culture were taken. The urinary sediment was pathological (significant pyuria, positive nitrites). He was prescribed ciprofloxacin, and was re-cited with his primary care physician. The urine culture was positive (Escherichia coli,> 10 (5) CFU / ml) and the results of the antibiogram showed resistance to ampicillin, cotrimoxazole and quinolones, but sensitivity to fosfomycin, the antimicrobial agent that you prescribe. Which of the following answers is FALSE?", "Options": { "A": "The change from ciprofloxacin to norfloxacin would have been correct, according to the results of the antibiogram.", "B": "Cotrimoxazole was being used as a prophylaxis.", "C": "The choice of fosfomycin constitutes a targeted treatment.", "D": "The choice of ciprofloxacin constitutes an empirical treatment.", "E": "The change from ciprofloxacin to fosfomycin was correct, according to the results of the antibiogram." }, "Correct Answer": "The change from ciprofloxacin to norfloxacin would have been correct, according to the results of the antibiogram.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "60d751d3-012f-42a4-a641-02beb98e8c12", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Before a 7-month-old girl who comes to the emergency room with a picture suggestive of bronchiolitis, what would be the most probable etiologic agent?", "Options": { "A": "Adenovirus.", "B": "Parainfluenza virus 1", "C": "Influenza B virus", "D": "Bocavirus", "E": "Respiratory syncytial virus." }, "Correct Answer": "Respiratory syncytial virus.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "9c4bf5e9-5510-4eb5-97b9-16bdd33c8f09", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis?", "Options": { "A": "Prednisone.", "B": "Azathioprine", "C": "Budesonide", "D": "Lamivudine", "E": "Mycophenolate mofetil." }, "Correct Answer": "Lamivudine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0c2e5cc6-2a04-4e28-989e-e93e846fd544", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "Acute aortic syndrome includes entities such as aortic dissection, intramural aortic hematoma, and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer. Regarding the diagnostic and therapeutic considerations of this entity, point out the CORRECT statement:", "Options": { "A": "Currently, in our environment, the diagnosis of this pathology is established routinely by percutaneous arteriography.", "B": "Computed tomography is not a good imaging technique for its diagnosis.", "C": "The echocardiographic techniques do not usually provide data of interest in the diagnosis and study of these nosological entities.", "D": "It is considered a Stanford type A aortic intramural dissection or hematoma when the ascending aorta is affected, regardless of the place of origin of the lesion or its extension.", "E": "The surgical indication of an aortic dissection is independent of the involvement of the ascending aorta." }, "Correct Answer": "It is considered a Stanford type A aortic intramural dissection or hematoma when the ascending aorta is affected, regardless of the place of origin of the lesion or its extension.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1a11e67d-dc16-4ce7-ab13-1c15ea1a37cf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 58-year-old woman enters the Short Stay Medical Unit due to a clinical picture that began with an episode of syncope and then presented feeling of dizziness and dyspnea. On physical examination, she is sweaty, afebrile at 126 beats per minute and at 30 breaths per minute, with a blood pressure of 88/46 and an oxygen saturation of 85% while breathing room air. Cardiac auscultation shows tachycardia without murmurs or gallop and pulmonary auscultation is clean. Which, among the following, seems the most likely diagnosis?", "Options": { "A": "Pulmonary embolism.", "B": "Acute cerebrovascular accident of posterior territory.", "C": "Acute coronary syndrome", "D": "Hypovolemic shock.", "E": "Acute pulmonary edema secondary to atrial flutter." }, "Correct Answer": "Pulmonary embolism.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f5e00a25-1800-43fb-8a03-e0683c60f675", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 69-year-old woman consulted for hemoptotic expectoration. In the two previous months she had low-grade fever, asthenia, anorexia and unquantified weight loss. In the cytological analysis of sputum, hemosiderophages were observed and in the chest radiograph bilateral alveolar infiltrates were observed. Analytically it stood out: Hb 8.2gr / dL, PO2: 58mmHg, creatinine: 5mg / dL, urine: proteinuria +++ microhematuria, cylinders, hematics. ANCAp (antibodies against the cytoplasm of perinuclear neutrophils): positive: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies: negative. Antinuclear antibodies: negative. The most likely diagnosis would be:", "Options": { "A": "Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis.", "B": "Goodpasture syndrome.", "C": "Systemic lupus erythematosus with severe renal involvement.", "D": "Classical polyarteritis nodosa.", "E": "Microscopic polyarteritis." }, "Correct Answer": "Microscopic polyarteritis.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "052eea62-d719-47b4-b529-f0f22005e429", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is true of essential tremor?", "Options": { "A": "It usually improves with propranolol.", "B": "Initially it is at rest.", "C": "It can be improved with levodopa at low doses.", "D": "It is more serious in cases of family presentation.", "E": "It usually gets worse with alcohol intake." }, "Correct Answer": "It usually improves with propranolol.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "4a175d09-a83d-4c24-9a10-cc1c979f0bf0", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 24-year-old woman, asymptomatic, with a history of father and sister with medullary thyroid carcinoma. Incidentally, an adrenal mass measuring 5 cm in diameter was discovered on computed tomography (CT). Which of the following options should be the next clinical decision?", "Options": { "A": "Given that it is asymptomatic, semestral control is recommended with serial CT scans of said lesion.", "B": "The search for a possible medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a priority.", "C": "A pre-clinical Cushing syndrome should be suspected in the context of multiple endocrine neoplasia.", "D": "Puncture-aspiration of said lesion should be performed to elucidate the nature of said lesion.", "E": "Catecholamines should be determined in urine to rule out a pheochromocytoma." }, "Correct Answer": "Catecholamines should be determined in urine to rule out a pheochromocytoma.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "140941c7-a33b-4ddf-953c-7973c65eb900", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 45-year-old patient on the 15th day post-transplant of hematopeytic progenitors, with absolute neutropenia, platelets of 15,000 / uL and a hemoglobin of 7 g / dL, which presents a clinical picture of eye pain with periorbital edema with discrete serosanguinous nasal discharge . What is the diagnosis of presumption?", "Options": { "A": "Periorbital hematoma.", "B": "Allergic reaction, possibly to medication.", "C": "Acute bacterial sinusitis, probably staphylococcal.", "D": "Sinusitis due to Aspergillus spp.", "E": "Mucormycosis" }, "Correct Answer": "Mucormycosis", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "09e626f2-84a2-4e52-bd9c-aee18c399fbf", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "A 76-year-old woman surgically treated for a cataract in her left eye two years before without complications. He says that for the last few months he has had the sensation that the cataract has been reproduced. Point out the most likely diagnosis.", "Options": { "A": "Secondary cataract due to incomplete extraction of the lens.", "B": "Opacification of the posterior capsule.", "C": "Cystic macular edema.", "D": "Dislocation of intraocular lens to the vitreous cavity.", "E": "Late endophthalmitis." }, "Correct Answer": "Opacification of the posterior capsule.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5f29180b-53e7-451d-9e4a-510ee90c6077", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "When we perform the triple test (alpha fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin and unconjugated estriol) to pregnant women, the sensitivity and specificity against trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) are 63 and 95% respectively. This means:", "Options": { "A": "The percentage of false negatives is 5%.", "B": "The percentage of false positives is 37%.", "C": "The Area Under the Curve (AUC) ROC would be 1.", "D": "The probability of not having trisomy 21 (S. Down) being the negative result is 95%.", "E": "The probability of having a positive test result with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is 63%." }, "Correct Answer": "The probability of having a positive test result with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is 63%.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3d26b782-4164-4d8e-8147-d5b8ff558ba4", "topic_name": "medicine" }, { "data": { "Question": "By what experimental procedure can we evaluate the implicit memory ?:", "Options": { "A": "The repetition priming.", "B": "The partial report technique.", "C": "The technique of the total report.", "D": "The method of savings.", "E": "The free memory." }, "Correct Answer": "The repetition priming.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c80a3874-89b1-4981-98ed-8e063b4c3535", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The highest recall rate of the first items in a list is called:", "Options": { "A": "Primacy effect.", "B": "Recipe effect.", "C": "Suffix effect.", "D": "Von Restorff effect.", "E": "Proactive interference" }, "Correct Answer": "Primacy effect.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "993b468b-99af-4f61-851d-c5b4602f1f17", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of mechanism does Gestalt propose as an explanatory mechanism for solving a problem ?:", "Options": { "A": "The trial and error.", "B": "The search for operations in the problem space.", "C": "The algorithmic methods.", "D": "The huerísticos methods.", "E": "The insight." }, "Correct Answer": "The insight.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b050762b-55f1-4a01-89a2-9e3c6e971ec5", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the main cerebral structure involved in conditioned fear ?:", "Options": { "A": "The hippocampus", "B": "The cingulate cortex.", "C": "The olfactory bulb.", "D": "The hypothalamus", "E": "The amygdala" }, "Correct Answer": "The amygdala", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f6dc51ea-4547-47a9-8e31-3d01ad72c770", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What simple reinforcement programs produce a more stable response pattern ?:", "Options": { "A": "Those of fixed ratio.", "B": "Those of variable reason.", "C": "Those of fixed interval.", "D": "Those of variable interval.", "E": "All reinforcement programs produce similar response rates." }, "Correct Answer": "Those of variable reason.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4ef534ee-1187-438e-a14c-c7945f1742cc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the procedure called instrumental conditioning in which the instrumental response eliminates or prevents the occurrence of an aversive stimulus ?:", "Options": { "A": "Positive reinforcement.", "B": "Punishment.", "C": "Negative reinforcement.", "D": "Omission.", "E": "Extinction." }, "Correct Answer": "Negative reinforcement.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9491b2c9-2e09-4777-b3e0-3fb8f32aafb0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For Kurt Lewin the set of elements that influence the behavior of an individual at a given time make up:", "Options": { "A": "The living space", "B": "The place of control of the reinforcement.", "C": "Cognitive maps", "D": "Cognitive dissonance", "E": "The process of organic valuation." }, "Correct Answer": "The living space", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "39c89543-6548-4891-93be-7bb0e884315b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Antegrade amnesia is a result of brain damage in:", "Options": { "A": "The hippocampus, its afferents or eferences.", "B": "The hypothalamus, its afferences or eferences.", "C": "The thalamus, its afferences or eferences.", "D": "The pituitary gland, its afferences or eferences.", "E": "The orbitofrontal cortex, its afferents or eferences." }, "Correct Answer": "The hippocampus, its afferents or eferences.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "db82cb9c-baec-4e15-8ee8-3364614f5d6e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "It has been proven that amphetamines have reinforcing effects because:", "Options": { "A": "They are GABAergic agonists.", "B": "They are dopaminergic antagonists.", "C": "They are serotonergic antagonists.", "D": "They are dopaminergic agonists.", "E": "They are serotonergic agonists." }, "Correct Answer": "They are dopaminergic agonists.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c7e15f24-4ec2-4624-81b8-43951b5f7067", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The technique that stimulates the cerebral cortex by applying electrical pulses through an electromagnetic coil, which is used to treat some disorders such as depression, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Transcranial magnetic stimulation.", "B": "Intracerebral photo stimulation.", "C": "Functional magnetic resonance or RMf.", "D": "Evoked potentials of stimulation.", "E": "Magnetoencephalography" }, "Correct Answer": "Transcranial magnetic stimulation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "92a06401-630e-446b-adf0-957f37232763", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Alcohol is included in the group of sedative or depressant drugs because it acts as:", "Options": { "A": "Cholinergic receptor agonist: nicotinic and muscarinic.", "B": "Antagonist of serotonergic (5 HT) and cholinergic receptors.", "C": "Noradrenergic receptor agonist and serotonin antagonist.", "D": "Antagonist of NMDA receptors and agonist of AMPA receptors.", "E": "GABA-a receptor agonist and NMDA receptor antagonist." }, "Correct Answer": "GABA-a receptor agonist and NMDA receptor antagonist.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ef23088e-eeaf-4244-8297-c1023b7f7aa3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What neurotransmitter has a type of receptor called muscarinic ?:", "Options": { "A": "Acetylcholine", "B": "Dopamine", "C": "Serotonin", "D": "Noradrenaline", "E": "Adrenalin." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetylcholine", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c2fb5cc0-95f4-43fe-b844-d0dfe82e8b44", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sexual behavior in females ?:", "Options": { "A": "Ventromedial.", "B": "Suprachiasmatic", "C": "Paraventricular.", "D": "Medial preopticus", "E": "Dorsomedial." }, "Correct Answer": "Ventromedial.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "641b9a33-8702-4b63-8721-21eaee452176", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The use of intonation changes and emphasis to add meaning to speech is called:", "Options": { "A": "Alexitimia.", "B": "Tonality.", "C": "Rhythmicity", "D": "Melody.", "E": "Prosody." }, "Correct Answer": "Prosody.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "60208ac6-59c7-4927-a28b-34ae80ba879d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why is the visual information transmitted to the nucleus of the thalamus ?:", "Options": { "A": "Pulvinar core.", "B": "Arched core.", "C": "Lateral geniculate nucleus.", "D": "Medial geniculate nucleus.", "E": "Ventrolateral nucleus." }, "Correct Answer": "Lateral geniculate nucleus.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "414399e5-b99f-4f64-8982-f7ef529448db", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The so-called \"mere exposure effect\" indicates that repeated exposure to a social object promotes that objective:", "Options": { "A": "Greater dissonance", "B": "A more complex cognitive processing.", "C": "A greater attraction.", "D": "Less dissonance", "E": "A lesser attraction" }, "Correct Answer": "A greater attraction.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "46cccc87-5573-4ae4-a203-02e5a3f16a74", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characterizes the so-called \"Culture of Honor\" is to support that one of the ways to solve threats against social reputation is:", "Options": { "A": "The judicial process.", "B": "The mediation", "C": "The violence.", "D": "The negotiation.", "E": "Peaceful coexistence" }, "Correct Answer": "The violence.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0920cb77-5447-47ff-b8ea-8dde35bbe884", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is a symptom of the so-called \"group thinking\" ?:", "Options": { "A": "Illusion of invulnerability.", "B": "Cognitive dissonance.", "C": "Pluralist Ignorance", "D": "Illusory correlation.", "E": "Conversion." }, "Correct Answer": "Illusion of invulnerability.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e3531d39-ed9d-483e-92a7-49ca8fe11748", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is the central characteristic of the stage of formal operations according to Piaget ?:", "Options": { "A": "The solution of conservation problems.", "B": "The reversibility in thought.", "C": "The overcoming of egocentrism.", "D": "The theory of the mind", "E": "The hypothetical-deductive thought." }, "Correct Answer": "The hypothetical-deductive thought.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cea63825-3196-4ce5-b821-faa5646eda2d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In adolescence, it is common to think that others are extremely interested in themselves. What is the name of this egocentric bias ?:", "Options": { "A": "Propiocentrism", "B": "Personal story", "C": "Fable of invincibility.", "D": "Imaginary audience", "E": "Pseudoparanoia" }, "Correct Answer": "Imaginary audience", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1faa1749-7b23-448d-a321-acc145d2cacd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "At what approximate age do children begin to understand that a person may have false beliefs about the world ?:", "Options": { "A": "At 18 months.", "B": "At two years.", "C": "At four years old", "D": "At six years old.", "E": "At eight years old." }, "Correct Answer": "At four years old", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fe801fb4-ef05-4b04-b4bb-ac8579e5ffd3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the name of the distance between what a child is capable of doing for himself and what he is capable of doing if an adult, or another more capable child, helps him ?:", "Options": { "A": "Scaffolding.", "B": "Self-regulation.", "C": "Tertiary circular reaction.", "D": "Near (or proximal) development zone.", "E": "Shared attention area." }, "Correct Answer": "Near (or proximal) development zone.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a28b3d47-a5db-4f7f-830a-96e1e6eaf595", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "An 18-month-old boy said \"paque\" when he wanted to go to the park. This type of isolated words, which represent the meaning of a whole phrase, what is it called ?:", "Options": { "A": "Referential words", "B": "Multimodal words.", "C": "Pre-linguistic words", "D": "Pivot phrases.", "E": "Holofrases." }, "Correct Answer": "Holofrases.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "55196391-7e5b-4ef9-a5c8-425370afb42e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "As the degrees of freedom increase, the Student's t distribution approaches:", "Options": { "A": "The normal distribution.", "B": "The binomial distribution.", "C": "The F distribution of Snedecor.", "D": "The uniform distribution.", "E": "The Chi square distribution." }, "Correct Answer": "The normal distribution.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "da2eee27-d604-443a-a746-8fd41caec7e8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If after establishing the confidence interval with respect to a difference between two independent means, we find that the zero value is not in the interval:", "Options": { "A": "We can not make any decision regarding the null hypothesis of equality of means.", "B": "We can not reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means.", "C": "We must reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means.", "D": "We accept the null hypothesis of equality between the population means.", "E": "We reject the alternative hypothesis of equality between population means." }, "Correct Answer": "We must reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0bbc1260-e286-4c1a-a15b-127f3b9d0708", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the Type II error:", "Options": { "A": "The alternative hypothesis is not rejected being true.", "B": "The null hypothesis is not rejected as false.", "C": "The null hypothesis is not rejected, I feel certain.", "D": "The null hypothesis is rejected being true.", "E": "The alternative hypothesis is accepted as false." }, "Correct Answer": "The null hypothesis is not rejected as false.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "367967f3-9aa3-4cf2-a6a1-bb35d0beca44", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The existence of a statistically significant association between two ordinal variables can be determined by:", "Options": { "A": "The Kruskal-Wallis test.", "B": "The Pearson correlation.", "C": "The Kappa test.", "D": "The Spearman correlation.", "E": "The Wilcoxon test." }, "Correct Answer": "The Spearman correlation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3ed49ce3-c6fe-460c-959b-9bf773dd4e86", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With an ex post facto research design of \"cases and controls\" in which we compare a group selected for having a certain characteristic (cases) and the other for not having it (controls):", "Options": { "A": "We assure the antecedent relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable.", "B": "We can rule out the existence of alternative hypotheses of explanation due to masked variables.", "C": "We should not draw causal conclusions because there are threats to the internal validity of the study due to uncontrolled extraneous variables.", "D": "We can not consider variables such as gender or age as study variables because they are not manipulable.", "E": "The data must be analyzed in terms of change due to its longitudinal nature." }, "Correct Answer": "We should not draw causal conclusions because there are threats to the internal validity of the study due to uncontrolled extraneous variables.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "be27224a-415b-4d4f-a655-52156511dc18", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the survey investigations, we work with a representative sample of the population. What does this mean ?:", "Options": { "A": "The sample faithfully reflects the variables that characterize the population and its size is adequate.", "B": "The conclusions of the study only describe the specific sample and are not generalizable.", "C": "We obtain incomplete and biased information by the characteristics of the sample.", "D": "The basic criterion of inclusion in the sample is the accessibility of the participants.", "E": "The size of the sample should be as close as possible to that of the population." }, "Correct Answer": "The sample faithfully reflects the variables that characterize the population and its size is adequate.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ba76be18-ba97-4c35-9de1-7e559dce7be8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is called \"baseline\" in single-case research designs or N = 1 designs ?:", "Options": { "A": "The difference between the pretest and posttest measurements of the participant.", "B": "The normative reference of the population with which to compare the results of the intervention.", "C": "The changes detected in the dependent variable as a consequence of the application of the treatment.", "D": "The series of observations of the dependent variable made before applying the treatment.", "E": "The absence of variability in the observations of the dependent variable." }, "Correct Answer": "The series of observations of the dependent variable made before applying the treatment.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4781ed42-56f3-4b77-b9c1-34b77b74cb7a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Intrasubject experimental research designs:", "Options": { "A": "They use independent variables not manipulated directly by the researcher but through the selection of the participants.", "B": "They are based on the verification of independent groups assigned to the experimental conditions.", "C": "They combine two independent variables based on the characteristics of the participants.", "D": "They have lower internal validity than the intersubject designs when they do not use random assignment.", "E": "They use specific control techniques to control the effects associated with the order of application of the experimental conditions." }, "Correct Answer": "They use specific control techniques to control the effects associated with the order of application of the experimental conditions.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e4e08b62-50be-4258-b6e2-223f49729db9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the characteristic of the quasi-experimental research strategy that differentiates it from the experimental strategy ?:", "Options": { "A": "Single or very small cases are studied.", "B": "The study is carried out in simulated contexts.", "C": "There is no random assignment of participants to the different study conditions.", "D": "Several dependent variables are used.", "E": "It is done with samples of participants obtained by probabilistic sampling." }, "Correct Answer": "There is no random assignment of participants to the different study conditions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a9a3901f-1105-47ba-aa75-9c17bace56da", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Experimental factorial designs or also called complex experimental designs:", "Options": { "A": "They study the effect of an independent variable on several dependent variables.", "B": "They study the main effects of several independent variables and their possible joint effect or interaction.", "C": "They are inadequate if it is suspected that some of the study variables may have interaction effects.", "D": "They can dispense with experimental control techniques because of their complexity.", "E": "They are based on the application of all experimental conditions to the same group of participants." }, "Correct Answer": "They study the main effects of several independent variables and their possible joint effect or interaction.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "780d0f93-97be-431a-8232-a4e3a9f837d9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What specific procedure of the experimental strategy makes it the most appropriate to test hypotheses of causality? :", "Options": { "A": "The representative sampling of the participants.", "B": "The manipulation of the independent variable with control of possible strange variables.", "C": "The realization of the study in real contexts with natural groups.", "D": "The identification of possible predictor variables through the retrospective analysis of the study phenomenon.", "E": "The application of statistical techniques for the analysis of data." }, "Correct Answer": "The manipulation of the independent variable with control of possible strange variables.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c6229acc-8237-4743-9cca-54183bf09b5a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The structure of the personality can be organized according to:", "Options": { "A": "The three-dimensional model of R.B. Cattell.", "B": "The five-factor proposal of Zuckerman.", "C": "The five basic factors of Cantor and Kihstrom.", "D": "The sixteen factors of H.J. Eysenck.", "E": "The Monorrasgo theory of Costa and McCrae." }, "Correct Answer": "The five-factor proposal of Zuckerman.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0620a490-d797-4a6e-9a40-9a70bacf952c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cognitive investigations of intelligence, and as regards the relationship between Reaction Time (RT) and Intellectual Quotient (IQ):", "Options": { "A": "They have found positive associations of great magnitude.", "B": "They describe negative relationships with differences in magnitude, according to the studies.", "C": "They have found an absence of association between both constructs.", "D": "They have not received attention from the scientific community.", "E": "They start from the study of cultural differences in intelligence." }, "Correct Answer": "They describe negative relationships with differences in magnitude, according to the studies.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b958c187-61fb-4808-9aff-88f990bf848c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the classification of features that R.B. Cattell:", "Options": { "A": "The specific features are observed in the daily behavior of individuals, in all cultures.", "B": "Ergos and feelings shape the dynamic or motivational structure.", "C": "Capabilities and competences are temperamental traits.", "D": "Attitudes are performance traits.", "E": "The basic features are directly observable and qualitatively objective." }, "Correct Answer": "Ergos and feelings shape the dynamic or motivational structure.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3dbf9089-e838-4514-9703-b2fbc92ce1f3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The fluid intelligence:", "Options": { "A": "It is involved in tasks that are new.", "B": "It is shown in tasks with verbal content.", "C": "It reflects formal learning.", "D": "It is not part of the general intelligence.", "E": "Delimits skills based on previous experience." }, "Correct Answer": "It is involved in tasks that are new.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6b5d85d7-c0cd-42c6-8465-0a265e04a72e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Interpersonal intelligence, spatial intelligence and logical-mathematical intelligence, are types of intelligence belonging:", "Options": { "A": "To Cattell's model of intelligence.", "B": "To the Triarchic Theory of Sternberg.", "C": "To the proposal offered by Eysenck.", "D": "To the model of the Multiple Intelligences of Gardner.", "E": "The structure of the intellect is superfluous to Guilford's proposal." }, "Correct Answer": "To the model of the Multiple Intelligences of Gardner.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9a197af6-2d7e-4e5d-96d6-2427c4e3233b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In personality psychology, when talking about consistency and stability of the personality, one can be referring to the observation that:", "Options": { "A": "The features that the person shows are coherent with their ontogenetic history.", "B": "The behaviors and situations that are equated through the time points are similar.", "C": "Personality is the response to situational demands.", "D": "The items that evaluate a trait maintain high correlations with each other.", "E": "Stable and consistent behaviors are indicators of mental health." }, "Correct Answer": "The behaviors and situations that are equated through the time points are similar.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "51d8baee-f4b9-4604-af2e-e0585653d2fa", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The heritability of a personality trait:", "Options": { "A": "It is a statistical concept to estimate the influence of phenotypes on genotypes, regardless of the environment.", "B": "It is generalizable to all humans, regardless of the culture and the historical moment.", "C": "It calls into question the ability of the environment to modify the genetic endowment.", "D": "It is studied, among other perspectives, from molecular genetics.", "E": "It refers to the direct influence of paternal and maternal genes on the behavior of an individual." }, "Correct Answer": "It is studied, among other perspectives, from molecular genetics.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "364c6031-c2e9-4769-90e3-39165ee40358", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Beliefs and values, according to the psychology of personality:", "Options": { "A": "Once established, they do not experience changes during the rest of the individual's life.", "B": "They direct the person towards transcendence, according to Maslow's motivational proposal.", "C": "They predispose the person to prefer some modes of behavior over others.", "D": "They impel people towards the defense of human rights.", "E": "They encourage group development in the face of individual development." }, "Correct Answer": "They predispose the person to prefer some modes of behavior over others.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "49683330-2977-41f7-8f4c-6e8b40149f56", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the Theory of Multiple Intelligences, intrapersonal intelligence:", "Options": { "A": "It has been preponderant in our current system of academic evaluation.", "B": "It is the ability to understand and interact with others.", "C": "It focuses on the potential to form a mental model of a spatial world.", "D": "It is the ability to form an adjusted model of oneself and to use it effectively in life.", "E": "It is exhibited when it comes to making products that need to use the body." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the ability to form an adjusted model of oneself and to use it effectively in life.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "02a27827-31e5-463a-ba7d-664e0a846a8a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The content validity of an evaluation instrument refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The evidence obtained by factor analysis.", "B": "The concurrence of measures.", "C": "The adequacy in the establishment of inferences.", "D": "The relevance and representativeness of its items.", "E": "The significant relationships with other measures." }, "Correct Answer": "The relevance and representativeness of its items.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f84b62a8-0224-4c52-b5ac-edc4f6c4e312", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What does the intersessional sampling used in observation techniques refer to:", "Options": { "A": "To the registration of relevant information between sessions.", "B": "To the periodicity, number and criteria of start-end of the sessions.", "C": "To the successive rounds of observation of the subjects to observe.", "D": "To the temporary selection and its interval or partial modality.", "E": "To the record of focal events that occur between sessions." }, "Correct Answer": "To the periodicity, number and criteria of start-end of the sessions.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bba6522d-6a35-483e-a47f-582e789c5c9e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which group of techniques is included the Thematic Apperception Test (Murray TAT) ?:", "Options": { "A": "Interpretive projects", "B": "Subjective constructive.", "C": "Construction projects", "D": "Rational graphics.", "E": "Subjective narratives." }, "Correct Answer": "Interpretive projects", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "35aa63af-ebc1-4078-95ad-f307f3b38819", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What can indicate, among other things, the high scores on the F Scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) ?:", "Options": { "A": "Social desirability and good image intent.", "B": "A high number of incomplete answers.", "C": "The degree of sincerity.", "D": "That the respondent does it at random or with eccentricity.", "E": "Inconsistency of true answers." }, "Correct Answer": "That the respondent does it at random or with eccentricity.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b6566051-9d55-4738-b81d-c2204b576938", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following instruments allows us to obtain a direct measurement of the dimension \"Openness to experience\" of the personality ?:", "Options": { "A": "Eysenck EPQ-R questionnaire.", "B": "Personality Inventory NEO-PI-R.", "C": "Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).", "D": "Millon Multiaxial Clinical Inventory (MCM).", "E": "Questionnaire 16 PF de Cattell." }, "Correct Answer": "Personality Inventory NEO-PI-R.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "916ff788-8e32-4d94-b7de-d58a0456a891", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The evaluation of the electrodermal activity allows a measurement of:", "Options": { "A": "The general activation of the Autonomic Nervous System.", "B": "The parasympathetic activation.", "C": "The visceral activity.", "D": "The cortical attitude.", "E": "The Delta rhythm." }, "Correct Answer": "The general activation of the Autonomic Nervous System.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c1e45da4-86f1-4eb5-942b-235afd565912", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the cutoff point of a diagnostic instrument is very high, the risk of:", "Options": { "A": "False positives.", "B": "False negatives.", "C": "True positives.", "D": "Sensitivity of the test.", "E": "Inconsistencies of validity." }, "Correct Answer": "False negatives.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "42bab3cd-cd50-422a-8544-08598bff19cd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The sensitivity of a diagnostic test is related to:", "Options": { "A": "Its ability to discriminate true positives.", "B": "Its ability to discriminate true negatives.", "C": "Its ability to discriminate against false positives.", "D": "Its ability to discriminate against false negatives.", "E": "The high cut point." }, "Correct Answer": "Its ability to discriminate true positives.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "eb4a939a-9a5f-4b32-aca1-73f92bcc5a91", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Adaptive tests are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "The unidirectional relationship between the evaluated and the test.", "B": "The interactive process of selection of items dependent on the response of the evaluated.", "C": "The homogeneous and identical application of the items to all those evaluated.", "D": "The identical length in the number of items to be applied.", "E": "The selection of items by independent criteria to the response of the evaluated." }, "Correct Answer": "The interactive process of selection of items dependent on the response of the evaluated.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f6dc6e6b-e236-4c7f-822f-3d1373b5c050", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Raven Progressive Matrices test provides an estimate of:", "Options": { "A": "Level of development.", "B": "Level of maturation.", "C": "General Intelligence Factor (G Factor).", "D": "Verbal intelligence level", "E": "Manipulative intelligence level." }, "Correct Answer": "General Intelligence Factor (G Factor).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b0444c66-5334-4795-9ca5-eae3b341b049", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are, among others, the main biases associated with the observer in the framework of observation techniques ?:", "Options": { "A": "The duration of the experiment.", "B": "The excess of information.", "C": "The technical accuracy", "D": "The illusion of learning.", "E": "The expectation and mechanical errors of registration." }, "Correct Answer": "The expectation and mechanical errors of registration.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7ee607d1-fdfd-436a-bd46-f4691976863f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following options make possible the criterial evaluation tests (or with reference to criteria):", "Options": { "A": "Assess the performance with respect to a normative group.", "B": "Determine relative performance among other people.", "C": "Obtaining a normative score.", "D": "Evaluate the performance with respect to a content area or domain.", "E": "Assess a skill considering the performance of your reference group." }, "Correct Answer": "Evaluate the performance with respect to a content area or domain.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "88a4e353-0df9-4275-a440-64fb8b5fc175", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In 1994, Spitzer and collaborators developed a questionnaire and a joint interview for the evaluation of the main most frequent disorders in primary care health services. This instrument is called:", "Options": { "A": "DIS-CIDI", "B": "SCID II.", "C": "PRIME-MD.", "D": "ADIS.", "E": "SADS." }, "Correct Answer": "PRIME-MD.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "59b76e76-6e33-4137-bdf1-8028b6dc3229", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For self-registration to become an effective tool for clinical evaluation, it must meet the requirements of:", "Options": { "A": "Have a complete design that includes each of the significant units of a complex behavior and its memory.", "B": "Have a simple design, without sophistication or complexity, and always accompanied by a prior training for its completion.", "C": "Do not limit your compliance to the events that occurred at the time but also to the memory that you have of them at later moments.", "D": "Cover each and every one of the behaviors problems identified by the client.", "E": "Be completed by a significant person who knows the client well." }, "Correct Answer": "Have a simple design, without sophistication or complexity, and always accompanied by a prior training for its completion.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3af22aeb-c6f8-482e-8244-9c4bbd03a588", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The structured and semi-structured clinical interviews are based on:", "Options": { "A": "The analysis of the problem behaviors.", "B": "The initial exploration and the demand of the client.", "C": "The categories and diagnostic criteria.", "D": "The observation of nonverbal behavior.", "E": "The adjustment of the patient's demand and the functional hypothesis." }, "Correct Answer": "The categories and diagnostic criteria.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "31626bf4-d295-485f-b4c1-a69206358799", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Family Drawing Test is a projective technique of type:", "Options": { "A": "Thematic.", "B": "Expressive.", "C": "Associative", "D": "Constructive.", "E": "Perceptual." }, "Correct Answer": "Expressive.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "90c4428b-ebe7-4e2d-ab84-0afb2272e553", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which modality of the Behavioral Approach Test (PAC) is the most appropriate to assess the phobia of darkness in childhood ?:", "Options": { "A": "Active approach.", "B": "Passive exposure.", "C": "Passive approach.", "D": "Successive approximation.", "E": "Active exhibition." }, "Correct Answer": "Passive exposure.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "97c610b6-3ff2-4aef-b20d-f8933f3d1078", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "At what age range is the Batelle Development Inventory administered ?:", "Options": { "A": "0-2 years.", "B": "0-4 years.", "C": "0-6 years.", "D": "0-8 years.", "E": "0-10 years." }, "Correct Answer": "0-8 years.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bfc32328-59a4-422c-b462-74f7144a6564", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What WISC IV tests are part of the perceptual reasoning index ?:", "Options": { "A": "Search for symbols, cubes and digits.", "B": "Matrices, cubes and concepts.", "C": "Search for symbols, letters and numbers, and concepts.", "D": "Matrices, keys and concepts.", "E": "Cubes, letters and numbers, and concepts." }, "Correct Answer": "Matrices, cubes and concepts.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1c1a044b-98a2-4d73-bd27-21fb2be45ed1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which interval measure will be the most appropriate to evaluate a brief and high frequency behavior (eg, tic or tacos) in a child ?:", "Options": { "A": "Momentary interval.", "B": "Proportional interval", "C": "Full interval.", "D": "Sequential interval", "E": "Partial interval" }, "Correct Answer": "Partial interval", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "cafa4a56-2132-4965-8532-10d0e83fdce2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The deontological code of psychology in Spain is mainly aimed at:", "Options": { "A": "Evaluate the mental health of the therapist.", "B": "Protect the rights of the authors of the different therapies.", "C": "Protect the rights of research animals.", "D": "Protect the rights of research subjects.", "E": "Regulate applied psychology" }, "Correct Answer": "Regulate applied psychology", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "08776da3-39e1-4943-ad1f-211b6d77b552", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We can say that a psychological evaluator uses indirectly or inferentially self-reports of a person when:", "Options": { "A": "From them, something different from the expressed is extracted, interpreting it as an indicator of a psychological construction.", "B": "He takes it from the results provided by another psychotherapist.", "C": "They belong to information provided about their past.", "D": "They belong to information provided about their expectations.", "E": "The self-report has a behavioral character." }, "Correct Answer": "From them, something different from the expressed is extracted, interpreting it as an indicator of a psychological construction.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e88df6b2-5830-474a-8866-745338764655", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The computerized psychological evaluation or \"computer-assisted evaluation\":", "Options": { "A": "It is limited to qualitative evaluation.", "B": "It replaces the evaluating psychologist in its entirety.", "C": "Analyze the results obtained, but does not serve as control or guidance.", "D": "It only responds to some evaluation objectives such as the cognitive field.", "E": "They can be used both for the application and correction and for the interpretation of results." }, "Correct Answer": "They can be used both for the application and correction and for the interpretation of results.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e2278768-2cd5-4720-89ec-a590898dbfdc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We can consider an antecedent of the cognitive dynamic evaluation the work of:", "Options": { "A": "Thorndike (1974-1949).", "B": "Binet (1927).", "C": "Vygotsky (1935).", "D": "Kelly (1955).", "E": "Weschler (1967)." }, "Correct Answer": "Vygotsky (1935).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c7526b93-636b-4775-b220-708bd6584496", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the phonological elements used to evaluate verbal language in childhood is used:", "Options": { "A": "The babbling.", "B": "The paralinguistics.", "C": "The proxemics", "D": "Kinestesia", "E": "Artifactual communication." }, "Correct Answer": "The babbling.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "370b9613-3588-4db9-ad9e-3145ebb5f671", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The gesture imitation test (Berger and Lézine, 1975) is an evaluation tool that is used in childhood, preferably to evaluate:", "Options": { "A": "Laterality", "B": "The body schema", "C": "Neural efficiency", "D": "Muscle tone", "E": "The motor." }, "Correct Answer": "The body schema", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e5cf11c3-efa4-470a-beef-f388baf648aa", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The individual evaluation of the intelligence presents, in front of its collective evaluation, the following advantage:", "Options": { "A": "The application of individual tests implies a shorter duration.", "B": "The individual evaluation requires less training of the psychologist who administers them (the groups require more expertise).", "C": "It offers a total score without detailing in the different skill profiles.", "D": "It is considered more useful for a clinical purpose than the collective evaluation.", "E": "Individual evaluation does not require time control." }, "Correct Answer": "It is considered more useful for a clinical purpose than the collective evaluation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0a5a5a53-4851-42fa-987a-00b04dfa45ef", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When distinguishing alcoholic patients with Korsakoff Syndrome from patients with alcoholic dementia, we can take into account that:", "Options": { "A": "In patients with Korsakoff syndrome, the IQ measurement remains relatively intact, while this measure is impaired in the case of alcoholic dementia.", "B": "Patients with dementia do not have memory problems, while those with Korsakoff syndrome do.", "C": "In cases of dementia, amnesia appears as the first and most relevant symptom.", "D": "In the case of Korsakoff Syndrome there is no anterograde amnesia (ability to acquire new information).", "E": "In the case of dementia, the skills learned remain intact, whereas in Korsakoff Syndrome they are very deteriorated." }, "Correct Answer": "In patients with Korsakoff syndrome, the IQ measurement remains relatively intact, while this measure is impaired in the case of alcoholic dementia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "f9f3b535-1cea-4971-a824-8fa24d668de6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "If a patient claims to hear voices in Paris when he is in London, we say that he suffers:", "Options": { "A": "A hallucination reflects.", "B": "A paranoid hallucination.", "C": "An extracampine hallucination.", "D": "An autoscopic hallucination.", "E": "A negative hallucination" }, "Correct Answer": "An extracampine hallucination.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1d7ab486-388c-42de-849f-410ce62b0e56", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In psychology they are called \"illusions\" to:", "Options": { "A": "The perceptive deceptions.", "B": "The pseudoalucinations.", "C": "The abnormal associations of sensations (synesthesia).", "D": "The anomalies of perceptual integration (morpholysis).", "E": "The anomalies in the structuring of ambiguous stimuli." }, "Correct Answer": "The anomalies in the structuring of ambiguous stimuli.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d1b83304-9d22-4196-a254-ae05874348f2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Within the perceptual distortions we can find:", "Options": { "A": "Hallucinations", "B": "The metamorphopsias.", "C": "The eidetic images.", "D": "Autoscopy (or double phenomena).", "E": "The parasitic images." }, "Correct Answer": "The metamorphopsias.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "68d7051f-1151-4775-ab0c-1696f0e1502d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "We call \"Aprosexia\" a:", "Options": { "A": "The complete absence of attention.", "B": "Attentional hypervigilance.", "C": "The inability to distinguish stimuli from others.", "D": "Attentional fatigability.", "E": "Mental absence" }, "Correct Answer": "The complete absence of attention.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "16ae0bd8-9545-4596-a0e2-1cc2fee5a9fe", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What alteration does a person suffer that believes that their thoughts are not theirs but have been introduced into the mind by an external and irresistible force ?:", "Options": { "A": "Obsessive idea", "B": "Delusional idea of ​​denial.", "C": "Fugue of ideas.", "D": "Delirium to be controlled.", "E": "Echo of thought." }, "Correct Answer": "Delirium to be controlled.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8fcc5f09-377b-405e-b6dd-c7b79a2fd79b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the characteristics of the primary delirium experience is:", "Options": { "A": "Its greater modifiability, compared with the secondary one.", "B": "The primary obsessive concern of the patient to control reality.", "C": "That does not have its origin in a previous anomalous experience.", "D": "That is not maintained with intense conviction.", "E": "Which is plausible" }, "Correct Answer": "That does not have its origin in a previous anomalous experience.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "09aba563-3f72-40f3-ba0b-f9c2a3c7fd00", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "By what name is the disorder known to be characterized by the constant and persistent repetition of words, ideas, or themes, to which the patient continually appeals ?:", "Options": { "A": "Perseveration of thought.", "B": "Divagatory thinking.", "C": "Disintegration of thought.", "D": "Circumstantiality", "E": "Inhibition of thought." }, "Correct Answer": "Perseveration of thought.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "662f508a-c1c2-4e2d-bb37-eaa9a86469b8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The difficulty in finding words that designate objects or people (nouns and names) is called:", "Options": { "A": "Anomia", "B": "Glosomania.", "C": "Aprosodia", "D": "Bradifemia.", "E": "Paraphemia" }, "Correct Answer": "Anomia", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "88299ec0-98e0-4428-be3c-4312ae9e101a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a person speaks a lot spontaneously, quickly, it is difficult to interrupt and does not end his sentences for a kind of urgent need to communicate something, is likely to present the disorder of thought called:", "Options": { "A": "Schizoafasia.", "B": "Speech pressure", "C": "Perseveration", "D": "Tangeciality", "E": "Circumstantiality" }, "Correct Answer": "Speech pressure", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "23c4e2cf-fb36-482c-a36b-0947fdb81def", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Prosopagnosia is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Extreme form of agnosia characterized by the inability to recognize familiar faces.", "B": "Failure to recognize objects by touch.", "C": "Loss of ability to visualize images.", "D": "Form of anosognosia in which the patient denies his blindness.", "E": "Perceptive experience of an amputated limb." }, "Correct Answer": "Extreme form of agnosia characterized by the inability to recognize familiar faces.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "97d03e06-ada0-4d2a-90be-11c4f6d63325", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The confabulation is a typical symptom of:", "Options": { "A": "The pathological game.", "B": "The Munchausen syndrome.", "C": "The post-traumatic stress syndrome.", "D": "The burn-out syndrome.", "E": "The amnestic syndrome" }, "Correct Answer": "The amnestic syndrome", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "34d6e3de-e5cc-4782-9fea-cf7cd3fa95b8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Retrograde amnesia is defined as:", "Options": { "A": "Memory loss that covers the period before the onset of the disorder that gave rise to amnesia.", "B": "Memory loss that covers the period following the onset of the disorder that gave rise to the amnesia.", "C": "Partial loss of memory that covers a specific period.", "D": "Memory loss in the absence of an organic brain disorder.", "E": "Distortions or memory errors." }, "Correct Answer": "Memory loss that covers the period before the onset of the disorder that gave rise to amnesia.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d2b96886-314c-41bf-9b30-a3c41440b4f6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Affective lability is characterized because:", "Options": { "A": "Rapid changes in emotion occur and the person has difficulty controlling their emotions.", "B": "There is an elevation of the attentional affective threshold for negative stimuli.", "C": "There is a general feeling of being very well, very happy, although there are no causes that justify that state of mind.", "D": "The mood is predominantly downcast, pessimistic, sad.", "E": "There is an affective narrowing that restricts the emotional life." }, "Correct Answer": "Rapid changes in emotion occur and the person has difficulty controlling their emotions.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0e3086b1-16e9-4747-b2d4-132a81875f3c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Parathymia is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Flexibility and emotional or affective modulation have been lost.", "B": "There are mixed feelings of love-hate.", "C": "There are rapid changes of mood.", "D": "There is an absence of control over the expression of affects.", "E": "Affective expression is discordant or inappropriate with the situation." }, "Correct Answer": "Affective expression is discordant or inappropriate with the situation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7d2f3083-9c4f-488b-a25f-9d5d5adfcf22", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Affective rigidity is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Rapid changes in mood.", "B": "Affective expression is discordant with the situation.", "C": "Absence of reactive positive feelings.", "D": "Inability to modulate affect depending on situations.", "E": "Little intense emotional responses." }, "Correct Answer": "Inability to modulate affect depending on situations.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e46ec382-a491-496b-a948-ab2ab312c142", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What are the characteristics of the obfuscation of consciousness ?:", "Options": { "A": "Total absence of consciousness that occurs due to illness or brain damage.", "B": "Transient narrowing of consciousness, of variable duration, with amnesia of what happened during the period.", "C": "Sleep-like state that is accompanied by intense visual hallucinations.", "D": "Deep disorder of qualitative and quantitative nature with psychomotor agitation.", "E": "Reduction of the ability to identify and recognize the environment with attentional difficulties and the course of thought." }, "Correct Answer": "Reduction of the ability to identify and recognize the environment with attentional difficulties and the course of thought.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "30e6acfb-29e3-4c7b-b1d9-6560658b3a28", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The state characterized by a total absence of consciousness, muscle laxity, absence of response to painful stimuli and posterior lacunar amnesia, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Drowsiness.", "B": "Mental absence", "C": "Stupor.", "D": "Coma.", "E": "Obnubilation." }, "Correct Answer": "Coma.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e97be707-59a1-421c-8375-67d449824691", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a person remains in an immobile attitude, with rigid muscles, and can be placed in different positions without him trying to recover the original position for a while, he is likely to suffer:", "Options": { "A": "Passive negativity", "B": "Automatic obedience.", "C": "Reactive mannerisms.", "D": "Psychomotor alteration of rest.", "E": "Waxy flexibility." }, "Correct Answer": "Waxy flexibility.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e8955641-045b-4272-bcfd-89374d312176", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The appearance of constipation is a symptom that appears frequently when consumed:", "Options": { "A": "Tobacco.", "B": "Alcohol.", "C": "Cannabis", "D": "Cocaine.", "E": "Heroin." }, "Correct Answer": "Heroin.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d0db4b90-def8-4757-96e8-09bef199cf3e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Under the name of xanthines are grouped:", "Options": { "A": "The coca leaf, cocaine and crack.", "B": "Methadone and heroin", "C": "The MDA and the MDMA.", "D": "Nicotine and inhalants.", "E": "Caffeine and theophylline." }, "Correct Answer": "Caffeine and theophylline.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "9993b810-d9b6-406e-bc92-0b2b43d0d659", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characterizes dissociative identity disorder ?:", "Options": { "A": "Confusion about personal identity or assumption of a new identity.", "B": "Presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states that control the behavior of the individual recurrently.", "C": "A selective amnesia.", "D": "A persistent or recurrent experience of feeling distanced.", "E": "A feeling of unreality" }, "Correct Answer": "Presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states that control the behavior of the individual recurrently.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9491dc01-e6a4-4141-870b-7299c6907755", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what disorder is there excessive concern for any mild or nonexistent physical anomaly ?:", "Options": { "A": "Somatization disorder", "B": "Anorexia nervosa.", "C": "Anxiety disorder", "D": "The conversion disorder.", "E": "Body dysmorphic disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Body dysmorphic disorder.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c74badcc-4c45-425a-ad0c-0df95e4c0297", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The fear or belief of suffering an important disease, which arises in the subject from the erroneous interpretation of their bodily symptoms, is the nuclear characteristic of:", "Options": { "A": "The conversion disorder.", "B": "Hypochondria.", "C": "Panic disorder", "D": "The Depression", "E": "Somatization" }, "Correct Answer": "Hypochondria.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "557552f6-e293-420b-bf01-3383b9703b2c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What disorders are we referring to when we speak of an alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, and memory ?:", "Options": { "A": "Schizophrenia.", "B": "Dissociative disorders", "C": "Somatoform disorders.", "D": "Post-traumatic stress disorders.", "E": "Mood disorders" }, "Correct Answer": "Dissociative disorders", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e290abba-8ffe-409a-948c-6eded87709d3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Tyrer's classification (1989), what type of dissociation does psychogenic amnesia (dissociative amnesia) belong to ?:", "Options": { "A": "The dissociation of the personality.", "B": "The dissociation of cognitive function.", "C": "The dissociation of perception.", "D": "The dissociation of movement or sensation.", "E": "The dissociation of complex behaviors." }, "Correct Answer": "The dissociation of cognitive function.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cc726133-9562-4c86-a15a-a9ab3725bd69", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characteristic do anorexia and bulimia share ?:", "Options": { "A": "Loss of control over carbohydrates.", "B": "An extreme concern for body weight and shape.", "C": "A BMI below 18.", "D": "Hostility towards the mother.", "E": "The amenorrhea." }, "Correct Answer": "An extreme concern for body weight and shape.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ea609952-2233-4bea-8560-dd6aa170c97a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What would be the differential characteristic between an eating disorder and another that presents with significant weight loss and / or anomalous eating patterns ?:", "Options": { "A": "The sleep problems.", "B": "The pathological fear of getting fat or the overestimated idea of ​​losing weight.", "C": "The social difficulties.", "D": "The high anxiety.", "E": "The fear of malnutrition." }, "Correct Answer": "The pathological fear of getting fat or the overestimated idea of ​​losing weight.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4550e98e-4d72-41ee-94ea-71a027aa7b84", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "At what age does gender identity develop ?:", "Options": { "A": "Shortly after birth.", "B": "Between 2 and 4 years.", "C": "Between 5 and 7 years old.", "D": "Between 13 and 14 years old.", "E": "At puberty." }, "Correct Answer": "Between 2 and 4 years.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "22d56f81-836f-43b1-b7b3-5bd04e402efe", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A lack of interest in carrying out sexual relations or behavior in general is, more properly:", "Options": { "A": "Sexual aversion", "B": "Lack of sexual desire or inhibited sexual desire.", "C": "Impotence or anorgasmia.", "D": "Excitation disorder.", "E": "Orgasmic dysfunction" }, "Correct Answer": "Lack of sexual desire or inhibited sexual desire.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "30d59557-5cd5-4423-9f10-730e335d1b75", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main techniques in Social Skills Training for people with schizophrenia include modeling, behavior testing and feedback. But what other techniques are recommended ?:", "Options": { "A": "Relaxation techniques.", "B": "Targeted discussion techniques and the nominal group technique (TGN).", "C": "Techniques of instigation (Prompting) and lecturing (Coaching).", "D": "Biofeedback techniques.", "E": "Mindfulness techniques." }, "Correct Answer": "Techniques of instigation (Prompting) and lecturing (Coaching).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f2d8200d-01ff-4efb-8f4b-2ff3e884f9cd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What causal factors are particularly relevant in female anorgasmia ?:", "Options": { "A": "The hereditary factors.", "B": "The psychological factors.", "C": "The organic factors.", "D": "The environmental factors.", "E": "The consumption of substances." }, "Correct Answer": "The psychological factors.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "92c19fdc-f12e-424c-bf9a-7c460b9b6ace", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A person who does not have schizophrenia, or a mood disorder with psychotic symptoms, but who exhibits a deep pattern of social detachment and a limited range of emotional expression in interpersonal situations (eg, enjoyment with few activities or is indifferent to the praise or criticism), presents more likely:", "Options": { "A": "A delusional disorder", "B": "A social phobia", "C": "A schizoid personality disorder.", "D": "A disorder of depersonalization.", "E": "A Korsakoff syndrome." }, "Correct Answer": "A schizoid personality disorder.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1ae3c9eb-9789-428b-a7f9-30f8134dbc0f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what disorder does the individual transgress the established social norms, through fraudulent or illegal behaviors, to the weight of knowing well the moral and legal sense of his actions but not putting them into practice ?:", "Options": { "A": "The delusional disorder.", "B": "The Kleine-Levin syndrome.", "C": "Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.", "D": "The antisocial personality disorder.", "E": "Bipolar disorder type II." }, "Correct Answer": "The antisocial personality disorder.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "219b1c09-92f5-46d9-92db-d29c54087d90", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which personality disorder can the individual have unfounded and recurrent suspicions about the fidelity of the couple, as well as having doubts about the loyalty or honesty of the friends or acquaintances ?:", "Options": { "A": "In the celotypic personality disorder.", "B": "In delusional personality disorder.", "C": "In the dependent personality disorder.", "D": "In the paranoid personality disorder.", "E": "In narcissistic personality disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "In the paranoid personality disorder.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6e0de343-684a-402d-8800-0a1f3f660da9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The symptoms of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations describe:", "Options": { "A": "Simple schizophrenia", "B": "Refractory insomnia.", "C": "Narcolepsy", "D": "The conversion disorder.", "E": "Cryptoamnesia" }, "Correct Answer": "Narcolepsy", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9578856c-40f6-465c-b8a8-56996498dfb9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The interruption of the naso-oral airflow accompanied by muscular respiratory efforts that are not sufficient to open the upper airways, constitutes:", "Options": { "A": "The main side effect of electroshock.", "B": "A symptom of the heroin withdrawal syndrome.", "C": "An effect of the amnestic syndrome.", "D": "The apneic episode", "E": "The acute phase of social phobia." }, "Correct Answer": "The apneic episode", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "acf9309d-ae16-4bbd-97cd-c40546da2835", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The central feature of phobic disorders is:", "Options": { "A": "Fear but not avoidance of the situation.", "B": "The avoidance of the situation, but not the fear of it.", "C": "That fear and avoidance are associated with more or less specific stimuli.", "D": "That fear is not associated with specific stimuli.", "E": "That the adult who suffers from this disorder is not aware that his fear is excessive and irrational." }, "Correct Answer": "That fear and avoidance are associated with more or less specific stimuli.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0d8cd800-54ab-4c87-8b76-d6ac1ab640ba", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "A general pattern of social and interpersonal deficits associated with acute distress and a reduced capacity for personal relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and behavioral eccentricities, beginning at the beginning of adulthood, refers to a personality disorder:", "Options": { "A": "Schizoid.", "B": "Schizotypic", "C": "Antisocial.", "D": "Limit.", "E": "Paranoid" }, "Correct Answer": "Schizotypic", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f4745c9d-a348-45f4-9fb1-228e77354c9c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The anxiety disorder that according to studies with monozygotic and dizygotic twins seems less influenced by genetic factors is:", "Options": { "A": "The generalized anxiety.", "B": "Panic disorder (or distress)", "C": "The phobias", "D": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder", "E": "Factitious disorder" }, "Correct Answer": "The generalized anxiety.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "71d1b6a4-4721-43ec-93ce-909ab9118547", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the manifestations or clinical subtypes is more frequent in the case of obsessive-compulsive disorder:", "Options": { "A": "Verification compulsions.", "B": "The obsessive slowness (perform activities such as dressing or showering in an obsessively slow manner).", "C": "The compulsions of cleaning / washing.", "D": "The compulsions of touching (for example, all corners).", "E": "The compulsions referred to religion (especially pray)." }, "Correct Answer": "The compulsions of cleaning / washing.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "be4e2c9b-5e0b-4a20-9ff3-21e3a02944a9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In obsessive-compulsive disorder the compulsions:", "Options": { "A": "They do not cause discomfort to the individual.", "B": "They do not take long to complete (less than an hour a day).", "C": "These are behaviors or mental acts that are realistically connected to the objective of neutralizing the feared situation.", "D": "They are behaviors to mental acts whose objective is to prevent or reduce anxiety.", "E": "They are independent of the type of obsession suffered." }, "Correct Answer": "They are behaviors to mental acts whose objective is to prevent or reduce anxiety.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f5434285-36e2-440d-87f5-146264afed31", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term \"Pseudociesis\" refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The sensation of pain in a limb that has been amputated.", "B": "The vision would imagine of religious or demonic figures.", "C": "The difficulty in pronouncing certain words.", "D": "An almost constant sensation of tingling throughout the body.", "E": "The false belief of being pregnant, associated with signs such as nausea and increased abdomen." }, "Correct Answer": "The false belief of being pregnant, associated with signs such as nausea and increased abdomen.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3be4a442-9337-4ca5-b2d2-5a4e69e0f6b9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The theory of \"the incubation of anxiety\" of H.J. Eysenck, tries to explain, above all, the factors:", "Options": { "A": "Precipitants of anxiety.", "B": "Predisposing to anxiety.", "C": "Of maintenance of anxiety.", "D": "Physiological of anxiety.", "E": "Environmental anxiety." }, "Correct Answer": "Of maintenance of anxiety.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "579fb598-58d1-407e-818c-06627c387c09", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Social phobia is a problem:", "Options": { "A": "Infrequent in the general population (less than 1%).", "B": "More frequent among the male population than in the female population.", "C": "More frequent among the female population than the male population.", "D": "That is given equally in both sexes.", "E": "More frequent after the 25 years than before that age." }, "Correct Answer": "More frequent among the female population than the male population.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "73db2bcc-583c-47c2-92b6-e0cd641d4e9f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the latest editions of the DSM, to make a diagnosis of \"brief psychotic disorder\":", "Options": { "A": "The presence of both delusions and hallucinations is required.", "B": "The presence of delusions is required, but not hallucinations.", "C": "It is required that the disorder be explained as a side effect of a major depressive or bipolar disorder.", "D": "The duration of the episode must be more than one month and less than six.", "E": "The duration of the episode is at least one day, but less than one month." }, "Correct Answer": "The duration of the episode is at least one day, but less than one month.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "98d3c915-7957-4d0e-b785-6c1eaa1fa5a2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The diagnosis of delusional disorder of the \"erotomaniac\" type is applied when the central issue:", "Options": { "A": "Of the hallucinations, it is erotic.", "B": "Of the delusions, is that another person is in love with the patient in question.", "C": "Delusions are jealousy.", "D": "Of the hallucinations, it implies bodily functions or sensations.", "E": "Of delusions, it involves bodily functions or sensations." }, "Correct Answer": "Of the delusions, is that another person is in love with the patient in question.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "431f811e-8fe3-4463-84ac-ce20260d4ae9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out which of the following is more clearly a positive symptom of schizophrenia:", "Options": { "A": "The flat or dull affection.", "B": "The poverty of language.", "C": "The associability.", "D": "Hallucinations", "E": "The bulimia." }, "Correct Answer": "Hallucinations", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c8161198-ce20-4556-979f-669d408f7692", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The epidemiology of schizophrenia reflects that:", "Options": { "A": "0.1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 50% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia.", "B": "1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 10% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia.", "C": "3% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it.", "D": "5% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it.", "E": "Epidemiology varies between 5% and 10% according to cultures." }, "Correct Answer": "1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 10% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bebbec8f-37e7-450d-aa04-9ae5e8ab2af9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the main diagnostic characteristic of a Bipolar I Disorder ?:", "Options": { "A": "A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania.", "B": "A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania or hypomania.", "C": "A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of hypomania.", "D": "A disorder in which cycles of mania and psychosis alternate.", "E": "A disorder in which cycles of hypomania and depression alternate." }, "Correct Answer": "A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ff7ac43d-eb5e-4b2d-9d43-9a92e683e043", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "How is the recovery of depression operationalized? (eg, Thase, 2003, APA, 2000):", "Options": { "A": "Reduction of more than 50% of symptoms from the baseline.", "B": "Reduction of symptoms by more than 75% from the baseline.", "C": "A score greater than 70 on the Global Activity Assessment Scale (EEAG).", "D": "Cessation of significant symptoms maintained for at least 6 months and a return to normal functioning.", "E": "Cessation of significant symptoms for at least the last two months." }, "Correct Answer": "Cessation of significant symptoms maintained for at least 6 months and a return to normal functioning.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "086e09fe-ddce-40f7-9290-90c1e9f79eae", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is correct regarding the epidemiology of mood disorders ?:", "Options": { "A": "Bipolar disorders account for 25-30% of all mood disorders.", "B": "The average duration of a depressive episode is usually about 2-3 months.", "C": "The percentage of relapses of depression throughout life is estimated at 75%.", "D": "The risk of suicide in depressive disorder is greater than bipolar disorder.", "E": "50% or more of the history of bipolar disorder is found in the families of patients with depression." }, "Correct Answer": "The percentage of relapses of depression throughout life is estimated at 75%.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "67c8ef2d-fb65-4c4a-b3e3-97db34ddf517", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the factor, among the following, that has shown a greater ability to predict a bipolar disorder ?:", "Options": { "A": "Have a serious personality disorder", "B": "Be under 24 years old and be male.", "C": "Pregnancy.", "D": "Consumption of alcohol and / or substances.", "E": "Having a family history of having suffered the disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Having a family history of having suffered the disorder.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "52b9a24e-45fb-422d-9adf-6dbe516fddbd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the definition of a fast cycler ?:", "Options": { "A": "The presence of at least four episodes of mood (depressive, manic, or hypomanic) in a period of 12 months.", "B": "The presence of at least 6 episodes of mood in a period of 6 months.", "C": "The change from one mood episode to another in a period less than 48 hours.", "D": "The presence of more than two episodes of mania or hypomania detectable in a month.", "E": "Patients with Bipolar Disorder I or II with extreme hyperreactivity to minimal stressors." }, "Correct Answer": "The presence of at least four episodes of mood (depressive, manic, or hypomanic) in a period of 12 months.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d0c1ccec-cb20-481a-a454-4734096dffd1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The concept of latent scheme in the cognitive theory of depression by Aaron Beck means that they are cognitive schemes:", "Options": { "A": "Of which the individual is not aware.", "B": "That directly influence the mood in a continuous but subtle way.", "C": "They are not permanently activated in vulnerable individuals and are activated only in the face of specific stressors.", "D": "They are active permanently but with an intensity that increases in each relapse or recurrence.", "E": "That do not require mental effort for its activation." }, "Correct Answer": "They are not permanently activated in vulnerable individuals and are activated only in the face of specific stressors.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "15348422-6d5d-4ff7-a6cb-f5ed78d48141", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The state of adaptation characterized by the diminution of the response to the same amount of drug or the need for a higher dose to cause the same degree of pharmacological effect, defines:", "Options": { "A": "The adaptation to a drug.", "B": "The route of administration.", "C": "Intoxication", "D": "Tolerance to a drug", "E": "Addictive behavior" }, "Correct Answer": "Tolerance to a drug", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8a8567cd-c921-4e77-87c8-7386908627ae", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the results studies, when the Exposure technique is being applied, it must be taken into account that massive and prolonged exposure produces:", "Options": { "A": "Worst immediate results than spaced exposure.", "B": "Better immediate results than exposure spaced.", "C": "There are no differences in results regarding the type of exposure.", "D": "Worst immediate results if done in more than a day.", "E": "Best immediate results only in patients with depression." }, "Correct Answer": "Better immediate results than exposure spaced.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7c706cf3-a43c-43b1-9ce7-34315b3ad770", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the main concepts of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is:", "Options": { "A": "The relativization of the context.", "B": "The underlying reason.", "C": "The experiential avoidance.", "D": "The resistance to change.", "E": "Emotional vulnerability" }, "Correct Answer": "The experiential avoidance.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ba9cc510-0a4f-4e51-9955-4a44a535c410", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the therapeutic objective of Covert Sensitization ?:", "Options": { "A": "Develop an attraction response to a stimulus that was previously a source of aversion.", "B": "Increase the tolerance to an aversive stimulus and reduce the emotional activation it produces.", "C": "Postpone immediate positive reinforcers of undesirable behaviors.", "D": "Develop an aversion response to a stimulus that was previously a source of attraction.", "E": "Mentally reinforce successful trials aimed at achieving objective behavior." }, "Correct Answer": "Develop an aversion response to a stimulus that was previously a source of attraction.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f7cbc7d2-e563-46d7-9cfa-abc4816d0184", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In Beck Cognitive Therapy, automatic thoughts are considered:", "Options": { "A": "A scheme.", "B": "A cognitive process", "C": "An action guide", "D": "An interference", "E": "A cognitive product." }, "Correct Answer": "A cognitive product.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8d63eb4a-7f8b-47fd-8b58-dd2fd5f16ac0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following processes would be responsible for the results that are achieved through mindfulness meditation ?:", "Options": { "A": "Change the contents of the mind.", "B": "Change the relationship with the contents of the mind.", "C": "Remove the spectator's role from the contents of the mind.", "D": "Judging the contents of the mind.", "E": "Merge with the contents of the mind." }, "Correct Answer": "Change the relationship with the contents of the mind.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5079cc84-5237-42cd-a902-6992e6f13eb0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The operative technique called \"differential reinforcement of other behaviors\" is a usual procedure for:", "Options": { "A": "Establish new behaviors.", "B": "Punish unwanted behavior.", "C": "Eliminate or reduce behaviors.", "D": "Generate psychological stress due to incompatibility between behaviors.", "E": "Extinguish irrational beliefs." }, "Correct Answer": "Eliminate or reduce behaviors.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cf5656f8-adb5-422c-9c32-1156cdb13153", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the techniques most used in Beck's Cognitive Therapy to identify or detect cognitive schemes is:", "Options": { "A": "The technique of the descending arrow.", "B": "To promote a new image.", "C": "The repetition of goals.", "D": "The self-instructions", "E": "The behavioral experiment." }, "Correct Answer": "The technique of the descending arrow.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "adbbf1c7-d061-4724-a0ad-a0d2852bd3af", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to Kazdin, what is the meaning of the significant increase in the intensity or frequency of a behavior when an extinction program is applied to said behavior ?:", "Options": { "A": "Burst of extinction.", "B": "Spontaneous recovery", "C": "Graduation of extinction.", "D": "Efficacy of extinction.", "E": "Positive punishment" }, "Correct Answer": "Burst of extinction.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "df4fc983-4f58-4891-889a-301e71657f9c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In its origins, the technique of Systematic Desensitization was explained from:", "Options": { "A": "Operant conditioning.", "B": "Conditioning in a single trial.", "C": "Classical conditioning.", "D": "Vicar conditioning.", "E": "Instrumental conditioning." }, "Correct Answer": "Classical conditioning.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "35a1ac51-24f9-4682-a55c-866378d54dd7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Humanistic existential and phenomenological models are characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Its emphasis on the origin of symptoms in the patient's childhood.", "B": "To converge their therapeutic approaches in the Father-Adult-Child conceptual scheme derived from bioenergetics.", "C": "His emphasis on immediate experience and the \"here and now\".", "D": "The reluctance to believe that the client's perspective has any use.", "E": "An atomized conception of the human being." }, "Correct Answer": "His emphasis on immediate experience and the \"here and now\".", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "70179fb0-fd21-46c5-ad47-c27245181c24", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The research strategy in psychotherapy consisting of comparing all the components of one treatment with another in which one of the components of said treatment is eliminated, is known as:", "Options": { "A": "Unique case design.", "B": "Dismantling.", "C": "Process study", "D": "Standardization of treatments.", "E": "Placebo design" }, "Correct Answer": "Dismantling.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "290f9e61-2187-4c00-8543-066e7e868cc6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What system school characterizes the maxim \"The solution is the problem\"? :", "Options": { "A": "The structural school.", "B": "The psychodramatic school.", "C": "The interactive school of the Mental Research Institute (MRI).", "D": "The strategic school.", "E": "The school of Milan." }, "Correct Answer": "The interactive school of the Mental Research Institute (MRI).", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0a71b5fc-c5df-48a3-918a-8fa4f273d3ff", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In studies that use meta-analysis for the systematic review of the results of psychotherapies, which is the most used dependent variable? :", "Options": { "A": "The number of depressive symptoms.", "B": "The size of the effect.", "C": "The systematized observation of the therapist.", "D": "The number of patients that has been cured.", "E": "The expectations of the patient." }, "Correct Answer": "The size of the effect.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bb63c579-0418-45b9-b9aa-d2814d8f9dc2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the correct statement about the notion of \"identified patient\" ?:", "Options": { "A": "Formulated by psychoanalysis, it reflects the idea that what needs to be changed are the patterns of interaction in the family.", "B": "It refers to the person requesting the help or treatment.", "C": "It describes a common situation in which patients identify with their father.", "D": "Equivalent to the notion of countertransference.", "E": "It reflects the idea that symptoms are expressions of a dysfunctional system." }, "Correct Answer": "It reflects the idea that symptoms are expressions of a dysfunctional system.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "784d6f4d-ff3f-4de0-addf-e3946416aead", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the correct statement about paradoxical interventions ?:", "Options": { "A": "They can include the prescription of no change.", "B": "They consist in discussing with the patient the paradoxical attitude with respect to change.", "C": "Its origin is Systemic Therapy.", "D": "They have been included by psychodynamic psychotherapy to achieve greater brevity.", "E": "They are contraindicated in cases of resistance." }, "Correct Answer": "They can include the prescription of no change.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "89053c17-812b-44d4-804f-f831cfa398b9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What principle or attitude should govern in the \"generation of alternative solutions\" phase of Problem Solving Therapy ?:", "Options": { "A": "The principle of quantity.", "B": "The judicious evaluation of each alternative.", "C": "The transfer of the patient.", "D": "The expected utility.", "E": "The cost / benefit analysis." }, "Correct Answer": "The principle of quantity.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c9534121-ee59-42e3-a71f-ecaf0db8d5c7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the approach proposed by the relationship model between therapist and client as expert to expert ?:", "Options": { "A": "The behavioral model.", "B": "The constructivist perspective", "C": "The psychoanalysis.", "D": "The strategic school.", "E": "The therapy centered on the client." }, "Correct Answer": "The constructivist perspective", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "399f93cb-6331-4485-ba89-14f090119698", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the context of the analysis of the factors that influence the outcome of psychotherapy, state which of the following can be considered a specific (technical) factor (versus other types of factors, such as, for example, extra-therapeutic change, common factors):", "Options": { "A": "Placebo effect.", "B": "Promote successful experiences in the course of therapy.", "C": "Establishment of a relationship of trust.", "D": "Use of empathy.", "E": "The economy of chips." }, "Correct Answer": "The economy of chips.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "54b9e6d0-7706-42c9-9a39-d5f84ef3c457", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the approach that studies self-concept through polarities ?:", "Options": { "A": "The transactional analysis.", "B": "Aversive therapy.", "C": "Self-control", "D": "Gestalt therapy.", "E": "The concealed conditioning." }, "Correct Answer": "Gestalt therapy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2d2018b1-2314-41af-9a2e-b57d5900ca8c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the basic components that usually include all Social Skills Training programs is:", "Options": { "A": "Rational Emotive Imagination.", "B": "Control techniques stimulate.", "C": "Perspective shot", "D": "Behavior test.", "E": "Contracts of contingencies." }, "Correct Answer": "Behavior test.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b78c48b0-837d-4242-9ac1-59387e2a8505", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out which of the following statements, regarding night terrors in childhood, is correct:", "Options": { "A": "Usually the episode occurs in the last third of the night's sleep.", "B": "Usually, the child remembers the episode.", "C": "The symptoms show the existence of a somatic disorder.", "D": "There is a relative lack of response to other people's attempts to awaken it.", "E": "The subject has a quick access to the orientation and alert." }, "Correct Answer": "There is a relative lack of response to other people's attempts to awaken it.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7bdefba4-5d3f-4bea-9e23-efeb93c60552", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following statements is correct regarding depression:", "Options": { "A": "In childhood, there is a lower prevalence of dysthymia than of major depression.", "B": "The prevalence of dysthymia in childhood is higher in girls than in boys.", "C": "Anhedonia is a minor symptom of depression in childhood and adolescence.", "D": "Neuroendocrine abnormalities are one of the most important internal factors in the genesis of childhood depression.", "E": "The prevalence of bipolar disorders is lower in childhood than in adulthood." }, "Correct Answer": "The prevalence of bipolar disorders is lower in childhood than in adulthood.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "84615b6f-5c7b-4afe-b1aa-fc63be1ac681", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The disorder characterized by a behavioral pattern that violates the basic rights of others or the main rules or social rules of the subject's age is called:", "Options": { "A": "Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity.", "B": "Defiant negativist disorder", "C": "Dissocial disorder.", "D": "Generalized development issue.", "E": "Learning disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Dissocial disorder.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f09a0801-3100-4cfa-bdee-572ee055aca7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With which of the following disorders does nocturnal enuresis have a higher comorbidity ?:", "Options": { "A": "Nightmares.", "B": "Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity.", "C": "Insomnia.", "D": "Night Bruxism.", "E": "Night terrors." }, "Correct Answer": "Night terrors.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "4a2a60f8-50b1-4c63-a21f-b50c66589f22", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What parasomnia is most common in childhood ?:", "Options": { "A": "Night terrors.", "B": "Nightmares.", "C": "REM sleep behavior disorder.", "D": "Restless legs syndrome.", "E": "Somnambulism." }, "Correct Answer": "Nightmares.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5e563eac-7b68-41ee-a1f0-1a50b1e54e76", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In what phase or phases of the dream are the night terrors ?:", "Options": { "A": "In the phases of deep slow sleep (phases 3 and 4).", "B": "In phase 2", "C": "In REM sleep.", "D": "In phase 1", "E": "They can occur indistinctly at any stage of the dream." }, "Correct Answer": "In the phases of deep slow sleep (phases 3 and 4).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8ec92a98-5e77-400e-b056-e497432228a4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Retentive encopresis is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Absence of constipation", "B": "Being significantly more frequent than non-retentive encopresis.", "C": "Decreased rectal accommodation.", "D": "Being associated with alterations in the perception of rectal distension.", "E": "Decrease in the contractile capacity of the external anal sphincter." }, "Correct Answer": "Being significantly more frequent than non-retentive encopresis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0b5139ae-393b-4828-8916-8e6b535b8993", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out which of the following is a characteristic of childhood phobias:", "Options": { "A": "They can not be easily eliminated.", "B": "They are specific to a certain age.", "C": "They are short-lived.", "D": "They do not interfere with the child's daily life.", "E": "They are related to objectively dangerous stimuli." }, "Correct Answer": "They can not be easily eliminated.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c0ecbced-b4d9-465f-b73f-61f51d073213", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hypokalemia is a physiological symptom that can typically occur:", "Options": { "A": "In sleep disorders.", "B": "In addictions.", "C": "In anorexia nervosa.", "D": "In bulimia but not in anorexia nervosa.", "E": "In disorders of attention deficit and disturbing behavior." }, "Correct Answer": "In anorexia nervosa.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "55e3f96e-20ef-4505-8d6b-f34f58df97ce", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Childhood disintegrative disorder is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "A seemingly normal development during at least the first two years of life.", "B": "Present only in the female sex.", "C": "Do not affect the intellectual capacity of people who suffer from it.", "D": "Does not affect the communication skills of the person.", "E": "A developmental delay evident from birth." }, "Correct Answer": "A seemingly normal development during at least the first two years of life.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "09360261-7f3f-4102-8d16-debb01ea3121", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the fundamental goal of cognitive therapy for auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia ?:", "Options": { "A": "Completely eliminate the appearance of auditory hallucinations.", "B": "Avoid listening to hallucinations and avoid situations that provoke them.", "C": "Getting no one to realize that the person is having hallucinations.", "D": "Reduce beliefs about omnipotence, malevolence, benevolence, and obedience, regarding voices.", "E": "Modify the beliefs they have about schizophrenia and medication." }, "Correct Answer": "Reduce beliefs about omnipotence, malevolence, benevolence, and obedience, regarding voices.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6443b17a-69c0-47f7-b520-153ea2508348", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The use of psychoeducation in schizophrenia now adopts a prosthetic criterion instead of issuing disqualification judgments. What goal should psychoeducation be set to follow this principle ?:", "Options": { "A": "It is intended that the person discovers everything that he will never be able to do due to his abilities.", "B": "The person is instructed to avoid making decisions for himself because his disorder prevents him from doing so.", "C": "It is intended that the person discover the best way to make their life but accepting and taking into account their abilities.", "D": "He tries to concentrate all his efforts is his strengths and ignore his disabilities.", "E": "The person is instructed about the fact that he can only achieve his goals if he takes the medication and does psychotherapy." }, "Correct Answer": "It is intended that the person discover the best way to make their life but accepting and taking into account their abilities.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e8279a4f-d95f-40d0-a358-0034525dafb0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Patients with schizophrenia usually present the so-called interactive imbalance that is expressed in the conversation with an exaggerated response latency, minimal speech or lack of participation in it. What is the most appropriate method to evaluate the patient and decide if it is convenient to perform a Social skills training ?:", "Options": { "A": "Through scales of intelligence.", "B": "Through self-report techniques: scales of social functioning.", "C": "By measuring electrodermal activity and other psychophysiological measures.", "D": "Through behavioral testing in simulated situations.", "E": "Through questionnaires and inventories of personality traits." }, "Correct Answer": "Through behavioral testing in simulated situations.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d52e6252-5f1e-4140-8010-4f6bd3d793ec", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The focus therapy for auditory hallucinations of Betall, Haddock and Slade (1994) uses different therapeutic strategies. Which of the following options is NOT considered in the targeting therapy model ?:", "Options": { "A": "The patient is asked to fix and describe the physical characteristics of their voices (for example, tone, intensity, location).", "B": "The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of hallucinations and current concerns.", "C": "The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of the hallucinations and their life experiences.", "D": "The patient is asked to neutralize the content of their voices by focusing on their physiological proprioceptive sensations.", "E": "You are asked to observe your reactions to the voices and, in particular, to your beliefs about them." }, "Correct Answer": "The patient is asked to neutralize the content of their voices by focusing on their physiological proprioceptive sensations.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "eb6c0c0a-4dde-4cd1-b3cc-880a95c7d569", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The evaluation of the emotion expressed is useful in the context of the psychological treatment of schizophrenia. But from what sphere is the evaluation of the expressed emotion usually part ?:", "Options": { "A": "Of the evaluation of symptoms.", "B": "From the evaluation of the insight.", "C": "Of the cognitive evaluation.", "D": "Of the family evaluation.", "E": "Of the rational-emotive evaluation." }, "Correct Answer": "Of the family evaluation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d81ae356-246d-4467-97aa-3e3e8ae41505", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The integral psychological therapy (IPT) of Brenner et al. (1992) consists of different subprograms. Which of these subprograms does NOT belong to such therapy ?:", "Options": { "A": "Cognitive differentiation", "B": "Solution of interpersonal problems.", "C": "Social perception.", "D": "Social skills.", "E": "Management and control of stress." }, "Correct Answer": "Management and control of stress.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d2596d3d-ba77-4e2f-9313-c4cc2eb42207", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the most important and innovative contributions of behavioral dialectic therapy in the treatment of borderline personality disorder (BPD) is:", "Options": { "A": "The integration of the psychodynamic perspective and the behavioral perspective.", "B": "The incorporation of group therapy.", "C": "The introduction of written material for patients to support therapy.", "D": "The emphasis on acceptance and validation as a prerequisite for achieving change.", "E": "The treatment of patients with BPD in the context of family therapy." }, "Correct Answer": "The emphasis on acceptance and validation as a prerequisite for achieving change.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bb00a598-f94f-4b5b-a9c9-83bce5e696f8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The therapeutic model that introduces mindfulness training as part of the therapeutic strategies to be used for personality disorders is:", "Options": { "A": "Dialectical behavioral therapy.", "B": "Interpersonal therapy", "C": "Mentalization therapy", "D": "The iconic therapy.", "E": "Cognitive therapy" }, "Correct Answer": "Dialectical behavioral therapy.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a7589137-8580-43e3-b7f5-7038d723df4a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Benjamin's Reconstructive Interpersonal Therapy includes as one of the most relevant aspects in the treatment of personality disorders:", "Options": { "A": "Cognitive therapy", "B": "Group therapy", "C": "Exposure therapy", "D": "The solution of emotional problems.", "E": "The structural analysis of social behavior." }, "Correct Answer": "The structural analysis of social behavior.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6c34af94-65f3-4b20-b866-1c7b6e83b5c9", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder:", "Options": { "A": "The treatment program with the most empirical support for this disorder is therapy based on mentalization.", "B": "Therapeutic strategies that are used for schizophrenia may be useful, given the remarkable relationship between two clinical entities.", "C": "The focus of treatment is the impulsivity characteristic of this disorder.", "D": "The program that has received the most empirical support for this disorder is behavioral dialectical therapy.", "E": "For the treatment of this disorder therapeutic strategies that apply to obsessive-compulsive disorder are used." }, "Correct Answer": "Therapeutic strategies that are used for schizophrenia may be useful, given the remarkable relationship between two clinical entities.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3eb26b48-964f-441c-8257-742d7af725b6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Along with Behavioral Cognitive Therapy, what other therapeutic approach has consistently shown to be an effective treatment for bulimia nervosa ?:", "Options": { "A": "Interpersonal psychotherapy", "B": "Mentalization therapy", "C": "The exposure therapy in imagination.", "D": "The economy of chips.", "E": "The therapy of schemes." }, "Correct Answer": "Interpersonal psychotherapy", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "137d660b-bec9-498d-8d79-3f5a72795116", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding Nervous Anorexia, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "Even if the weight is stabilized, the patients still present a considerable psychopathology.", "B": "The suicide rate is 15%.", "C": "The most frequent comorbid symptoms are obsessive.", "D": "The purgatives have less psychopathological severity than the restrictive ones.", "E": "The psychopharmacological treatment of choice is the pharmacological treatment by itself." }, "Correct Answer": "Even if the weight is stabilized, the patients still present a considerable psychopathology.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c712a6a4-4c0f-40ba-aa02-68254965b659", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the cognitive-educational program of Barsky and collaborators for the treatment of hypochondria ?:", "Options": { "A": "In exposing themselves to the vision of photographs or videos about illnesses and visits to patients and hospitals.", "B": "In learning about the perception of physical symptoms and about the psychological factors that amplify somatic discomfort.", "C": "In becoming aware of the role of somatic symptoms as mechanisms of manifestation of underlying conflicts.", "D": "In identifying family functioning patterns that reinforce symptomatic behavior.", "E": "In repeatedly providing reassuring medical explanations about physical symptoms." }, "Correct Answer": "In learning about the perception of physical symptoms and about the psychological factors that amplify somatic discomfort.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6d1e4eab-1313-409a-9fcc-facbc753e5c7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What procedure is part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for hypochondria proposed by Warwick and Salkovskis ?:", "Options": { "A": "The systematic desensitization in imagination to extinguish the fear of interoceptive sensations.", "B": "The stopping of thought to block intrusive thoughts about the disease.", "C": "The training in mindfulness to reduce the appearance of annoying bodily sensations.", "D": "The prevention of response to reduce body checking behaviors and search for reassuring information.", "E": "The resolution of the underlying conflicts related to guilt and dependency needs." }, "Correct Answer": "The prevention of response to reduce body checking behaviors and search for reassuring information.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c7cd4df3-c324-4c32-8f4d-6ed9c3d54c61", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which procedure is NOT part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for body dysmorphic disorder of Rosen et al ?:", "Options": { "A": "Psychoeducation", "B": "Exposition.", "C": "Training in problem solving.", "D": "Cognitive restructuring.", "E": "Response prevention." }, "Correct Answer": "Training in problem solving.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b6e96a75-989a-4598-b87a-113000caae64", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which authors is the most well-known relapse prevention model with good empirical support in alcoholism ?:", "Options": { "A": "Marlatt and Gordon.", "B": "Miller and Rollnick.", "C": "Beck and Ellis.", "D": "Sobell and Sobell.", "E": "Hunt and Arzin." }, "Correct Answer": "Marlatt and Gordon.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2edfd187-1569-4da7-a5c2-ed651c19852b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The technique called \"Smoking signaled\" is a treatment for the control of cigarette consumption that is based on:", "Options": { "A": "A self-control procedure.", "B": "The third generation therapies.", "C": "The aversive techniques.", "D": "Hypnosis", "E": "Mindfulness strategies." }, "Correct Answer": "A self-control procedure.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b673fe2f-105d-4396-a982-3d9e402b1e91", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following formal aspects of the therapeutic style are part of the motivational interview ?:", "Options": { "A": "Take a directive role during therapy.", "B": "Promote empathy.", "C": "Use coercive strategies.", "D": "Use diagnostic labels.", "E": "Favor discussions to activate resistances." }, "Correct Answer": "Promote empathy.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e075bd35-154c-4481-8930-a8514b8ed104", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mark the treatment for depression that is NOT considered \"well established,\" because it lacks sufficient empirical support, according to the American Psychological Association:", "Options": { "A": "Problem solving therapy.", "B": "Self-control therapy", "C": "Cognitive therapy", "D": "Short psychodynamic therapy.", "E": "Training in social skills." }, "Correct Answer": "Short psychodynamic therapy.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e122a6dd-cd24-4988-b56e-59f776d24fc0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out which of the following is NOT one of the \"problem areas\" on which the \"Interpersonal Therapy\" of depression explicitly focuses:", "Options": { "A": "The duel.", "B": "Family traumatic events.", "C": "The interpersonal disputes.", "D": "The role transition.", "E": "The interpersonal deficits." }, "Correct Answer": "Family traumatic events.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "ac510046-954f-46f4-b291-0c224f24c75c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Problem Solving Therapy for depression includes within its proposals:", "Options": { "A": "Train relaxation responses in the patient as a means to improve reflection and the search for solutions.", "B": "Encourage the patient to take positive actions, whatever they may be, even if they are not aimed at solving any specific problem.", "C": "Train social skills strategies that help solve important problems.", "D": "Look for problems in your childhood and adolescence that may be having an impact on your current depression.", "E": "Minimize the impact of depressive symptoms on attempts to solve." }, "Correct Answer": "Minimize the impact of depressive symptoms on attempts to solve.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f191b9e5-bfb9-4ff9-ac38-b734408d054a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to effective psychological treatments for depression, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "They are more expensive treatments (in terms of efficiency) than psychotropic drugs.", "B": "They have been proposed by the NICE guide (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence) as the second treatment of choice for those cases in which the drugs have not been shown to be effective.", "C": "In general, those psychological treatments that use active methodologies, limited in time and structured, tend to be more effective.", "D": "They generate a similar number of dropouts than pharmacological therapy.", "E": "They generate a higher level of stigma than pharmacological therapies." }, "Correct Answer": "In general, those psychological treatments that use active methodologies, limited in time and structured, tend to be more effective.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bc1c1b11-206d-4364-b1a6-26e32bd6d7f8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer regarding therapy for Rehm's depression:", "Options": { "A": "It focuses on three processes: self-tracking, self-esteem and self-reinforcement.", "B": "It has no empirical evidence to be considered well-established treatment.", "C": "Each of its components separately have been shown to be as effective as the complete treatment.", "D": "It presents a strong cognitive component.", "E": "It has been shown superior to interpersonal therapy and problem solving." }, "Correct Answer": "Each of its components separately have been shown to be as effective as the complete treatment.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "65626ebd-e7e4-4d23-ab44-06e3d09e9a4f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the treatment of depression and, in particular, the comparative efficacy between psychological treatments (especially cognitive-behavioral therapy) and pharmacological treatments, it can be stated that, in general:", "Options": { "A": "Drugs for depression are more effective in patients with severe depression than psychological treatments.", "B": "Drugs for depression provide a faster improvement response than psychological treatments.", "C": "Drugs for depression have a long-term relapse prevention effect similar to psychological treatments.", "D": "Drugs for depression have a similar level of side effects as psychological treatments.", "E": "The drugs for depression make psychological therapy more effective compared to its application without medication." }, "Correct Answer": "Drugs for depression provide a faster improvement response than psychological treatments.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4e76a7ab-d675-4968-862a-98912ce88e5f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the pharmacological treatment for depression, it can be stated that:", "Options": { "A": "The side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), such as fluoxetine, are zero.", "B": "Treatments with SSRIs are more effective than those using cyclic antidepressants.", "C": "In general, pharmacological treatments should not be combined with psychological treatments.", "D": "They have been shown to be effective for 50% of patients, while the efficacy of placebo would be of the order of 30%.", "E": "Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) have been shown to be superior to other antidepressants in the treatment of severe depression." }, "Correct Answer": "They have been shown to be effective for 50% of patients, while the efficacy of placebo would be of the order of 30%.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "7a47d19b-33f6-4bbb-9670-fed171ce09d4", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the intervention in the underlying beliefs (or basic assumptions or dysfunctional attitudes) of patients with depression, point out the FALSE OPTION:", "Options": { "A": "They are an essential part of the cognitive treatments for depression proposed by Aaron Beck.", "B": "To intervene on these beliefs it is necessary to inquire about them with techniques such as the descendant arrow or Socratic dialogue.", "C": "The theory proposed by Beck states that if these underlying beliefs are not treated, these cognitive structures will remain dormant, favoring subsequent relapses.", "D": "The therapy proposed by Beck states that, in order to modify these beliefs, it is crucial that the therapist enumerates all the reasons that invalidate such beliefs.", "E": "The interaction must be based on the principle of \"collaborative empiricism\"." }, "Correct Answer": "The therapy proposed by Beck states that, in order to modify these beliefs, it is crucial that the therapist enumerates all the reasons that invalidate such beliefs.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "88009dd8-1843-4358-a6d1-beafcbdafdc8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct answer. Lithium salts are used to treat:", "Options": { "A": "The affective symptoms of schizophrenia.", "B": "The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia.", "C": "As a maintenance treatment for bipolar patients with a history of mania.", "D": "Depressive episodes of bipolar disorder, but not manic episodes.", "E": "In a drug in disuse and not recommended in the current clinical guidelines." }, "Correct Answer": "As a maintenance treatment for bipolar patients with a history of mania.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1e73145b-230e-4f35-abbb-95b6d455306a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia:", "Options": { "A": "Olanzapine (Zyprexa).", "B": "Risperidone (Risperdal).", "C": "Aripiprazole (Abilify)", "D": "Clozapine (Leponex).", "E": "Venlafaxine (Dobupal, Vandral)." }, "Correct Answer": "Venlafaxine (Dobupal, Vandral).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "902bfe55-f8e4-48c9-85c6-38317d597671", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following criteria is a predictor of long-term success in exposure therapy to phobic disorders ?:", "Options": { "A": "Let the intensity of fear be intermittent.", "B": "That the phobia is of recent appearance.", "C": "That improvement occurs after the first exhibitions.", "D": "That there is previous experience of psychological treatment.", "E": "Let the patient be aware of the irravability of their fears." }, "Correct Answer": "That improvement occurs after the first exhibitions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "912a2161-1c19-4063-9ad5-30dedff0f4b2", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the training in HHSS applied to social phobia, modeling is used for the learning of certain skills. The chosen model must be:", "Options": { "A": "Very competent and keep that competition constant throughout the training.", "B": "Be relatively competent (a little more than the subject you train) and increase the competition throughout the training.", "C": "Be very competent and decrease your competence.", "D": "Being incompetent so that the patient can identify with him.", "E": "Must be a little more competent than the patient and not progress so that as the learning progresses the patient will overcome and increase their motivation." }, "Correct Answer": "Be relatively competent (a little more than the subject you train) and increase the competition throughout the training.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "876c78ec-615b-474b-b85b-61473d869fae", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "To which of the following variables have the best therapeutic results been associated in Social Phobia ?:", "Options": { "A": "Training in HHSS.", "B": "Family support.", "C": "Fulfillment of the tasks of exposure between sessions.", "D": "Previous experience in psychotherapy.", "E": "Absence of physiological symptoms." }, "Correct Answer": "Fulfillment of the tasks of exposure between sessions.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9997fcb3-b1ff-49bb-94e2-8e79df0e4d39", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the \"Installation\" phase of Shapiro's eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) technique for the treatment of post-traumatic stress? :", "Options": { "A": "Establish a solid therapeutic relationship.", "B": "Choose the objective image that represents the but aspect of trauma.", "C": "Desensitize the image.", "D": "Activate bilateral brain stimulation.", "E": "Match a positive cognition with the original image through eye movement or its alternatives." }, "Correct Answer": "Match a positive cognition with the original image through eye movement or its alternatives.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c1790886-2c3d-454b-ad04-dc5896191ed7", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what purpose do Foa and Rothbaum (1998) propose the Reformulated Narrative of Trauma in its proposed intervention in PTSD ?:", "Options": { "A": "Identify the activating stimuli of the symptoms.", "B": "Reduce the frequency of intrusive images.", "C": "Provide information that belies the beliefs related to the trauma.", "D": "Help to remember the experience so that it can be assimilated into the person's autobiographical memory.", "E": "Direct the patient's full attention from his thoughts to the external world." }, "Correct Answer": "Help to remember the experience so that it can be assimilated into the person's autobiographical memory.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a10ec532-bce8-4d8d-921c-7b9e58fb8c2b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Cognitive techniques do not seem to enhance the effect of exposure in vivo in most specific phobias, with the possible exception of:", "Options": { "A": "The claustrophobia and the phobia of heights.", "B": "Phobia to the dark.", "C": "Water phobia", "D": "Phobia to drive.", "E": "Phobia to the snakes." }, "Correct Answer": "The claustrophobia and the phobia of heights.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "db25f751-dc93-4481-aaad-9997dd842281", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The main utility of behavioral experiments in the treatment of panic disorder is:", "Options": { "A": "Exemplify the psychoeducational content.", "B": "Facilitate the acceptance of the treatment.", "C": "Test dysfunctional beliefs about the consequences of certain bodily sensations.", "D": "Demonstrate that the anxiety experienced by the patient in situations is lower than anticipated.", "E": "Model the applied practice of relaxation." }, "Correct Answer": "Test dysfunctional beliefs about the consequences of certain bodily sensations.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "49f41d4f-1ac8-4345-849c-fb13030c57fd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of these components is not common in cognitive-behavioral therapies for panic disorder ?:", "Options": { "A": "Behavioral activation", "B": "Interoceptive exposure.", "C": "Behavioral experiments", "D": "Training in breathing.", "E": "Cognitive restructuring." }, "Correct Answer": "Behavioral activation", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "8a7ee353-bde3-48b7-9505-09f64ad49f44", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what purpose do Clark and Beck (2010) propose, within the cognitive therapy of anxiety disorders, the exercises of induction of symptoms in the treatment of panic disorder ?:", "Options": { "A": "To provoke the integration of the reflective processes of higher level of cognitive processing.", "B": "To create opportunities to challenge the catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations.", "C": "To facilitate the use of self-guided meditation.", "D": "To generate new security search behaviors.", "E": "The induction of symptoms is not contemplated in the model of cognitive anxiety therapy." }, "Correct Answer": "To create opportunities to challenge the catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "43a75803-fd3c-4709-ada6-93c46bb80b5e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out which of the following guidelines belongs to the Stress Reduction Program of Kabat-Zinn (University of Massachusetts):", "Options": { "A": "Acceptance and commitment therapy.", "B": "Behavioral activation therapy.", "C": "Psychoeducation and mindfulness.", "D": "Dialectical therapy.", "E": "Therapy of common factors." }, "Correct Answer": "Psychoeducation and mindfulness.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c6dc0929-0326-4569-a242-46cfdbed3dad", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what purpose is the muscle tension technique applied in the treatment of blood phobia used ?:", "Options": { "A": "As a relaxation technique.", "B": "To divert the patient's attention from the feared stimulus.", "C": "To accelerate the habituation process.", "D": "To reduce vasovagal symptoms.", "E": "It is used in the first sessions to reduce anticipatory anxiety." }, "Correct Answer": "To reduce vasovagal symptoms.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1de17824-2f4b-43c0-860e-8174359931b6", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What name does the technique used in the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) in which the person is asked to assume that their worst fear is met, and then look for realistic solutions to it ?:", "Options": { "A": "Script of the worst scenario.", "B": "Decatastrofization.", "C": "Coping with uncertainty.", "D": "Revaluation of the threat.", "E": "Processing of meta-concern." }, "Correct Answer": "Decatastrofization.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "cf570a43-4d19-44a3-8c1e-489d6628feb3", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the main limitations of the behavioral treatment (exposure with prevention of response) of OCD is:", "Options": { "A": "His recent appearance.", "B": "The reduced efficacy compared to cognitive and pharmacological treatments.", "C": "The lack of an explanatory theoretical model.", "D": "The difficulty of application in cases of motor rituals.", "E": "The existence of a relevant percentage of patients who reject treatment because of its aversive nature." }, "Correct Answer": "The existence of a relevant percentage of patients who reject treatment because of its aversive nature.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "0e0e710d-f8a3-44c8-acf3-ec884df6e35c", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the framework of the treatment of Generalized Anxiety, we distinguish (eg, Dugas and Ladouceur, 1997) between concerns about events based on reality, in which case the patient would be trained in problem solving, and concerns about events not based on reality and highly improbable that should be addressed by employing:", "Options": { "A": "Cognitive functional exposure.", "B": "Applied relaxation", "C": "Distraction techniques.", "D": "Meditation.", "E": "Self instructions" }, "Correct Answer": "Cognitive functional exposure.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "409addb0-9ca1-4040-8b10-af4723397353", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following techniques is considered, according to the available evidence, a well-established treatment in the case of childhood phobias:", "Options": { "A": "The training in HHSS.", "B": "The emotive images.", "C": "The therapy based on the game.", "D": "Systematic desensitization through eye movements.", "E": "The practice reinforced." }, "Correct Answer": "The practice reinforced.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7f9830de-09ab-4bd4-8977-50b8d88b16b1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the INCORRECT statement about the sexual misconduct that occurs in some victims of child sexual abuse:", "Options": { "A": "It is a common problem in children who have suffered sexual abuse.", "B": "It is a symptom that constitutes a diagnostic criterion of post-traumatic stress disorder and therefore it is expected to disappear if PTSD is properly treated by techniques such as exposure.", "C": "You can work with the parents and also directly with the children.", "D": "Your treatment may include a sexual education component also in prepubertal children.", "E": "The involvement of parents includes their duty to protect and keep the child safe." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a symptom that constitutes a diagnostic criterion of post-traumatic stress disorder and therefore it is expected to disappear if PTSD is properly treated by techniques such as exposure.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "c02c11b3-1aa4-4aa1-b818-42b1558fe35f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Point out the correct statement about the parent training program created by Barkley:", "Options": { "A": "Its main objective is to improve the social and communication skills of children.", "B": "Its main objective is to improve the children's self-control skills.", "C": "Prohibits the use of any type of punishment, including time out.", "D": "One of its objectives is to reduce the conflicts that may arise in the school context.", "E": "Sessions are held with the children in parallel with those of the parents." }, "Correct Answer": "One of its objectives is to reduce the conflicts that may arise in the school context.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2b7d6b4e-6732-4fc1-b4fe-d9e96125bfdd", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "One of the following is NOT a guideline that should guide interventions in Autism Spectrum Disorders. Point out which:", "Options": { "A": "Use personalized teaching programs based on an evolutionary framework.", "B": "Intervene in a group setting to favor the acquisition of social skills.", "C": "Intervene in highly structured and predictable contexts.", "D": "Use learning procedures without mistakes.", "E": "Favor motivation." }, "Correct Answer": "Intervene in a group setting to favor the acquisition of social skills.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "510f42c9-3b44-45db-98e0-89eac371028a", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For which disorder of childhood is considered that the combination therapy (more psychological pharmacological treatment) is the most effective alternative ?:", "Options": { "A": "Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.", "B": "Subclinical depression", "C": "Enuresis", "D": "The encopresis.", "E": "Separation anxiety disorder." }, "Correct Answer": "Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9b30b388-4566-4f8f-83ab-554c06a5ed8d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what disorder of ingestion and eating behavior of childhood is it recommended to use mass practice procedures ?:", "Options": { "A": "The pica.", "B": "Bulimia nervosa.", "C": "The rumination.", "D": "Childhood anorexia", "E": "The eating disorder of childhood and childhood." }, "Correct Answer": "The rumination.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a1f3d351-14e2-4191-b32f-cc2855b0ca37", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For which of the following disorders has exposure with response prevention been used successfully:", "Options": { "A": "The encopresis.", "B": "Tourette's syndrome", "C": "ADHD with predominance of hyperactivity / impulsive.", "D": "Tobacco use in adolescence.", "E": "The shyness in childhood." }, "Correct Answer": "Tourette's syndrome", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4fd6500f-93c4-4fe7-be0c-31474f0864bf", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following options is NOT a therapeutic component of the adolescent version of Lewinsohn's \"Dealing with Depression Course\" ?:", "Options": { "A": "Self-control", "B": "The relaxation", "C": "The automodelado.", "D": "The participation of parents.", "E": "The resolution of conflicts." }, "Correct Answer": "The automodelado.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "17f3c040-1f2f-41cf-8733-54f27f6db04e", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "About the treatment of depression in children and adolescents, point out the INCORRECT statement:", "Options": { "A": "In moderate to severe depression, antidepressant medication should only be offered in combination with a simultaneous psychological therapy.", "B": "Both cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy have strong evidence of its efficacy in children who have not yet reached puberty.", "C": "Guided self-help and non-directive supportive therapy are acceptable treatment alternatives for mild depression.", "D": "The minimum duration of psychological therapy in moderate to severe depression should be at least 3 months.", "E": "Both individual and family therapy are recommended treatment alternatives for moderate to severe depression." }, "Correct Answer": "Both cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy have strong evidence of its efficacy in children who have not yet reached puberty.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "47401e80-fa90-44f7-b33e-ac1bee7ad847", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the common denominator of well-established psychological treatments for childhood phobias ?:", "Options": { "A": "The change of beliefs regarding the dangerousness of the phobic stimulus.", "B": "The induction of a feeling of relaxation or well-being in the presence of the phobic stimulus.", "C": "The interaction of the therapist with the phobic stimulus.", "D": "The use of coping self-instructions.", "E": "The gradual relationship in vivo with the phobic stimulus." }, "Correct Answer": "The gradual relationship in vivo with the phobic stimulus.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d36aac08-6f71-47c4-828e-dfaea1b3b048", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the psychological treatment of recurrent childhood nightmares:", "Options": { "A": "The parents are trained to extinguish, ignoring them, the manifestations of anxiety of the child who has suffered a nightmare.", "B": "The main objective is to ensure the physical safety of the child.", "C": "Exposure techniques and systematic desensitization are considered well-established treatments.", "D": "The technique of review in imagination is the one that has received the greatest empirical support.", "E": "There are no studies about the therapeutic efficacy of hypnosis." }, "Correct Answer": "The technique of review in imagination is the one that has received the greatest empirical support.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "43067db6-7025-4327-90e1-c917640d4e2b", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the phase described by Kübler-Ross in his theory about coping with death that is usually an initial reaction to the expectation of death ?:", "Options": { "A": "Depression.", "B": "Anger or anger", "C": "Negotiation.", "D": "Acceptance.", "E": "Negation." }, "Correct Answer": "Negation.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5bdcb32f-d11e-4563-b3b3-1fdcc15d8872", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What theoretical orientation prevailed in the first phase of Psychosomatic Medicine ?:", "Options": { "A": "Behaviorism", "B": "Psychoanalysis.", "C": "Existentialism.", "D": "Cognitivism", "E": "Systemic Psychology" }, "Correct Answer": "Psychoanalysis.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5af3f4ef-09d8-403f-9cfe-84d612455721", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What weight class corresponds to a Body Mass Index of 26 and what degree of risk does it entail for health ?:", "Options": { "A": "Normal weight and zero risk.", "B": "Overweight grade I and zero risk.", "C": "Obesity grade I and moderate risk.", "D": "Obesity grade II and high risk.", "E": "Morbid obesity and very high risk." }, "Correct Answer": "Overweight grade I and zero risk.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "308161c5-83d2-459b-955c-038cd90eed9d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of construct is evaluated by the Maslach Inventory ?:", "Options": { "A": "Illness behavior", "B": "Abnormal behavior of disease.", "C": "General Adaptation Syndrome.", "D": "Burnout.", "E": "Resistant personality" }, "Correct Answer": "Burnout.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8ddfcb9d-8e36-441a-a4ec-1799f25fe015", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which were the first authors who investigated the role that stressful life events could have on health ?:", "Options": { "A": "Mechanic", "B": "Matarazzo", "C": "Zola", "D": "Lazarus", "E": "Holmes and Rahe." }, "Correct Answer": "Holmes and Rahe.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "339cdcf9-5a33-48fb-ad2e-94c55e35c60f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "With what scope is the Theory of the Melzack Gate and Wall related ?:", "Options": { "A": "Cancer.", "B": "HIV infection", "C": "Renal problems.", "D": "Pain.", "E": "Cardiovascular disorders" }, "Correct Answer": "Pain.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "70c2bbfd-b2cf-493b-bd29-3088894f8282", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For what illness has Moorey and Greer's Adjuvant Psychological Therapy been developed ?:", "Options": { "A": "Fibromyalgia", "B": "Cancer.", "C": "Irritable colon.", "D": "Bronchial asthma.", "E": "Hypertension." }, "Correct Answer": "Cancer.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4ba1a65f-b8ea-452b-9b6d-fe62c95255bc", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What name do we give to the continuous increase of the caloric restriction that is required in the diet to continue losing weight ?:", "Options": { "A": "Soil effect of the diets.", "B": "Roof effect of the diets.", "C": "Setpoint.", "D": "Self-imposed maintenance.", "E": "Effect of resistance." }, "Correct Answer": "Soil effect of the diets.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0772af7d-4afe-4f15-88c5-bc91b69da09f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "What explanatory theoretical model of health behaviors emphasizes the importance of the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and its severity ?:", "Options": { "A": "Transheoretical model.", "B": "Reasoned Action Model.", "C": "Health Belief Model.", "D": "PRECEDE-PROCEED model.", "E": "Competition Model." }, "Correct Answer": "Health Belief Model.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c806fee8-c8c2-420c-9e52-2c6d9e3ecde8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The proportion of environmental variance due to the influences that a person receives from their family environment and that are shared by the rest of their family:", "Options": { "A": "It is the specific variance.", "B": "It is called genotypic variance.", "C": "It matches the heritability.", "D": "It is dismissed in the investigations.", "E": "It is the variance coming from the shared environment." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the variance coming from the shared environment.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "562ec111-fa6a-45d0-b2c6-84882e8c6dcf", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "In a normal distribution:", "Options": { "A": "The average of the scores is zero.", "B": "The Standard Deviation is equal to the unit.", "C": "The Average is equal to the Median.", "D": "The Media does not have to coincide with the Median.", "E": "You can not calculate Fashion." }, "Correct Answer": "The Average is equal to the Median.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "452e66d3-813e-470a-ad97-b0827c7d2bc0", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "When a person commits the \"fundamental attribution error\", he explains the behaviors that others perform based exclusively on:", "Options": { "A": "The personal characteristics", "B": "The situation.", "C": "The culture to which they belong.", "D": "The socio-economic conditions.", "E": "Chance" }, "Correct Answer": "The personal characteristics", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "a70462b8-2582-4a1c-b073-5474ecb33d0f", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The gastrointestinal system releases a peptide hormone that increases during fasting and decreases after ingestion, called:", "Options": { "A": "Leptin", "B": "Cholecystokinin", "C": "Ghrelin", "D": "Insulin.", "E": "Glycogen" }, "Correct Answer": "Ghrelin", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "03d305a2-4b3d-48b8-91d6-645317a3b0da", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "For classical automaticity theories, what characterizes automatic versus controlled processes ?:", "Options": { "A": "The automatic processes are under control of the person's intentions.", "B": "Automatic processes consume great attentional capacity.", "C": "Automatic processes process information only sequentially.", "D": "Automatic processes consume a lot of time.", "E": "Automatic processes do not have to access conscious knowledge." }, "Correct Answer": "Automatic processes do not have to access conscious knowledge.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ee5ee158-b210-4238-9429-3b7d6b2eded8", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The approach to the Psychological Evaluation from a constructivist model is characterized by the use of techniques:", "Options": { "A": "Projectives that evaluate traits.", "B": "Subjectives that evaluate meanings.", "C": "Psychometrics that evaluate constructs.", "D": "Behaviors that evaluate repertoires.", "E": "Observationals that evaluate environmental variables." }, "Correct Answer": "Subjectives that evaluate meanings.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3652909f-bf6d-4f0e-9040-64f664482406", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of inattention in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)? :", "Options": { "A": "They usually have difficulty organizing tasks and activities.", "B": "They usually answer before ending the question.", "C": "They usually have difficulty playing quietly.", "D": "They are usually stirred in their seat.", "E": "They usually interfere in the activities of others." }, "Correct Answer": "They usually have difficulty organizing tasks and activities.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6d0ff759-1d68-4f0e-9b96-aecbddbf4869", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "According to the phenomenon of social facilitation when a person develops a task poorly learned in the presence of others, the execution of said task:", "Options": { "A": "It improves slightly.", "B": "It improves substantively.", "C": "It does not change.", "D": "Gets worse.", "E": "It is not predictable." }, "Correct Answer": "Gets worse.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b2d08496-7cd2-4512-870a-ccefe5de3ab1", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hormone that facilitates the reabsorption of water by the kidneys, whose absence causes loss of large amounts of water in the urine, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Oxytocin", "B": "Vasopressin", "C": "Dopamine", "D": "Cholecystokinin", "E": "Glutamate." }, "Correct Answer": "Vasopressin", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5d9df242-9093-442f-a82c-5e0743ae723d", "topic_name": "psychology" }, { "data": { "Question": "The complexes of cobalt (III):", "Options": { "A": "They are all neutral or anionic.", "B": "They form the basis of our knowledge about the properties and reaction mechanisms of octahedral complexes.", "C": "They are usually flat-squares.", "D": "They present very fast substitution kinetics.", "E": "Almost all are prepared by replacing some ligands with others." }, "Correct Answer": "They form the basis of our knowledge about the properties and reaction mechanisms of octahedral complexes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e1771ead-75f5-4d7d-b4fc-479be75652ca", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A homogeneous reaction between ideal gases that has reached chemical equilibrium can evolve (ie, move towards the formation of more reactants or products) in the following way if this equilibrium is altered:", "Options": { "A": "If the temperature is increased at constant pressure, it will go to where more moles will be produced.", "B": "If the pressure is increased to constant temperature it will go to where the volume is higher.", "C": "If an inert gas is added it will go to where this gas is consumed.", "D": "If a gas that participates in the reaction is added, it will go to where more gas is produced.", "E": "If the temperature is decreased, it will go to where the reaction is exothermic." }, "Correct Answer": "If the temperature is decreased, it will go to where the reaction is exothermic.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2fb711c6-6206-4445-82a8-2895331ff8ca", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When the manganese is oxidized in the air at 1000 ºC it is completely transformed into Mn3O4. This is because:", "Options": { "A": "Mn3O4 is the most volatile of all manganese oxides.", "B": "Mn3O4 can no longer react with oxygen.", "C": "There are no manganese oxides with a higher oxidation state.", "D": "Mn3O4 is the most stable of all manganese oxides.", "E": "Mn3O4 forms a protective layer that stops oxidation of the metal." }, "Correct Answer": "Mn3O4 is the most stable of all manganese oxides.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "219b80ce-c7cb-4561-9679-0d5e4dc50a2b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Comparing the redox behavior of the silver and sodium systems:", "Options": { "A": "Na + is a good oxidant, because its system has a high reduction potential.", "B": "Ag is an excellent oxidant, so it does not rust in the air.", "C": "Ag + is a good oxidant, and therefore easily reducible to metal.", "D": "The two metals dissolve in acid medium releasing H2", "E": "The two metals dismute spontaneously in water." }, "Correct Answer": "Ag + is a good oxidant, and therefore easily reducible to metal.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f38f3a6b-cf26-4ad3-a602-202d5873b806", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Graphite:", "Options": { "A": "It gives intercalation compounds with fluorine.", "B": "Reacts with sodium to give a covalent compound with C ̶ Na bond.", "C": "Reacts with sodium to give intercalation compounds that have the same distance between layers that pure graphite had.", "D": "Reacts with sodium to give intercalation compounds that are better electrical conductors than pure graphite.", "E": "It gives covalent compounds with bromine with C ̶ Br bond." }, "Correct Answer": "Reacts with sodium to give intercalation compounds that are better electrical conductors than pure graphite.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "d2a75c73-2121-443f-a9bf-12f40de24a72", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "By heating in electric furnaces of silica, calcium carbide and coal, calcium silicides are obtained. One of them:", "Options": { "A": "It has the composition CaSi2.", "B": "It does not react with water.", "C": "Does not react with sulfuric acid.", "D": "It is a powerful oxidizing agent.", "E": "Its reaction with liquid water generates calcium silicate." }, "Correct Answer": "It has the composition CaSi2.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "412419a9-7778-4225-a2ed-5a7fc412df21", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The change of internal energy when a mole of solid is formed from gaseous ions at infinite separation, at atmospheric pressure and at 0 K is called energy:", "Options": { "A": "Deformation.", "B": "Of sublimation.", "C": "Reticular", "D": "Of condensation.", "E": "Of liquefaction." }, "Correct Answer": "Reticular", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "04ebadd9-9183-4923-b85e-a66815ec1490", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The term \"uranium enrichment\" refers to the increase in:", "Options": { "A": "Amount of uranium present in a natural ore to be able to exploit it.", "B": "Amount of the isotope 235U with respect to natural isotopic abundance.", "C": "Amount of isotope 238U with respect to natural isotopic abundance.", "D": "Capacity of uranium present in its fluoride.", "E": "Atomic mass of uranium." }, "Correct Answer": "Amount of the isotope 235U with respect to natural isotopic abundance.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3ad2cbbb-9afb-4a6d-b5a1-273d27e5efd9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Nernst equation:", "Options": { "A": "It is true both for reversible and highly irreversible galvanic cells.", "B": "It allows to calculate the electromotive force of a galvanic cell with only knowing the Gibbs energy standard of the chemical reaction of the cell.", "C": "It depends solely on the activities of the species that participate in the chemical reaction of the cell.", "D": "It relates the electromotive force of the cell with the activities of the species that participate in the chemical reaction of the cell and with the standard potential of the reaction.", "E": "It is independent of the number of electrons transferred in the electrochemical reaction of the cell" }, "Correct Answer": "It relates the electromotive force of the cell with the activities of the species that participate in the chemical reaction of the cell and with the standard potential of the reaction.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9b46dd43-7103-4ef6-b538-3bc877da1611", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A mixture of iron (III) chloride and potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) (potassium ferricyanide) is used to detect extremely small amounts of hydrogen peroxide in the water. The presence of H2O2 causes, after a short time, an intense dark blue color. This is because hydrogen peroxide:", "Options": { "A": "It reduces hexacyanoferrate (III) to hexacyanoferrate (II).", "B": "Oxide to hexacyanoferrate (III).", "C": "Oxide to iron (III) chloride.", "D": "Peroxo-cyano form complexes of Fe (III).", "E": "Oxidize cyanocomplexes to complex cyanate." }, "Correct Answer": "It reduces hexacyanoferrate (III) to hexacyanoferrate (II).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "15a4ee7c-bf4d-46fc-a69a-7d9daac8fbb5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "For the industrial production of tin, the ore is split:", "Options": { "A": "Cinnabar.", "B": "Blende.", "C": "Wurtzita", "D": "Casiterita.", "E": "Pyrite." }, "Correct Answer": "Casiterita.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "33cf46ab-5342-42a7-abea-722933500b14", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The mechanism of a homogeneous chemical reaction:", "Options": { "A": "It may include reaction intermediates that are not any of the reactants or any of the products.", "B": "It is completely defined by the chemical reaction as long as it reflects the correct stoichiometry of the reaction.", "C": "It is only defined for complex reactions in which the reactants go through many stages before becoming products.", "D": "It is totally independent of the law of reaction speed.", "E": "It does not depend on the temperature and is unique for the reaction between certain reagents." }, "Correct Answer": "It may include reaction intermediates that are not any of the reactants or any of the products.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6a912a4f-33b5-47de-9503-a7bda57e6e46", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The color centers or F centers are produced:", "Options": { "A": "Exclusively in crystals that contain fluorine.", "B": "By heating a crystal in the vapor of an alkali metal.", "C": "By cooling a crystal in the vapor of an alkali metal.", "D": "By heating a crystal in the presence of fluorine.", "E": "By cooling a crystal in the presence of fluorine." }, "Correct Answer": "By heating a crystal in the vapor of an alkali metal.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "feace61a-ee70-4d72-b8be-1ca5421a555f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The \"templates\" used for the preparation of synthetic zeolites rich in silicon consist of:", "Options": { "A": "Structures with tetrahedral holes.", "B": "Structures with octahedral holes.", "C": "Porous structures", "D": "Large structures without gaps.", "E": "Large quaternary ammonium cations." }, "Correct Answer": "Large quaternary ammonium cations.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "87007ec2-d633-40e8-8d1a-ba16d1de1496", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "By cooling rapidly to room temperature and tempering an ordinary (low carbon) steel in water, the structure known as:", "Options": { "A": "Perlite", "B": "Spheroidite", "C": "Bainita", "D": "Ferrita.", "E": "Martensita" }, "Correct Answer": "Martensita", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f46f4a23-9ca9-4b3b-9812-5aa10bcb0e80", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ceramic materials are:", "Options": { "A": "Hard and fragile.", "B": "Tenacious and ductile.", "C": "Soft and malleable.", "D": "Ductile and malleable.", "E": "Soft and fragile" }, "Correct Answer": "Hard and fragile.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5570cea2-698a-4c4c-95d1-aa5cb672b3f5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The treatment consisting of keeping a material at an elevated temperature for a period of time and then cooling it slowly is called:", "Options": { "A": "Normalized", "B": "Tempered.", "C": "Annealing.", "D": "Restored", "E": "Sintered" }, "Correct Answer": "Annealing.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "64ad04f9-b317-4ae4-a671-c523db584b49", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Calcium hydroxide:", "Options": { "A": "It is prepared by adding water to calcium oxide.", "B": "It is a compound of intense red color.", "C": "It crystallizes when heated.", "D": "In solution it remains unchanged in air for months.", "E": "It is used to paint after neutralizing with HCl." }, "Correct Answer": "It is prepared by adding water to calcium oxide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d9b057b6-0b73-489d-baa8-6743324d4270", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Arrhenius equation:", "Options": { "A": "It relates the speed of a chemical reaction with the so-called constant velocity and with the concentrations of the reactants raised to their stoichiometric coefficients.", "B": "It relates the constant of speed of a chemical reaction with the energy of activation of said reaction, so that if the energy, of activation is high the reaction is fast.", "C": "It is only fulfilled for unimolecular reactions.", "D": "It relates the speed constant to the temperature through the activation energy and the pre-exponential factor.", "E": "It allows to obtain the activation energy of an elementary reaction by only representing the decimal logarithm of the temperature versus the inverse of the reaction time." }, "Correct Answer": "It relates the speed constant to the temperature through the activation energy and the pre-exponential factor.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "b2d5b4a0-d510-4550-b227-b8380a307d48", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If metallic copper is added to a solution of iron (III) chloride, it produces:", "Options": { "A": "A precipitate of copper (II) chloride.", "B": "A solution of copper (II) chloride and iron (II) chloride.", "C": "A precipitate of iron (II) chloride.", "D": "A precipitate of metallic iron.", "E": "A solution of copper (I) chloride and iron (II) chloride." }, "Correct Answer": "A solution of copper (II) chloride and iron (II) chloride.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "fd43ced9-3707-45ad-bba1-c0dd3d9d8279", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The matrices of the composite materials can be:", "Options": { "A": "Polymeric", "B": "Polymeric or metallic, but not ceramic.", "C": "Polymeric or ceramic, but not metallic.", "D": "Metallic or ceramic, but not polymeric.", "E": "Polymeric or metallic or ceramic." }, "Correct Answer": "Polymeric or metallic or ceramic.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f69a7036-799d-4671-921f-4a3341bb70fe", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Calcium fluoride is a white solid that is found as such in nature (fluorspar or fluorite, which can occur in many colors) and is used as an important source of fluoride. Among its physical and chemical properties include:", "Options": { "A": "Its solubility in water, which differentiates it from the other group 2 fluorides.", "B": "Its resistance to concentrated sulfuric acid.", "C": "Its hydrolysis in water, which transforms it into CaO and HF.", "D": "Its relatively low melting point for a mineral.", "E": "Its favorable, although slow, oxidation to the air." }, "Correct Answer": "Its relatively low melting point for a mineral.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2511c937-a322-44de-b3d7-6ebde14f5da9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "With respect to the distribution coefficient of a solute between two partially miscible liquids:", "Options": { "A": "Because it is a quotient between solute concentrations in the two phases, it is independent of temperature.", "B": "It does not depend on the total amount of solute in both parts.", "C": "It is useful to determine the molar mass of the solute.", "D": "If one phase is water and the other an organic solvent, it is usually used in medical and environmental chemistry to know the distribution of drugs and contaminants between these two types of media.", "E": "It only has physical significance when the liquid phases are in contact through a semipermeable membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "If one phase is water and the other an organic solvent, it is usually used in medical and environmental chemistry to know the distribution of drugs and contaminants between these two types of media.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c63e9b9c-0009-4d27-a09d-322bbc62db39", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Osmium oxide (VIII), OsO4:", "Options": { "A": "It is a compound in a state of oxidation very common among transition metals.", "B": "It is the only binary compound of osmium with oxygen.", "C": "It has the structure of rhenium trioxide.", "D": "It is inert compared to alkaline hydroxides.", "E": "It is used as an oxidant in organic chemistry." }, "Correct Answer": "It is used as an oxidant in organic chemistry.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8dd52ccb-ea8c-49c7-ac3f-d9bfed6979eb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the colligative properties of a solution it can be said that:", "Options": { "A": "They have their origin in the decrease of the chemical potential of the solvent by the fact of adding a solute.", "B": "The decrease in the vapor pressure of the solvent to which a non-volatile solute is added is directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.", "C": "The addition of a solute to a solvent causes the range of temperatures in which the solution is maintained in the liquid state to be lower than that corresponding to the pure solvent.", "D": "The molal constant of descent of the freezing point depends on the nature of the dissolved solute.", "E": "Cryoscopic descent is a technique applicable to the determination of the molar mass of the solvent." }, "Correct Answer": "They have their origin in the decrease of the chemical potential of the solvent by the fact of adding a solute.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0e90fd94-26c0-42ff-8cfa-0d9344062261", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The SO2 molecule is:", "Options": { "A": "Linear, with the S atom in the center.", "B": "Linear, with one of the atoms of O in the center.", "C": "Angular, with the S atom in the center and with an angle close to 120º (equilateral triangle) and a free pair of electrons.", "D": "Angular, with one of the atoms of O in the center and with an angle of approximately 120º (equilateral triangle) and a pair of free electrons.", "E": "Angular, with the S atom in the center and with an angle close to 109º (tetrahedron) and two pairs of free electrons." }, "Correct Answer": "Angular, with the S atom in the center and with an angle close to 120º (equilateral triangle) and a free pair of electrons.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7e592318-8562-4e63-a4db-56c604aca9be", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Gallium is the element that is under the aluminum in group 13 of the periodic table. Thus:", "Options": { "A": "It burns in oxygen giving Ga2O.", "B": "It is stable to air due to a protective oxide layer.", "C": "It dissolves very quickly in nitric acid.", "D": "It is not soluble in basic water with hydrogen evolution.", "E": "It has a melting point a little higher than aluminum." }, "Correct Answer": "It is stable to air due to a protective oxide layer.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bda299b0-4125-4b33-b9de-77475763c15c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "An isolated carbon atom is:", "Options": { "A": "Diamagnetic", "B": "Ferromagnetic.", "C": "Paramagnetic, with an unpaired electron.", "D": "Paramagnetic, with two unpaired electrons.", "E": "Paramagnetic, with three unpaired electrons." }, "Correct Answer": "Paramagnetic, with two unpaired electrons.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6a55315c-b1c6-4545-b2e4-6b1889904d9c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If we try to dissolve ammonia in water we observe that:", "Options": { "A": "It is completely soluble.", "B": "It is not very soluble.", "C": "It should be poorly soluble, but the solubility increases markedly by acid-base reaction between them, resulting in an acid solution.", "D": "It should be poorly soluble, but the solubility increases markedly by redox reaction between them, releasing hydrogen.", "E": "It is very soluble, favored by the formation of hydrogen bonds between the two compounds." }, "Correct Answer": "It is very soluble, favored by the formation of hydrogen bonds between the two compounds.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "02484c5a-79c4-40c8-8fcc-0e5d76034054", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Among the partial reactions that lead to sodium carbonate by the Solvay Process, are:", "Options": { "A": "The reaction between calcium carbonate and sodium chloride.", "B": "The precipitation of sodium hydrogen carbonate.", "C": "The thermal decomposition of ammonium chloride.", "D": "The formation of CaCO3 from CaO and CO2.", "E": "The reaction of ammonia with calcium oxide." }, "Correct Answer": "The precipitation of sodium hydrogen carbonate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b3dfe8fe-2589-460a-8cb9-b8a92416638e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Van Deemter's velocity equation tries to justify the contributions of the different effects that cause the widening of the chromatographic band, which are basically of four types:", "Options": { "A": "Eddy diffusion, dead volume and resistance to convection in both phases, mobile and stationary.", "B": "Length of the chromatographic column, longitudinal diffusion in axial and radical direction, and Joule effect.", "C": "Kinematic viscosity of the mobile phase, mass transport between the mobile phase and the stationary phase, transversal and longitudinal diffusion.", "D": "Effect of mass transfer in the stationary phase, in the mobile phase, Eddy diffusion and longitudinal molecular diffusion.", "E": "Molecular diffusion in axial direction, radical atomic diffusion, internal pressure of the column and viscosity of the mobile phase." }, "Correct Answer": "Effect of mass transfer in the stationary phase, in the mobile phase, Eddy diffusion and longitudinal molecular diffusion.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3dce29c8-9d81-459f-ac99-c855f9fc2be3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Polarography is an analytical technique that refers to:", "Options": { "A": "The absorption of electromagnetic radiation.", "B": "The emission of electromagnetic radiation.", "C": "The voltametry with mercury electrode.", "D": "The use of palladium as a reference electrode.", "E": "To the potential of asymmetry." }, "Correct Answer": "The voltametry with mercury electrode.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8b2c8623-478a-432c-8634-4e7054389f67", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Plasma ICP is more suitable for rapid multielemental analysis than flame atomic absorption methods because:", "Options": { "A": "The linearity interval is not wide, which allows for very sensitive analyzes.", "B": "The ICP has several possibilities to introduce the sample using different types of nebulizers.", "C": "They use two photomultiplier tubes, one for the ultraviolet region and the other for the visible one.", "D": "It has load-coupled silicon solid-state detectors that allow simultaneous monitoring of a large number of lines, reducing analysis time, sample volume and improving detection limits.", "E": "It is not correct, because with the ICP plasma, multielemental analysis can not be done." }, "Correct Answer": "It has load-coupled silicon solid-state detectors that allow simultaneous monitoring of a large number of lines, reducing analysis time, sample volume and improving detection limits.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "dfb9dd42-bfa6-49e6-9590-5e9ffaaaef80", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Liquid chromatography in normal phase:", "Options": { "A": "It uses a column with apolar groups that interact with the apolar part of the analytes differentially.", "B": "It is a mode of operation that employs a polar stationary phase with a low polarity mobile phase.", "C": "It uses highly polar mobile phases such as alkanes or chloroalkanes.", "D": "It is a mode of operation that employs a non-polar surface with a mixed aqueous / organic mobile phase.", "E": "It uses stationary phases with a large number of hydrophobic alkyl ligands." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a mode of operation that employs a polar stationary phase with a low polarity mobile phase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "7b182102-9bb9-45df-82eb-a1c7490d8f3f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Every experimental measurement is accompanied by the corresponding experimental error. Experimental errors are classified as systematic and random. On these last ones it is possible to be affirmed that:", "Options": { "A": "They are due to a failure of the experiment or the equipment.", "B": "They generally cause a positive deviation from the measurement.", "C": "They are equally likely to be positive or negative.", "D": "They do not affect the final result because they are random.", "E": "They affect exclusively the accuracy of the results obtained." }, "Correct Answer": "They are equally likely to be positive or negative.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "00a651c3-c2f2-4301-8488-ca93ca9e7de6", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The ionization source known as Inductive Coupling Plasma used in Elemental Mass Spectrometry, is characterized by:", "Options": { "A": "Generate mostly monatomic ions.", "B": "Fragment the organic molecules in molecular ions that allow their identification.", "C": "Be a low energy source.", "D": "Run at high vacuum.", "E": "Reach detection limits of the order of mg L-1 for most elements." }, "Correct Answer": "Generate mostly monatomic ions.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "671fa06d-2993-4216-b471-b1707cd9b2d3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In gas chromatography, derivatization is very common, with several objectives. One of those discussed below is not among them:", "Options": { "A": "Increase the volatility of non-volatile compounds.", "B": "Avoid the decomposition of a compound, improving its stability.", "C": "Reduce the absorption on active surfaces of the walls of the column and the solid support.", "D": "Fragment the analyte in molecular ions of easier separation.", "E": "Improve the separation of closely related compounds with a very poor separation." }, "Correct Answer": "Fragment the analyte in molecular ions of easier separation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "143635be-9f8c-4375-b690-8e6f4334d335", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "It is UV visible molecular absorption spectroscopy is called isosbestic point a:", "Options": { "A": "The region of the spectrum where two species have the same radiation emission capacity.", "B": "The pH at which two absorbing species have the same molecular absorption coefficient.", "C": "The temperature at which two absorbing species in equilibrium stop emitting radiation.", "D": "The wavelength at which two absorbing species in equilibrium has the same refractive index.", "E": "The wavelength at which the molecular absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent." }, "Correct Answer": "The wavelength at which the molecular absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5db70445-fdf5-4e63-bfb2-6b9527e0d3c4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The solubility of copper hydroxide in the presence of a high concentration of ammonia:", "Options": { "A": "Increased by formation of a complex ion of Cu2 + with NH3.", "B": "It is not affected because there is no common ion effect.", "C": "Decreases by common ion effect.", "D": "It decreases upon oxidation of bromide to molecular bromine.", "E": "It decreases because the hydroxides are more soluble in acidic medium." }, "Correct Answer": "Increased by formation of a complex ion of Cu2 + with NH3.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e0aa6217-c76a-4401-9896-8f89714954a6", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In HPLC and under ideal conditions, the chromatographic peaks should have the shape of Gaussian peaks with perfect symmetry, although in reality, the peaks are not perfectly symmetrical and can present fronts and tails. The asymmetry factor:", "Options": { "A": "It is used to measure the relative retention of the two components of a sample so that in perfectly symmetrical compounds it is 0.", "B": "It is used to measure the degree of symmetry of a peak and is defined at the peak width corresponding to 10% of the peak height.", "C": "It is a parameter that is calculated by measuring the width at the half-height of the chromatographic peak.", "D": "It relates to each other two successive chromatographic peaks, so that an asymmetry factor 1 indicates a total resolution of them.", "E": "It is a parameter related to the symmetry of the peaks, defined at a height equal to 10% of the width thereof." }, "Correct Answer": "It is used to measure the degree of symmetry of a peak and is defined at the peak width corresponding to 10% of the peak height.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "6ff23631-5e55-4501-af96-a494db30731a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A calomel electrode:", "Options": { "A": "It is a mercury indicator electrode.", "B": "It is a reference electrode that contains nitrate ions.", "C": "It is an indicator electrode for nitrate ions.", "D": "It is a reference electrode that uses silver and silver chloride.", "E": "It is a reference electrode that contains a saturated solution of mercury chloride (I)." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a reference electrode that contains a saturated solution of mercury chloride (I).", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e8b21b5f-6fba-42d0-9ba2-99eb711486dc", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In atomic fluorescence, the emission of electromagnetic radiation called resonance florescence occurs when the excitation wavelength is:", "Options": { "A": "100 nm higher than the emission wavelength.", "B": "100 nm lower than the emission wavelength.", "C": "Same as the emission wavelength.", "D": "100 nm greater than the excitation wavelength.", "E": "100 nm less than the excitation wavelength." }, "Correct Answer": "Same as the emission wavelength.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "ddb7cbd9-05c4-434f-b8aa-96dbf1ae32d5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The molar absorption coefficient of a compound:", "Options": { "A": "It has dimensions of M-1 cm-1, it is constant at a specific wavelength and in a particular solvent.", "B": "Its dimensions are mol L-1 cm-2 and it is constant at a given wavelength and in a given solvent.", "C": "It has dimensions L mol-1 cm-3 and is constant throughout the spectral region and is not influenced by the solvent.", "D": "Its dimensions are Photons per mole and it varies with the wavelength and with the solvent.", "E": "It is dimensionless, constant and does not vary with the wavelength or with the solvent." }, "Correct Answer": "It has dimensions of M-1 cm-1, it is constant at a specific wavelength and in a particular solvent.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e43e38e8-c2e0-4f3b-8923-a6c892e3961b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Capillary isotachophoresis (CITP) separates:", "Options": { "A": "Cations but can not separate anions.", "B": "Anions but can not separate cations.", "C": "Cations and anions simultaneously.", "D": "Cations and anions but not simultaneously.", "E": "Only neutral molecules." }, "Correct Answer": "Cations and anions but not simultaneously.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0452efb9-a8d3-4eee-8b11-e3cd4ad7704e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Could a glass electrode be used as a reference electrode ?:", "Options": { "A": "Yes, if the glass electrode is a combined electrode.", "B": "Yes, if a mercury electrode is used as the indicator electrode.", "C": "No, since the glass electrode is a selective electrode.", "D": "No, because its foundation is not Nerstian.", "E": "Yes, if the determination is made in a buffered medium." }, "Correct Answer": "Yes, if the determination is made in a buffered medium.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "af83c411-1e3b-4270-b719-8278954fc9f0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the analysis of arsenic by graphite chamber losses of said element can be produced by volatilization during the carbonization stage. This fact can be minimized if:", "Options": { "A": "We raise the temperature during the carbonization stage.", "B": "We increase the carbonization time.", "C": "We add matrix modifiers that thermally stabilize the analyte.", "D": "We lower the temperature during the carbonization stage.", "E": "We modified the drying program to completely vaporize the solvent." }, "Correct Answer": "We add matrix modifiers that thermally stabilize the analyte.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "cc5648b7-d07f-4d37-8962-7506173f5dcb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If we value 25 mL of an H2A acid in concentration 0.1000M (pKa1 = 5, pKa2 = 9) with NaOH, the pH when we have evaluated 50% of the initial acid will be:", "Options": { "A": "one.", "B": "3.", "C": "5.", "D": "7", "E": "9" }, "Correct Answer": "5.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "e78fee94-050e-417d-b18f-c8488446fccd", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "An injection mode widely used in gas chromatography is the injection with split flow or \"Split\", in which:", "Options": { "A": "The sample introduced through the septum vaporizes abruptly and is carried by the carrier gas towards the column.", "B": "The flow divider is closed, the sample is introduced, and it is reopened after a controlled period of time of the order of 15 to 60 s.", "C": "The solvent condenses at the entrance to the column forming a mixed phase of high thickness when the divider is closed.", "D": "The carrier gas that carries the sample, once evaporated, is divided into two parts: one passes to the column and the other is sent abroad.", "E": "The sample is introduced cold and a part is deposited on a filling and heated quickly to produce homogeneous evaporation of the solution." }, "Correct Answer": "The carrier gas that carries the sample, once evaporated, is divided into two parts: one passes to the column and the other is sent abroad.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a317b5a8-4cad-4814-9a6f-bfa60f51aec1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A biosensor consists of:", "Options": { "A": "A receiver, a transducer, and an enzymatic brand.", "B": "A receptor and an enzymatic brand.", "C": "A transducer and an enzymatic brand.", "D": "A receiver and a transducer.", "E": "A receptor and an antibody." }, "Correct Answer": "A receiver and a transducer.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9dba59d5-5d06-4871-b797-53001b4d22c8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The chloride present in a solution can be determined volumetrically, by the Mohr method, using Ag (I) as a reagent. What indicator is used in this assessment ?:", "Options": { "A": "K2Cr2O7.", "B": "Fe2 (SO4) 3.", "C": "K2CrO4.", "D": "KSCN", "E": "FeSO4." }, "Correct Answer": "K2CrO4.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "870145ae-2185-46a5-be47-27198a5cf8c8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the kinetic methods of analysis:", "Options": { "A": "Slow reactions can be used.", "B": "It is necessary that the reaction be completed in order to obtain the data of the equilibrium concentrations.", "C": "Low concentrations of a catalyst can be determined as long as the speed of the reaction does not depend on the concentration thereof.", "D": "It is not necessary to rigorously control the experimental conditions.", "E": "Mixtures of analytes can be determined as long as they all react with the same reagent at the same reaction rate." }, "Correct Answer": "Slow reactions can be used.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "6d5bd609-f10a-46d3-86be-880153a26c9a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the evaluation of a base with hydrochloric acid, it is known that the equivalence point appears at pH 5.54. If the bromocresol purple is used as indicator, whose turning interval is 5.2-6.8, the end point is observed at pH:", "Options": { "A": "6.0, with a small error by default.", "B": "6.8, with an error by excess.", "C": "5.2, with a small error for excess.", "D": "5.54. There is no error", "E": "6.0, with an error for excess." }, "Correct Answer": "5.2, with a small error for excess.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0feb8c9a-4797-40f5-b89f-12160e551954", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Clark's electrode is based on:", "Options": { "A": "Potentiometric.", "B": "Potentiostatic", "C": "Optical.", "D": "Amperometric.", "E": "Conductimetric" }, "Correct Answer": "Amperometric.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "0b2ed2a8-aa91-42b3-882c-978be329e878", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A coulometric evaluation:", "Options": { "A": "You do not need the current performance to be 100%.", "B": "It does not need an indicator system of the end point.", "C": "Always use a potentiostatic system.", "D": "It uses a titrant that is generated electrolytically.", "E": "You need a burette to add the titrant." }, "Correct Answer": "It uses a titrant that is generated electrolytically.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1303104f-43e0-444c-9fb3-1363c43f511c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A basic component of spectrophotometers is the monochromator. Its function is:", "Options": { "A": "Connect the different wavelengths from the source to achieve greater light power.", "B": "Transform the optical signal measured by the detector into an electrical signal.", "C": "Disperse the light separating the wavelengths that compose it and select a narrow band.", "D": "Amplify the analytical signal by improving the signal-to-noise ratio.", "E": "Decrease the power of the light beam to eliminate the background noise of the spectrophotometer." }, "Correct Answer": "Disperse the light separating the wavelengths that compose it and select a narrow band.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "495364ec-0c3e-42be-857a-d8d4b8bce4d0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Turbidimetry and nephelometry are non-spectroscopic techniques based on the dispersion of light, with interesting applications in biochemical analysis. The criteria to be taken into account when choosing between nephelometry and turbidimetry in the analysis of a sample containing particles in suspension are:", "Options": { "A": "The size of the suspended particles and the detector of the instrument.", "B": "The size of the suspended particles and the wavelength of the radiation used.", "C": "The wavelength of the radiation emitted and the shape of the suspended particles.", "D": "The size of the suspended particles and the color of them.", "E": "The color of the particles and their fluorescence." }, "Correct Answer": "The size of the suspended particles and the wavelength of the radiation used.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "f1cf5fdd-a800-47c2-ace4-52c799ed4cc4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In chemiluminescent measurements, the analyte to be determined must first pass to the excited state by:", "Options": { "A": "Absorption of electromagnetic radiation.", "B": "Emission of electromagnetic radiation.", "C": "A chemical reaction", "D": "Radio waves.", "E": "Sound waves." }, "Correct Answer": "A chemical reaction", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "701e591f-ec51-4366-ac61-c75239d662fe", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When carrying out the validation of an analytical method it is necessary to take into account the following basic aspects:", "Options": { "A": "Validate the analytical process as a whole, the range of concentrations in which it is applied, as well as the method in a single matrix to ensure selectivity.", "B": "Validate the previous stages of treatment of the sample, the range of concentrations in which it is applied and the method in a single matrix to ensure the selectivity.", "C": "Validate the final measurement method, validate the range of low concentrations (traces) in which it is applied and the method in a single matrix to ensure sensitivity.", "D": "All that is required is to validate the instrumentation by means of suitable calibrations.", "E": "Validate the analytical process as a whole, the concentration interval in which it is applied and the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied." }, "Correct Answer": "Validate the analytical process as a whole, the concentration interval in which it is applied and the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "c2d05512-059c-4dba-8b57-7e0ae0f1c353", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If an analytical method allows to determine 1 ppm of Pb, we are referring to:", "Options": { "A": "1 mg / L.", "B": "1 mg / mL.", "C": "1 μg / L.", "D": "1 ng / L.", "E": "1 ng / mL." }, "Correct Answer": "1 mg / L.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "94bf5cfa-2d10-4639-aacc-8098c101eddd", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The alkaline error that occurs in glass electrodes for the average pH:", "Options": { "A": "It is due to the presence of an excessive concentration of protons that is replaced by sodium ions in the glass membrane.", "B": "Occurs at neutral pH due to the absence of protons.", "C": "It takes place at very alkaline pH, in which the sodium ion behaves as if it were a proton.", "D": "It appears as a consequence of the dehydration of the glass membrane.", "E": "It occurs when the electrode is introduced into pure water due to the dissolution of the sodium ions in the membrane." }, "Correct Answer": "It takes place at very alkaline pH, in which the sodium ion behaves as if it were a proton.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2430e0d4-2556-49fc-857c-cc4e2bef7650", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Temperature is one of the important variables in the emission techniques, because:", "Options": { "A": "The energy emitted by the atoms varies exponentially with it.", "B": "The population of atoms in the excited state decreases when it increases.", "C": "The population of atoms in the excited state increases when it decreases.", "D": "By increasing the atoms evaporate and the analytical signal decreases.", "E": "When increasing it increases the power of the electromagnetic radiation coming from the hollow cathode lamp." }, "Correct Answer": "The energy emitted by the atoms varies exponentially with it.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "22ca3bf2-004f-4e55-af85-3c35057db354", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A primary standard solution in a titration should not:", "Options": { "A": "Be prepared from a high purity reagent.", "B": "Have an exactly known concentration.", "C": "Keep your composition over time.", "D": "React instantly.", "E": "Give rise to secondary reactions." }, "Correct Answer": "Give rise to secondary reactions.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "d72f7905-18a6-4fed-b3b1-0b817d5876bd", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A classification of gas chromatography detectors commonly found in the literature divides them into concentration and mass detectors, destructive and non-destructive, integral or differential and universal or selective. According to this classification:", "Options": { "A": "The thermal conductivity detector is a selective detector.", "B": "The flame ionization detector responds to the concentration of the analyte.", "C": "The thermal conductivity detector responds to the concentration of the analyte.", "D": "The phosphorus and nitrogen detector (NPD) is a universal detector.", "E": "The thermocalorimeter detector is of the differential type." }, "Correct Answer": "The thermal conductivity detector responds to the concentration of the analyte.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2662be2c-796d-481e-950d-35d18b97ddf5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The method of continuous variations is used in molecular absorption spectrophotometry to:", "Options": { "A": "Determine the position of the isobestic point in a mixture of absorbent species.", "B": "Calculate the exact position of the absorption maximum of an absorbent complex.", "C": "Obtain the pH corresponding to the end point of the titration of an absorbing acid or base.", "D": "Calculate the stoichiometry of an absorbent complex.", "E": "Calculate the exact value of the dissociation constant of an absorbent acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Calculate the stoichiometry of an absorbent complex.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8028772b-42be-4233-8bd8-26e2e1f16787", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A potentiometric titration is always done at i = 0:", "Options": { "A": "Yes, because that is where the Nernst equation is fulfilled.", "B": "Yes, because it is an instrumental requirement.", "C": "No, because there are potentiometric titrations at constant i.", "D": "No, because potentiometric titrations are never made at i = 0.", "E": "Yes, as long as an indicator electrode and a reference electrode are used." }, "Correct Answer": "No, because there are potentiometric titrations at constant i.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "abda8f10-c65f-4e97-a627-da74ccc03ee9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the technique of analysis by injection in flow:", "Options": { "A": "A relatively large volume of sample is injected into the system, obtaining signals at steady state.", "B": "A small volume of sample whose integrity is maintained by segmentation with air bubbles is introduced.", "C": "The sample maintains its integrity throughout the process as it is available in separate containers.", "D": "The responses obtained have a peak shape whose height depends on the concentration of the sample.", "E": "The main difficulty lies in the slowness of the measures." }, "Correct Answer": "The responses obtained have a peak shape whose height depends on the concentration of the sample.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6fd953f6-ced2-4b04-a496-b95ff2bf9359", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The determination of dissolved oxygen in natural water samples, using the Winkler method, is based on the previous oxidation of Mn (II) in an alkaline medium to:", "Options": { "A": "Mn (IV).", "B": "Mn (VI)", "C": "Mn (VII).", "D": "Mn (V).", "E": "Mn (I)." }, "Correct Answer": "Mn (IV).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "995f5e54-b824-4f51-bbca-eaa8f4b564ae", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The spectrum of Circular Discipism of a molecule gives information about:", "Options": { "A": "The isosbestic point.", "B": "The isoelectric point.", "C": "Optically active chromophores.", "D": "Functional groups.", "E": "Molecular weight." }, "Correct Answer": "Optically active chromophores.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "bb2ab530-bf11-431b-82f7-6fca594922a7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In an electrogravimetric analysis:", "Options": { "A": "The increase in mass of the electrode indicates the amount of analyte.", "B": "Current performance must be 100%.", "C": "A platinum mesh is always used as a working electrode.", "D": "A reference electrode is always needed.", "E": "The solution does not need to be conductive." }, "Correct Answer": "The increase in mass of the electrode indicates the amount of analyte.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "011254f3-9192-4b23-9cf6-a69626c4babe", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the determination of water hardness due to the presence of Ca2 + and Mg2 + ions, the titrant reagent is used:", "Options": { "A": "Methyl orange.", "B": "A standard solution of potassium chloride.", "C": "Black Eriochrome T.", "D": "A standard solution of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).", "E": "A solution of AEDT previously standardized against a solution of potassium phthalate." }, "Correct Answer": "A standard solution of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2f2e8c41-2e29-46b0-b739-0ae21a7d3894", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The solubility of calcium fluoride in a solution of pH <3 is higher than in pure water due to:", "Options": { "A": "The absence of reactions of formation of hydroxylated calcium complexes at these pH values.", "B": "The lower hydration capacity of the precipitate particles at these pH values.", "C": "The absence of reactions of formation of soluble complexes of calcium and fluoride at these pH values.", "D": "The complex formation reactions of the Ca2 + ion with the hydronium.", "E": "The protonation reaction of the fluoride anion." }, "Correct Answer": "The protonation reaction of the fluoride anion.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "34e568cd-6c32-402b-9971-a4d7b9ef8d07", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A cyclic voltammetry:", "Options": { "A": "It is based on a stationary broadcasting regime.", "B": "It uses macroelectrodes as working electrodes.", "C": "He never needs a potentiostatic system.", "D": "It is always done in a non-agitated solution.", "E": "It uses a square wave potential format as an excitation system." }, "Correct Answer": "It is always done in a non-agitated solution.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5389c303-bd5d-4ea6-80d6-6077599e9ecf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "When you want to analyze the volatile components of a liquid or solid sample by gas chromatography, a headspace methodology (HS-GC) is usually used. In its static form:", "Options": { "A": "An aerosol is generated on the solid samples by passing a gas flow over it, which causes the transfer of volatile compounds to it. After a while, a volume of this gas is introduced into the column.", "B": "It is used to analyze a liquid in contact with a gas, by injecting a small volume of liquid into the head of the column.", "C": "The sample is placed in a vial with a volume of gas above, closed and thermostatted. Once the equilibrium between the two phases is reached, an aliquot of gas is introduced into the stream of the carrier gas that goes to the column.", "D": "The sample in liquid form is placed in a vial and closed. After a while, the same is opened so that the volatile components are balanced with those of the environment and subsequently, a volume of the gas surrounding the chromatograph is introduced.", "E": "An extraction of the liquid or solid sample is carried out to a gas that flows on it continuously." }, "Correct Answer": "The sample is placed in a vial with a volume of gas above, closed and thermostatted. Once the equilibrium between the two phases is reached, an aliquot of gas is introduced into the stream of the carrier gas that goes to the column.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "7c8d3b4c-3fba-473a-a098-b2e95193f544", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the valuation of a strong base with a strong acid the pH of the equivalence point:", "Options": { "A": "It depends on the strong base that is valued.", "B": "It is determined by the excess OH ̄ of the solution.", "C": "It depends on the strong acid used as a titrant.", "D": "It is determined by the dissociation of water.", "E": "It is determined by the excess H + of the solution." }, "Correct Answer": "It is determined by the dissociation of water.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "30513ee9-3f93-4387-9ddb-744f10815727", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Reactions in which there are no intermediates are described as:", "Options": { "A": "Concerted.", "B": "Polar", "C": "Radicals", "D": "Homolitic", "E": "Heterolithic" }, "Correct Answer": "Concerted.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "486b9b68-f404-4a13-8ff5-5e65c91d837e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The number of signals in the 13 C NMR spectrum of cis-1,2 dimethylcyclopentane with proton decoupling is:", "Options": { "A": "Three.", "B": "Four.", "C": "Five.", "D": "Six.", "E": "Seven." }, "Correct Answer": "Four.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e485244e-fe44-4c1d-aa69-8c6bcfbe7aaa", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following alcohols has the lowest pKa value ?:", "Options": { "A": "Ethanol.", "B": "2-Chloroethanol.", "C": "2-Propanol.", "D": "2,2,2-Trifluoroethanol.", "E": "1,1-Dimethylethanol." }, "Correct Answer": "2,2,2-Trifluoroethanol.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "69fb3e87-8f2a-4e5f-965d-b1968e95f465", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Neighboring halohydrins, when treated with a base, are easily transformed into:", "Options": { "A": "Dioles", "B": "Alquenos", "C": "Alcohols", "D": "Epoxides", "E": "Ketones" }, "Correct Answer": "Epoxides", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e624799e-410f-4681-a757-523342d856f0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Wittig reaction is one of the most important processes to obtain:", "Options": { "A": "Alquenos", "B": "Alcanes.", "C": "Ketones", "D": "Ethers", "E": "Nitriles" }, "Correct Answer": "Alquenos", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "abb56d3e-3603-4913-8e6e-273fd107de4d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The arenio ion is a reaction intermediate that is formed in the reactions of:", "Options": { "A": "Electrophilic addition.", "B": "Electrophilic aromatic substitution.", "C": "Nucleophilic substitution.", "D": "Nucleophilic addition.", "E": "Aromatic nucleophilic substitution." }, "Correct Answer": "Electrophilic aromatic substitution.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "57956eda-8258-4001-bca0-78ebbcc576d7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Organomagnesium compounds are commonly referred to as:", "Options": { "A": "Lipshutz", "B": "Birch.", "C": "Grignard.", "D": "Noyori", "E": "Blanc." }, "Correct Answer": "Grignard.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "6e1ccfdd-8cd5-4955-a107-9b2e92cd25b8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO):", "Options": { "A": "It is a protic polar solvent.", "B": "It is a polar aprotic solvent.", "C": "It is not a solvent.", "D": "It is a colorless solid.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a polar aprotic solvent.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "bff73804-0d29-45d8-bdb9-bfcc737f6087", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of 5-Decino with sodium in ammonia and tert-butanol produces:", "Options": { "A": "Dean.", "B": "cis-5-Decene.", "C": "5-Decanamin.", "D": "trans-5-Decene.", "E": "5,6-Decanodiamine." }, "Correct Answer": "trans-5-Decene.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "634bc5d3-362a-4796-ba23-4253585ae14e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The coupling of a terminal alkyne with vinyl halide by palladium catalysis is known as the reaction of:", "Options": { "A": "Heck", "B": "Suzuki", "C": "Sonogashira.", "D": "Stille", "E": "Nicolaou" }, "Correct Answer": "Sonogashira.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "50cda0c2-a1af-40cf-9a31-43137d7a1931", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The NR3 group of a quaternary ammonium salt, R ̶ NR3, is a good leaving group in reactions:", "Options": { "A": "E1.", "B": "E2.", "C": "SN1.", "D": "SN2.", "E": "In none of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "E2.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "e01b5c3f-1cbd-4945-bacf-37fe5adb6db6", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of ethyl acetate and acetone in the presence of sodium hydride in diethyl ether generates, after hydrolysis:", "Options": { "A": "2,4-Pentanedione.", "B": "4-Methyl-3-penten-2-one.", "C": "3-Oxobutanoate of ethyl.", "D": "2,3-Pentanedione.", "E": "4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone." }, "Correct Answer": "2,4-Pentanedione.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "24f86efa-c7a1-462f-9e13-106227562cf5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of Wolff-Kishner is one:", "Options": { "A": "Oxidation of carbonyls to give acids.", "B": "Reduction of carbonyls to alcohols.", "C": "Deoxygenation of carbonyls that takes place in an acid medium.", "D": "Deoxygenation of carbonyls that is carried out in an alkaline medium.", "E": "Carbonyl deoxygenation performed in neutral medium." }, "Correct Answer": "Deoxygenation of carbonyls that is carried out in an alkaline medium.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "2b645985-fdfe-49eb-8176-f7fc261f650b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of cyclopentene with an aqueous solution of bromine at 0 ° C originates:", "Options": { "A": "trans-1,2-dibromocyclopentane.", "B": "cis-2-bromocyclopentanol.", "C": "trans -2-bromocyclopentanol.", "D": "trans -1,2-cyclopentanediol.", "E": "cis-1,2-dibromocyclopentane." }, "Correct Answer": "trans -2-bromocyclopentanol.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "5167295c-7792-40ed-8fcb-f73827e9d575", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The Chichibabin reaction is an example of nucleophilic substitution in a ring of:", "Options": { "A": "Benzene.", "B": "Anthracene", "C": "Biphenyl", "D": "Pyridine", "E": "Pirrol." }, "Correct Answer": "Pyridine", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5dad3029-fae3-4145-9dbe-c4db9d9c61e4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the reaction of methoxybenzene with acetic anhydride and aluminum trichloride followed by treatment with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid is formed mainly:", "Options": { "A": "4-methoxybenzoic acid.", "B": "1- (4-methoxyphenyl) ethanone.", "C": "1- (3-methoxyphenyl) ethanone.", "D": "3-methoxybenzoic acid.", "E": "4-methoxyphenyl acetate." }, "Correct Answer": "1- (4-methoxyphenyl) ethanone.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "94025eb3-c9a9-494a-ac9f-f08e61cdc61f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The major product of the reaction of 2-methylcyclohexanol with HBr is:", "Options": { "A": "1-Bromo-2-methylcyclohexane.", "B": "Methylcyclohexane", "C": "1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane.", "D": "1-Methylcyclohexane.", "E": "Cyclohexane" }, "Correct Answer": "1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "33faa09b-9c11-449a-8a02-5d0f014c152a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lithium aluminum hydride is a nucleophile strong enough to be added to the carbonyl group of the carboxylate ions. This process allows obtaining:", "Options": { "A": "Primary alcohols.", "B": "Secondary alcohols", "C": "Tertiary alcohols.", "D": "Ketones", "E": "Ethers" }, "Correct Answer": "Primary alcohols.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "917fb3d4-aebe-43ad-88fb-1320436e8130", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction between a ketone and a Grignard reagent causes, after hydrolysing the salt formed, a:", "Options": { "A": "Carboxylic ester.", "B": "Alcohol.", "C": "Ether.", "D": "Aldehyde.", "E": "Carboxylic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Alcohol.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "87255b19-af7e-4138-8f93-c5ef8b53c4f3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the aromatic electrophilic substitution with a monosubstituted benzene ring, the halogens are:", "Options": { "A": "Ortho / for leaders but activating.", "B": "Target leaders but activating.", "C": "Goal / for leaders but activating.", "D": "Ortho / goal leaders but activating.", "E": "Ortho / for leaders but deactivators." }, "Correct Answer": "Ortho / for leaders but deactivators.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "3e2b26ef-98fb-4bd9-bef6-d3eb0cdf0074", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of 1H-indole with electrophiles takes place selectively on the atom in position:", "Options": { "A": "one.", "B": "two.", "C": "3.", "D": "Four.", "E": "5." }, "Correct Answer": "3.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "fbedd876-5970-49bc-bd74-b4369b219e46", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The enolate ions undergo conjugate addition to α, β-unsaturated aldehydes and ketones, a reaction known as:", "Options": { "A": "Addition of Michael.", "B": "Addition of Prins.", "C": "Transposition of Cope.", "D": "Radical addition.", "E": "Transposition of Beckman." }, "Correct Answer": "Addition of Michael.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "34cafee6-6604-498d-99a0-86dc82ac2a61", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The heating of trans, cis, trans-2,4,6octatriene results in:", "Options": { "A": "trans, trans, trans-2,4,6-Octatriene.", "B": "cis, cis, cis-2,4,6-Octatriene.", "C": "There is no reaction.", "D": "trans-5,6-Dimethyl-1,3-cyclohexadiene.", "E": "cis -5,6-Dimethyl-1,3-cyclohexadiene." }, "Correct Answer": "cis -5,6-Dimethyl-1,3-cyclohexadiene.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "eb617eb2-41a4-4536-bfac-e7a573947372", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction conditions for the preparation of 2-methyl-2-methoxypropan-1-ol from 2,2-dimethyloxirane are:", "Options": { "A": "Methanol in acid medium.", "B": "Lithium aluminum hydride in methanol.", "C": "Methylmagnesium bromide and subsequent hydrolysis.", "D": "Sodium methoxide in methanol.", "E": "Triphenylphosphine in methanol." }, "Correct Answer": "Methanol in acid medium.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "91aa330f-553d-4cd0-8d7c-f0075521ad31", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The stabilizing effect of the alkyl groups on the adjacent π bonds is explained in terms of:", "Options": { "A": "Isomería.", "B": "Mesomería.", "C": "Inductive effect", "D": "Hyperconjugation.", "E": "Stereoisomería." }, "Correct Answer": "Hyperconjugation.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "66906cc3-2873-4e85-85b6-f790bbd414b4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction product of cyclohexanone with bromine catalyzed by a base is:", "Options": { "A": "2-Bromocyclohexanone.", "B": "2,2-Dibromocyclohexanone.", "C": "2,2,6-Tribomociclohexanona.", "D": "1,1-Dibromocyclohexane.", "E": "2,2,6,6-Tetrabromocyclohexanone." }, "Correct Answer": "2,2,6,6-Tetrabromocyclohexanone.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "29df37fa-73c0-4f64-8f5c-f274bede6f26", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following reaction mechanisms, in which there is an inversion of the configuration from the reactant to the product of the reaction ?:", "Options": { "A": "Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN2).", "B": "Unimolecular elimination (E1).", "C": "Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN1).", "D": "Addition Markovnikov.", "E": "Addition anti-Markovnikov." }, "Correct Answer": "Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN2).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d4e77501-4b65-442e-992c-ca83a6ca100d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The systematic nomenclature rules of the IUPAC give priority as a main function, from among the following functional groups, to:", "Options": { "A": "Amines", "B": "Carboxylic acids.", "C": "Nitriles", "D": "Carboxylic ethers.", "E": "Aldehydes." }, "Correct Answer": "Carboxylic acids.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "1f31682e-4ca9-4fb4-8070-6fde21b3166c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The aldol condensation gives rise to:", "Options": { "A": "Α, β-unsaturated amides.", "B": "Saturated amides.", "C": "Α, β-unsaturated carbonyl compounds.", "D": "Chiral compounds.", "E": "Β, γ-unsaturated carbonyl compounds." }, "Correct Answer": "Α, β-unsaturated carbonyl compounds.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "9765c311-05a4-40d3-9c5c-d5713efe7f61", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "By reaction of carbonyls with primary and secondary amine, the following are obtained:", "Options": { "A": "Iminas and oximes.", "B": "Iminas and enaminas.", "C": "Oxazones and hydrazones.", "D": "Semicarbazones and nitrones.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "Iminas and enaminas.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a3c0c618-74e5-4fdd-a850-de5c41e3ad62", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The so-called \"synthesis gas\" that is used for the preparation of methanol on a large scale consists of a pressure mixture of:", "Options": { "A": "CO2 and hydrogen.", "B": "CO, hydrogen and water.", "C": "CO2, hydrogen and water.", "D": "CO and hydrogen.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "CO and hydrogen.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4372d846-8c9d-4cf8-bf26-19f733e152f0", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A compound that has a five-membered aromatic heterocyclic skeleton with three carbon atoms and two nitrogens, the latter being positions 1 and 3, is called:", "Options": { "A": "Pirrol.", "B": "Pyrimidine", "C": "Pyrazole", "D": "Pyrazolidine.", "E": "Imidazole" }, "Correct Answer": "Imidazole", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "6d826249-7a96-49fc-9f2e-9643c3e6c43a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In mass spectrometry, the most common fragmentation pattern is the break in α, which cleaves the alkyl bond adjacent to the carbonyl to give:", "Options": { "A": "The corresponding acyl cation and an alkyl radical.", "B": "The corresponding acyl anion and an alkyl radical.", "C": "The corresponding acyl radical and an alkyl radical.", "D": "The corresponding acyl cation and an alkyl cation.", "E": "The corresponding acyl anion and an alkyl anion." }, "Correct Answer": "The corresponding acyl cation and an alkyl radical.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c4347c07-85f4-46bf-b8a3-7c64db1e6a42", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following compounds has more basic character ?:", "Options": { "A": "Sodium hydroxide.", "B": "Sodium ethoxide", "C": "Sodium amide", "D": "Sodium bicarbonate.", "E": "Sodium carbonate." }, "Correct Answer": "Sodium amide", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a4af7962-1239-4dc3-8c93-39c9a632ba95", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reordering of Cope is a reordering:", "Options": { "A": "From an allyl vinyl ether.", "B": "[1,3] -sigmatropic.", "C": "[1,2] -sigmatropic.", "D": "[3,3] -sigmatropic.", "E": "It is a cycloaddition [4 + 2]." }, "Correct Answer": "[3,3] -sigmatropic.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "05eae0a4-eb5b-4821-a409-b8223f8fc26f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A very important industrial method for the formation of carbon-nitrogen bonds is the transposition of Beckman, a reaction that transforms:", "Options": { "A": "A ketone in a pyridine.", "B": "An oxime in an amine.", "C": "An aldehyde in an amide.", "D": "A ketone in an amide.", "E": "An oxime in an amide." }, "Correct Answer": "An oxime in an amide.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f75fba43-a613-4e5f-8e47-78b4ea35621c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sodium borohydride is a reagent used in Organic Chemistry for its properties such as:", "Options": { "A": "Reducer.", "B": "Oxidizer", "C": "Alkylator", "D": "Acid.", "E": "Organometallic." }, "Correct Answer": "Reducer.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "59020000-d483-45e8-9216-12ea46ae0068", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The reaction of an alkene with metachloroperbenzoic acid causes a cyclic ether which is called:", "Options": { "A": "Furano", "B": "Dioxane", "C": "Epoxide", "D": "Azirano", "E": "Lactone" }, "Correct Answer": "Epoxide", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f32c8efd-76ae-42fc-9dab-9db075e38484", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The type of membrane transport that uses ionic gradients as an energy source is:", "Options": { "A": "Facilitated dissemination.", "B": "Passive transport", "C": "Primary active transport.", "D": "Secondary active transport.", "E": "Simple diffusion." }, "Correct Answer": "Secondary active transport.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "c17c2441-f1d8-4d2e-b843-9369e0692fb9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following covalent bonds does not appear in proteins ?:", "Options": { "A": "Phosphodiester linkage.", "B": "Amide link.", "C": "O-glucosidic bond.", "D": "Disulfide bond.", "E": "Hydrogen bond." }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphodiester linkage.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2229fb24-4ab7-4b89-8936-5163a3848102", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A promoter place in the DNA:", "Options": { "A": "Transcribe the repressor.", "B": "Start the transcription.", "C": "It encodes the RNA polymerase.", "D": "Regulate the termination.", "E": "Translate specific proteins." }, "Correct Answer": "Start the transcription.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "2c5cbbef-b3e1-4e8c-9179-f7982005db63", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following compounds can not serve as a precursor for the synthesis of glucose via gluconeogenesis ?:", "Options": { "A": "Acetate.", "B": "Glycerol", "C": "Lactate", "D": "Oxalacetate.", "E": "α-ketoglutarate." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetate.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "10fd4b83-9c0d-4ef9-b4de-0761496d074b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The first step in the folding of disordered polypetide chains is:", "Options": { "A": "Formation of the primary structure.", "B": "Formation of disulfide bridges.", "C": "Formation of aggregates.", "D": "Post-translational modifications.", "E": "Formation of secondary structure elements." }, "Correct Answer": "Formation of secondary structure elements.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b8397bf6-7111-4c50-a7ee-20ace0b76a01", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What RNA eukaryotic polymerase is involved in the transcription of messenger RNA (mRNA) ?:", "Options": { "A": "RNA Polymerase I.", "B": "RNA Polymerase II.", "C": "RNA Polymerase III.", "D": "RNA Polymerase IV.", "E": "Transcription of mRNA is carried out jointly by RNA Polymerase I and RNA Polymerase II." }, "Correct Answer": "RNA Polymerase II.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9c830555-4ad1-41df-8e4a-b9d95fef05ad", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation using inorganic phosphate:", "Options": { "A": "Hexokinase.", "B": "Fosfofructoquinasa.", "C": "Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "D": "Phosphoglycerate kinase.", "E": "Pyruvate kinase." }, "Correct Answer": "Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1373040f-4f37-4dd0-84af-53a330649140", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements is NOT true about glucagon ?:", "Options": { "A": "Activates hepatic glycogenesis.", "B": "Activates lipolysis in white adipose tissue.", "C": "Activates hepatic glycogenolysis.", "D": "It is a polypeptide.", "E": "It is synthesized in the α cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas." }, "Correct Answer": "Activates hepatic glycogenesis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9e69a680-eb85-4ea2-9f88-abcd2b165a4a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "How are the proteins involved in the DNA curl and compaction called ?:", "Options": { "A": "Kinases", "B": "Topoisomerases", "C": "Histones.", "D": "Phosphatases", "E": "DNA nucleases" }, "Correct Answer": "Histones.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "888de944-cacb-4404-8eba-9a03a3e23203", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Insulin regulates the synthesis of fatty acids:", "Options": { "A": "Activating phosphorylase", "B": "Dephosphorylating acetyl CoA carboxylase.", "C": "Inhibiting the formation of malonyl CoA.", "D": "Controlling the carnitine-acyl CoA transferase activity.", "E": "Activating the fatty acid synthetase." }, "Correct Answer": "Dephosphorylating acetyl CoA carboxylase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "361676d1-eb8c-4290-8f2f-67198896d35d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Oxidative phosphorylation involves:", "Options": { "A": "The oxidation of H2O to form O2.", "B": "Oxidation of O2 to form H2O.", "C": "The reduction of H2O to give O2.", "D": "The reduction of O2 to give H2O.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "The reduction of O2 to give H2O.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "05852342-0939-47e9-84c6-f1babde4d137", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glycogenin:", "Options": { "A": "It catalyzes the conversion of starch into glycogen.", "B": "It is the enzyme responsible for the formation of branches in glycogen.", "C": "It is the gene that codes for glycogen synthase.", "D": "It is the primer on which new chains of glycogen start.", "E": "Regulates glycogen synthesis." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the primer on which new chains of glycogen start.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "8e1d2674-66ac-45ae-9333-18641aca0183", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The altered or minority nitrogenous bases:", "Options": { "A": "They are not detected in DNA.", "B": "They are not detected in the RNA.", "C": "They protect genetic information.", "D": "They are not detected in the tRNA.", "E": "They are not able to mate." }, "Correct Answer": "They protect genetic information.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "01068d0d-726e-45c3-a3ad-63545207a0bc", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The precursor of all the pyrimidine nucleotides of the cell is:", "Options": { "A": "Uridine monophosphate (UMP).", "B": "Thymidine monophosphate (TMP).", "C": "Cytidine monophosphate (cmp).", "D": "Inosine monophosphate (IMP).", "E": "Guanidine monophosphate (GMP)." }, "Correct Answer": "Uridine monophosphate (UMP).", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e9b606b7-3631-4e56-aec3-f2d0eaa0d97e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "All the following statements describe characteristics of the peptide link EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "It has a trans configuration.", "B": "It is polar but without charge.", "C": "It forms a single bond by directly joining the α carbons of adjacent amino acids.", "D": "It does not present rotation around the link.", "E": "Is flat." }, "Correct Answer": "It forms a single bond by directly joining the α carbons of adjacent amino acids.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "3d919911-bddc-494c-9c91-2aeacec2c15c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "CO is toxic to aerobic organisms:", "Options": { "A": "Because it oxidizes the OH groups of the hemoglobin, preventing it from being able to fix O2 correctly.", "B": "Because it enters the mitochondria, picking up electrons from the transport chain with less efficiency than O2.", "C": "Because it joins the heme group with greater affinity than O2.", "D": "Because having a greater dipolar character, is more soluble than O2 in blood and blocks the exchange of O2 between air and blood at the level of the lungs.", "E": "None of the above is correct." }, "Correct Answer": "Because it joins the heme group with greater affinity than O2.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "a514aaf1-9dbb-4393-ab9f-27d8146c7310", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Pyridoxal phosphate is a prosthetic group of enzymes involved in reactions of:", "Options": { "A": "Acetylation", "B": "Desulfation.", "C": "Methylation", "D": "Reduction.", "E": "Transamination." }, "Correct Answer": "Transamination.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "e698ebba-b24e-4795-95a0-455cf1c87017", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following compounds in a fundamental intermediate of the synthesis of triacylglycerols and phospholipids:", "Options": { "A": "CDP-choline.", "B": "Phosphatidate", "C": "Triglyceride", "D": "Phosphatidylserine", "E": "CDP-diacylglycerol." }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphatidate", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "36e9e0d7-1819-4583-b37c-5bccc8ab085a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:", "Options": { "A": "Dipolar Ions", "B": "Non-polar molecules.", "C": "Positive and monovalent.", "D": "Hydrophobic", "E": "Negative and monovalent." }, "Correct Answer": "Dipolar Ions", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "2622a7fb-9837-4605-870f-c82d2bedd326", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Phosphatidylinositols:", "Options": { "A": "They are derivatives of glucocerebrosides.", "B": "They act as intracellular signals.", "C": "They are lysosomal lipids.", "D": "They are biological detergents.", "E": "They contain taurine or glycine." }, "Correct Answer": "They act as intracellular signals.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "dc813ae2-7dc2-4f08-9c1d-d90ef09be380", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton-motor force generated by electronic transport is used to:", "Options": { "A": "Create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.", "B": "Generate substrates (ADP and Pi) for ATP synthase.", "C": "Induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.", "D": "Oxidize NADH to NAD +.", "E": "Reduce O2 to H2O." }, "Correct Answer": "Induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "68f31570-64d8-4fa1-a4f1-1d7e8e49d40c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following statements is true about bilirubin:", "Options": { "A": "It is a catabolic product of the heme group.", "B": "It is a product of the urea cycle.", "C": "It is an intermediary of the Krebs cycle.", "D": "It is a precursor of hepatic gluconeogenesis.", "E": "It is a product of cholesterol degradation." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a catabolic product of the heme group.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "abc35dc8-f935-44e9-b017-f16530370ac9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following statements about sphingolipids is CERTAIN:", "Options": { "A": "They may have charge, but they are not amphipathic molecules.", "B": "They are formed by glycerol and fatty acids.", "C": "They contain two esterified fatty acids.", "D": "The cerebrosides and ganglosides are sphingolipids.", "E": "Terpenes are the main sphingolipids." }, "Correct Answer": "The cerebrosides and ganglosides are sphingolipids.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "bc594472-3219-4806-ac8f-5fc04bef2030", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the β-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids, what is the molecule that forms with the last three carbons to enter the citric acid cycle ?:", "Options": { "A": "Propionyl-CoA.", "B": "Methylmalonyl-CoA.", "C": "Succinyl-CoA.", "D": "Succinate", "E": "Malate." }, "Correct Answer": "Succinyl-CoA.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "48c5fd88-a46e-42e7-bfe2-d695a5d91e3d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following intermediaries can be isolated in yeasts that ferment wine and not in healthy muscle:", "Options": { "A": "Lactate", "B": "Acetaldehyde", "C": "Acetyl CoA", "D": "Citrate.", "E": "Oxalacetate." }, "Correct Answer": "Acetaldehyde", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "219e8114-4a22-42a6-aa65-d37b042af7bb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate which of the following compounds has antioxidant action:", "Options": { "A": "Vitamin B.", "B": "Vitamin D.", "C": "Vitamin E.", "D": "All the previous ones", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamin E.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "db622ead-3421-4797-ad74-0f8645eb2c35", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the sequencing of DNA by the Sanger method:", "Options": { "A": "The 2`-3` dideoxynucleotides are essential.", "B": "It is necessary to use suicide inhibitors of DNA polymerase.", "C": "DNA must maintain its double helix structure.", "D": "The DNA is hydrolyzed selectively.", "E": "The restriction endonucleases are fundamental." }, "Correct Answer": "The 2`-3` dideoxynucleotides are essential.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c0be8621-1ed5-447f-9ee8-17277af4a348", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In contrast to the bacterial ones, the eukaryotic chromosomes need multiple origins of replication because:", "Options": { "A": "They can not be replicated bidirectionally.", "B": "They are not usually circular.", "C": "The processivity of eukaryotic DNA polymerase is much lower than that of bacterial DNA polymerase.", "D": "Its replication rate is much slower, and they would need too much time using a single source.", "E": "They have several DNA polymerases for different purposes, and they need the corresponding variety of origins." }, "Correct Answer": "Its replication rate is much slower, and they would need too much time using a single source.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "a51c7856-cfa2-45a4-aca9-f3c177b2ce00", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hormonal stimulation of the formation of the second messenger inositol 1,4,5-trisfosfato (IP3) quickly leads to the release of what other intracellular messenger:", "Options": { "A": "Cyclic AMP.", "B": "Prostaglandin", "C": "Calcium.", "D": "Leukotriene", "E": "Thromboxane" }, "Correct Answer": "Calcium.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "18bf2b42-de80-4491-8360-c8123e990cc2", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Allopurinol, as an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase:", "Options": { "A": "It is suicidal, reversible.", "B": "It is suicidal, irreversible.", "C": "It is analogous to the transition state, reversible.", "D": "Inhibits the enzyme by proteolysis.", "E": "Allopurinol does not inhibit that enzyme." }, "Correct Answer": "It is suicidal, irreversible.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5fbab5e4-c72c-4853-bb20-79de5ac4ac83", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "On the molecular biology of cancer:", "Options": { "A": "Oncogenes are mutated derivatives of normal genes, called protooncogenes, whose function is to promote cell proliferation or survival.", "B": "Oncogenes are genes that synthesize proteins that inhibit cell proliferation.", "C": "The tumor suppressor genes synthesize proteins that inhibit cell death.", "D": "Protooncogenes synthesize proteins that promote cell death.", "E": "Apoptosis is a form of activation of proto-oncogenes." }, "Correct Answer": "Oncogenes are mutated derivatives of normal genes, called protooncogenes, whose function is to promote cell proliferation or survival.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "54974833-f6f8-40db-98c3-42d058f2106c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Of the following statements of the electron transport chain. Which is true ?:", "Options": { "A": "An FADH molecule can generate up to 2.5 molecules of ATP.", "B": "One molecule of NADH can generate up to 1.5 molecules of ATP.", "C": "Electrons flow from more positive reduction potentials to more negative reduction potentials.", "D": "Complex II (used by FADH2) does not transfer protons to the intermembrane space.", "E": "Complex III uses copper (Cu) atoms as cofactors." }, "Correct Answer": "Complex II (used by FADH2) does not transfer protons to the intermembrane space.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "74a1cd84-ac2d-4a29-96a7-d0ae1e1cf38d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "For which of the following steps of protein synthesis GTP (Guanosine triosphate) is needed:", "Options": { "A": "Activation of amino acids by aminioacyl-tRNA synthetases.", "B": "Union of ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "Translocation of nascent tRNA-protein complex from place A to place P.", "D": "Union of mRNA.", "E": "Union of signal recognition protein to ribosomes." }, "Correct Answer": "Translocation of nascent tRNA-protein complex from place A to place P.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "77c575a7-fb9a-4a05-93ab-96c859189d81", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The primosome:", "Options": { "A": "It is also called primasa or Dna G protein.", "B": "It is the complex responsible for the synthesis of the Okazaki fragments.", "C": "It is a bacterial DNA ligase.", "D": "It is located in the mitochondria.", "E": "It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "2fb56285-664c-45c6-ac62-66580032c0c1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Glycolysis and hepatic gluconeogenesis are regulated reciprocally by facilitated hormonal mechanisms, in addition to an important metabolite that determines whether glucose should be synthesized or degraded. Which?:", "Options": { "A": "Fructose 6-phosphate.", "B": "Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.", "C": "Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate.", "D": "Pyruvate.", "E": "Lactate" }, "Correct Answer": "Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1446ad65-763b-478d-85f6-d05dd21b5109", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following enzymes acts in the pentose phosphate route ?:", "Options": { "A": "Aldolase", "B": "Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "C": "Glycogen phosphorylase.", "D": "Fosfofructoquinasa-1.", "E": "Pyruvate kinase." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "744ee411-6ac5-4768-b34a-bcf85637bdea", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following strands of DNA has the same nucleotide sequence (except the change of T for U) as its primary transcript:", "Options": { "A": "The coding strand.", "B": "The mold thread.", "C": "The leading thread.", "D": "The delayed strand", "E": "Any." }, "Correct Answer": "The coding strand.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "d354c725-8864-485c-9064-b5cd57cb3197", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following steps of cholesterol biosynthesis is what controls the speed and place of metabolic regulation:", "Options": { "A": "Geranyl pyrophosphate Farnesyl pyrophosphate.", "B": "Squalene  Lanosterol", "C": "Lanosterol  Cholesterol.", "D": "Acetyl CoA  Acetoacetyl CoA.", "E": "3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA Mevalonic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA Mevalonic acid.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "de84b57a-7e6c-4936-8987-57d8641437ed", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the part of the antigen that is recognized by the antibody called ?:", "Options": { "A": "Ectopic.", "B": "Epimer.", "C": "Epithet.", "D": "Epitope.", "E": "Endogenous." }, "Correct Answer": "Epitope.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "00024e1a-c03b-4294-ae80-3b9224e58efb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The increase in standard free energy of ATP hydrolysis depends, among others, on the following structural characteristic:", "Options": { "A": "Its polar character.", "B": "Its amphipathic nature", "C": "Its stabilization by resonance.", "D": "Of the phosphoryl group number it contains.", "E": "Of the cation with which the soluble salt forms." }, "Correct Answer": "Its stabilization by resonance.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "1a1789ce-71f3-4e18-9649-411012206a12", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hepatic synthesis of methionine from homocysteine ​​requires:", "Options": { "A": "N5, N10 methenyl-tetrahydrofolate.", "B": "N10-formyl-tetrahydrofolate.", "C": "N5-formimino-tetrahydrofolate.", "D": "N5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate.", "E": "N5, N10 methylene-tetrahydrofolate." }, "Correct Answer": "N5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "6d49a5d1-8733-4e14-a3df-b32e6d317018", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to the structure of the genomes, the introns:", "Options": { "A": "They frequently occur in prokaryotic genomes.", "B": "There may be several in the same gene.", "C": "They encode rare amino acids in proteins.", "D": "They are transcribed and translated.", "E": "They have a high content in G: C pairs." }, "Correct Answer": "There may be several in the same gene.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "b084680a-dfa5-45b3-9db3-2430630d0522", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mitochondrial electronic transport and oxidative phosphorylation:", "Options": { "A": "They are two different processes, but coupled. Without electronic transport there will never be oxidative phosphorylation.", "B": "Without oxidative phosphorylation there can never be electronic transport.", "C": "The net yield of oxidative phosphorylation is about 2.5 moles of ATP per mole of FADH2.", "D": "Cyanide is toxic because it binds to ATP synthase.", "E": "Uncoupling agents inhibit ATP synthase." }, "Correct Answer": "They are two different processes, but coupled. Without electronic transport there will never be oxidative phosphorylation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c0c2c402-64b4-4ca4-ae61-f95bbd810493", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The glycolic fraction of the glycolipids of the membrane of eukaryotic cells:", "Options": { "A": "It is located on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane.", "B": "It always has sialic acid.", "C": "They are synthesized by the action of several glycosyl transferases.", "D": "It is a glucose oligomer.", "E": "It has no antigenic power." }, "Correct Answer": "They are synthesized by the action of several glycosyl transferases.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d5eef996-86b8-429f-9796-135d72c61817", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a hydrolytic reaction ?:", "Options": { "A": "Lactate dehydrogenase.", "B": "Chymotrypsin", "C": "Fumarasa", "D": "Triose phosphate isomerase.", "E": "RNA polymerase" }, "Correct Answer": "Chymotrypsin", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5fa9050f-b81e-4739-b265-d12160ff82d7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Type II restriction endonucleases cleave the DNA molecule:", "Options": { "A": "Within its recognition sequence.", "B": "Randomly", "C": "Out of the recognition sequence.", "D": "At the 5 'end.", "E": "At the 3 'end." }, "Correct Answer": "Within its recognition sequence.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "11f3c73a-797b-4fff-b2da-1c8d22eeb480", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The recombinant DNA is:", "Options": { "A": "A DNA molecule that activates heterologous recombination.", "B": "A precursor messenger RNA molecule.", "C": "A DNA molecule composed of segments covalently linked from two or more sources.", "D": "A diploid DNA molecule.", "E": "A multienzyme complex of DNA polymerases covalently linked." }, "Correct Answer": "A DNA molecule composed of segments covalently linked from two or more sources.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "8529c415-4630-4285-8d0a-1d7438bb4609", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The proofreading activity of the DNA Polymerase is an activity:", "Options": { "A": "5'-3'Exonuclease.", "B": "3'-5'Exonuclease.", "C": "Polymerizing 5'-3 '.", "D": "Endonuclease.", "E": "Transesterifier." }, "Correct Answer": "3'-5'Exonuclease.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "3511ffe3-0f69-4f25-bb1a-d772293b96b5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The differential modification of RNA:", "Options": { "A": "It can result in multiple products from one gene.", "B": "It occurs thanks to the transcription bubble.", "C": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase I.", "D": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II.", "E": "It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase III." }, "Correct Answer": "It can result in multiple products from one gene.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "b817958f-a16b-4529-8be1-4da22ea375a9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The new proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in:", "Options": { "A": "Golgi apparatus.", "B": "Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "Free polysomes.", "D": "Nucleus.", "E": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum." }, "Correct Answer": "Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "8388fd4d-cfbf-4887-a7e2-2e495930d1f1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following membranes would be more fluid:", "Options": { "A": "Lipid bilayer with polyunsaturated fatty acids of 18 carbon atoms.", "B": "Lipid bilayer with saturated fatty acids of 18 carbon atoms.", "C": "Lipid bilayer with saturated fatty acids of 16 carbon atoms.", "D": "Lipid bilayer with polyunsaturated fatty acids of 16 carbon atoms.", "E": "All are equivalent in terms of fluency." }, "Correct Answer": "Lipid bilayer with polyunsaturated fatty acids of 16 carbon atoms.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "3f76ad56-517b-45b9-bf57-3a77e32831ae", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The denaturing of DNA:", "Options": { "A": "It increases when the temperature decreases.", "B": "It is accompanied by an increase in the absorption of UV light.", "C": "DNA with high G / C content does so at a lower temperature than those rich in A / T.", "D": "It is irreversible.", "E": "Indicates the hydrolysis of phosphodiester bonds." }, "Correct Answer": "It is accompanied by an increase in the absorption of UV light.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "dde54d4f-e44c-4e75-8c7b-d41292d86ba3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What coenzyme is used in amino acid transamination reactions:", "Options": { "A": "FAD.", "B": "Biotin", "C": "Pyridoxal.", "D": "NAD +.", "E": "NADP +." }, "Correct Answer": "Pyridoxal.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "2364d123-87b6-42cc-91ab-0364681556c9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In the study of proteins. What is the purpose of treatment with β-mercaptoethanol ?:", "Options": { "A": "Hydrolyze the protein.", "B": "Break the disulfide bridges.", "C": "Add positive charges.", "D": "Add negative charges.", "E": "General an amino acid derivative in Edman degradation." }, "Correct Answer": "Break the disulfide bridges.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5240d91e-cef3-4731-afb1-3cfd06bce5d4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Catalase:", "Options": { "A": "Acts on hydrogen peroxide.", "B": "It results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide.", "C": "It acts on the superoxide anion.", "D": "It converts hydrogen peroxide into superoxide anion.", "E": "Use glutathione as a cofactor." }, "Correct Answer": "Acts on hydrogen peroxide.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5f3a54d7-a7d9-4cbb-9566-6ea6991841af", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What happens to the kinetic parameters of a michael enzyme in the presence of a competitive inhibitor ?:", "Options": { "A": "Vmax decreases, Km increases.", "B": "Vmax decreases, Km decreases.", "C": "Vmax decreases, Km does not change.", "D": "Vmax does not vary, Km increases.", "E": "Vmax does not vary, Km decreases." }, "Correct Answer": "Vmax does not vary, Km increases.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "56371ec6-7224-4c87-afe6-6b4858438f26", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following products of triglyceride degradation and subsequent β-oxidation can undergo gluconeogenesis:", "Options": { "A": "Propionyl CoA.", "B": "Acetyl CoA", "C": "All the ketone bodies.", "D": "Some amino acids", "E": "β-Hydroxybutyrate." }, "Correct Answer": "Propionyl CoA.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "c501ba78-da06-43b8-8cef-04b7a9553056", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The active center of an enzyme:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by functional groups that come from the central amino acid sequence of the enzyme.", "B": "It constitutes a large part of the total volume of the enzyme.", "C": "Increases the ΔG of a reaction, increasing the speed of it.", "D": "It has a high amount of water molecules together with amino acids.", "E": "It is the region that joins the substrates and contains the waste that participates in the formation and breaking of links." }, "Correct Answer": "It is the region that joins the substrates and contains the waste that participates in the formation and breaking of links.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "01b5956c-e4c7-456e-b1ea-558e5719abce", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "An allosteric modulator influences the activity of an enzyme:", "Options": { "A": "Competing with a substrate for the catalytic site.", "B": "Joining the enzyme at a site other than the catalytic site.", "C": "Changing the nature of the formed product.", "D": "Changing the specificity of the enzyme for the substrate.", "E": "Denaturing the enzyme." }, "Correct Answer": "Joining the enzyme at a site other than the catalytic site.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0ef3aa5a-2213-4619-9904-bc4d8d9d9e2b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Why is chlorophyll green ?:", "Options": { "A": "Absorbs all wavelengths of the visible spectrum.", "B": "Absorbs wavelengths only from the red and ultra-red parts of the spectrum (680nm, 700nm).", "C": "Absorbs wavelengths in the red and blue parts of the visible spectrum.", "D": "Absorbs wavelengths only from the blue part of the visible spectrum.", "E": "Absorbs in the near ultraviolet." }, "Correct Answer": "Absorbs wavelengths in the red and blue parts of the visible spectrum.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "794b441e-6289-4546-bde2-a294b1972cd9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Transketolase catalyzes the transformation of ribose-5-phosphate and xylulose-5-phosphate into:", "Options": { "A": "Two molecules of ribulose-5-phosphate.", "B": "Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.", "C": "Fructose-6-phosphate and erythrose-4-phosphate.", "D": "Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate.", "E": "6-Phosphogluconate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "9a803727-1ff9-495e-a3ee-3f1313a6e476", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In oxidative stress it is characteristic:", "Options": { "A": "Decrease in the concentration of oxidized glutathione.", "B": "Increase in the concentration of reduced glutathione.", "C": "Decreased production of reactive oxygen species.", "D": "Increase in the production of reactive oxygen species.", "E": "None of the previous are true." }, "Correct Answer": "Increase in the production of reactive oxygen species.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9b4e50d3-3f0d-494c-bc3b-8d4f8bf41e8b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which amino acid is a precursor of neurotransmissions such as dopamine, adrenaline and noradrenaline ?:", "Options": { "A": "Tryptophan", "B": "Serina", "C": "Tyrosine", "D": "Aspartic.", "E": "Glutamic" }, "Correct Answer": "Tyrosine", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "26bb9e18-ea00-4023-977c-31872ce97ea7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following compounds acts as a reducing agent in fatty acid biosynthesis ?:", "Options": { "A": "NADH", "B": "NADPH.", "C": "FAD +.", "D": "FADH.", "E": "NADP +." }, "Correct Answer": "NADPH.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "4ba8afe3-b9dd-4d58-8431-f33eed970fc5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "If an animal organism has deficiencies in the path of pentose phosphate:", "Options": { "A": "There would be an excess of activity of the enzyme glutathione reductase.", "B": "The pentose phosphate would be integrated into the glycolytic pathway.", "C": "NADH would be used to replace NADPH.", "D": "It would stimulate the synthesis of fatty acids in adipose tissue.", "E": "The concentration of NADPH would decrease." }, "Correct Answer": "The concentration of NADPH would decrease.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "7fcab9ed-7dff-490c-bd09-d8944b00e7ad", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The folded sheet β:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by a single polypetide chain.", "B": "It presents a distance between adjacent amino acids of approximately 4 ångströms.", "C": "It is formed by the union of two or more strands by hydrogen bonds.", "D": "Presents the side chains of contiguous amino acids pointing to the same side.", "E": "They are of two types: parallel, where the chains of the β sheet go in a different direction and antiparallel, where they go in the same direction." }, "Correct Answer": "It is formed by the union of two or more strands by hydrogen bonds.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "85007026-a58f-4b0e-8683-dfec5f6ec2d3", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In which part of the cell is ribosomal RNA synthesized ?:", "Options": { "A": "Nucleolus", "B": "Ribosomes.", "C": "Vacuolas", "D": "Golgi apparatus.", "E": "Endoplasmic reticulum." }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleolus", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "ba561a36-ef82-42e2-892a-12e5ecdd176d", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The arginosuccinasa:", "Options": { "A": "In an enzyme of the citric acid cycle.", "B": "Converts arginine to lysine.", "C": "It is activated by the allosteric effector N-acetylglutamate.", "D": "It produces fumarate.", "E": "It is a glycogenic amino acid." }, "Correct Answer": "It produces fumarate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "4f6334a6-6693-4c01-bf4b-dd5bd405172c", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In animals, where is most of the extracellular material components synthesized ?:", "Options": { "A": "In the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "B": "In the rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "C": "In the extracellular layer itself.", "D": "In the plasma membrane.", "E": "In the cytoplasm of the cell." }, "Correct Answer": "In the rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "57a33281-7f6e-43b8-b267-79e2d30fa341", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the role of the helicase in replication ?:", "Options": { "A": "Join the single-stranded DNA to prevent the double helix from forming again.", "B": "Catalyze the union of nucleotides.", "C": "Correct the errors that occur in the replication.", "D": "Synthesize a primer to start replication.", "E": "Mechanically separate the strands of double-stranded DNA." }, "Correct Answer": "Mechanically separate the strands of double-stranded DNA.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "fe1850ae-35cd-4d64-a1a3-61fc1b95a056", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Nitric oxide:", "Options": { "A": "It is synthesized from methionine.", "B": "Activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA).", "C": "It binds to receptors coupled to G proteins (GPCR).", "D": "Induces relaxation of the vascular endothelium.", "E": "It binds to receptors with protein tyrosine kinase (PTK) activity." }, "Correct Answer": "Induces relaxation of the vascular endothelium.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "db257fa3-46b0-4693-a7da-23b1d733b778", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The proteasome:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by 21 homologous subunits organized in 3 rings.", "B": "It is a protein complex that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ubiquitinated proteins.", "C": "It is found only in animal eukaryotic cells.", "D": "Digest acylated proteins.", "E": "It is activated by a drug, bertezomil, in therapy for multiple myeloma." }, "Correct Answer": "It is a protein complex that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ubiquitinated proteins.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "512672bb-37f7-4f29-909c-2c77aa9b62a1", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Regarding telomerases, which of the following statements is not true ?:", "Options": { "A": "They have reverse transcriptase activity.", "B": "They prevent shortening of telomeres.", "C": "Its defect promotes carcinogenesis.", "D": "Its activity is essential for the stability of chromosomes.", "E": "They are ribozymes." }, "Correct Answer": "Its defect promotes carcinogenesis.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "91e3c0c1-229d-4b45-836f-f6fc0a4a22c6", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A person who presents with urine a high [Urea], possibly leads a diet:", "Options": { "A": "Very low in carbohydrates and very high in proteins.", "B": "Very high in fat and low in protein.", "C": "Balanced except in carbohydrates.", "D": "Moderate in carbohydrates and balanced in fats and proteins.", "E": "Very high in carbohydrates and very low in protein." }, "Correct Answer": "Very low in carbohydrates and very high in proteins.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "9f065371-2a17-440c-865f-dd6980ab1716", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The urea cycle:", "Options": { "A": "It involves the degradation of urea.", "B": "It was proposed by Hatch and Slack.", "C": "It contains a reaction that transforms citrulline into ornithine.", "D": "It is intimately linked to glycolysis.", "E": "It begins with the formation of carbamylphosphate." }, "Correct Answer": "It begins with the formation of carbamylphosphate.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "37d420cc-992e-47e1-889b-3da48e7ebc51", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The speed of the electron transport chain:", "Options": { "A": "It depends on the concentration of oxygen.", "B": "Increases when the concentration of ATP increases.", "C": "It is determined by the need for ATP.", "D": "It is independent of ADP phosphorylation.", "E": "It increases when the concentration of NADH and FADH2 rises. 6" }, "Correct Answer": "It is determined by the need for ATP.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "0fb12574-8098-4659-88a3-2fd88c2d87c8", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The restriction enzymes hydrolyze bonds:", "Options": { "A": "Phosphodiester", "B": "Glucosidics", "C": "Peptides", "D": "Ionic", "E": "By hydrogen bridges." }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphodiester", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "e282dcf6-c725-4b3d-b590-85277c6bc7d5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In humans, the synthesis of aspartate from oxaloacetate is catalysed by:", "Options": { "A": "Oxalacetate decarboxylase.", "B": "Aspartate synthetase.", "C": "Aspartate dehydrogenase.", "D": "Pyridoxal phosphate-dependent transaminase.", "E": "Oxalacetate ligase." }, "Correct Answer": "Pyridoxal phosphate-dependent transaminase.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "42404bd8-f26a-48b6-8a7b-008bc5410f44", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The micro RNA (miRNA):", "Options": { "A": "They are coding RNAs.", "B": "They inhibit transcription.", "C": "They inhibit the translation.", "D": "Activate transcription.", "E": "Activate the translation." }, "Correct Answer": "They inhibit the translation.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "c7a85ed9-a426-4e12-aa7e-3b16f3bac0ab", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What characteristic is not common in biological membranes ?:", "Options": { "A": "They are fluid.", "B": "They are composed of lipids and proteins.", "C": "They are asymmetrical.", "D": "They are electrically polarized.", "E": "The various components are assembled covalently." }, "Correct Answer": "The various components are assembled covalently.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "351af5d1-557b-4ccf-bf14-08b99463ce02", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hydrogen atoms with partial positive charge of one water molecule can interact with the oxygen atoms, with negative partial charge of another water molecule. What name does this interaction receive? :", "Options": { "A": "Hydrophobic", "B": "Polar.", "C": "Hydrogen bridge.", "D": "Van der Wall.", "E": "Zwitterion." }, "Correct Answer": "Hydrogen bridge.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "d04d6b81-54b1-4f6a-a9ff-035199006a81", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In relation to DNA replication, the term processivity indicates:", "Options": { "A": "Error rate of the polymerase.", "B": "Deletion of one or more bases in the DNA.", "C": "Specificity in the speed of replication.", "D": "The ability of the enzyme to catalyze multiple consecutive reactions without detaching from the substrate.", "E": "1,2 and 3." }, "Correct Answer": "The ability of the enzyme to catalyze multiple consecutive reactions without detaching from the substrate.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e95e5b09-9c78-4307-bee9-eff082a1aa15", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hepatic synthesis of methionine from homocysteine ​​requires:", "Options": { "A": "Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase.", "B": "Methylcobalamin.", "C": "5'-Adenosilcobalamin.", "D": "Coenzyme B6.", "E": "Methionine adenosyl transferase." }, "Correct Answer": "Methylcobalamin.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "0b7a62c4-e313-4ce9-9703-217524a1b06e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) by phospholipase C generates the following second messengers:", "Options": { "A": "Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate and triacylglycerol.", "B": "Inositol 1,4, 5-trisphosphate and glycerol.", "C": "Inositol 1,4, 5-trisphosphate and diacylglycerol.", "D": "Inositol 4,5-bisphosphate and diacylglycerol.", "E": "Inositol 4,5-bisphosphate and glycerol." }, "Correct Answer": "Inositol 1,4, 5-trisphosphate and diacylglycerol.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "016d8ebb-7c4c-4d4f-8466-56733d45959f", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The LDL:", "Options": { "A": "They transport cholesterol to the tissues.", "B": "They transport cholesterol to the liver.", "C": "They transport \"good\" cholesterol.", "D": "Low blood levels are associated with a lower risk of heart attack.", "E": "They have a high density." }, "Correct Answer": "They transport cholesterol to the tissues.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "68c55ec7-8167-4ad7-8287-be24552650ea", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What type of amino acid side chains will compete with saline ions for solvation water ?:", "Options": { "A": "Apolares.", "B": "Aliphatic", "C": "Aromatic", "D": "Polar", "E": "Without charge." }, "Correct Answer": "Polar", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "02abc940-185e-40a4-a298-419525f471d9", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What is the first level of organization of DNA in chromosomes':", "Options": { "A": "Histones.", "B": "Nucleosomes.", "C": "Sugar-phosphate chains.", "D": "Proteosomes", "E": "Nucleotides" }, "Correct Answer": "Nucleosomes.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "8af45bce-329b-4082-9095-5bbf29096a04", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which process is not related to a proton gradient ?:", "Options": { "A": "Oxidative phosphorylation", "B": "Synthesis of NADPH.", "C": "Glucolysis", "D": "Heat production", "E": "Active transport." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucolysis", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "89db7b59-e020-4a11-ab38-5c81e93799cb", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The thromboxanes:", "Options": { "A": "They induce platelet aggregation.", "B": "They inhibit platelet aggregation.", "C": "They act as bronchodilators in the respiratory system.", "D": "They are produced in the membranes of all cells.", "E": "They are derived from saturated fatty acids." }, "Correct Answer": "They induce platelet aggregation.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "54e4ea4e-e8ea-47d0-9525-aee191255450", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "What sequence of RNA bases will be produced when the AGGCCTTTACGC DNA fragment is transcribed ?:", "Options": { "A": "TCCGGAAATGCG.", "B": "AGGCCUUUACGC.", "C": "UGGCCUUUUGCG", "D": "UGGCCUUUUCGC.", "E": "UCCGGAAAUGCG." }, "Correct Answer": "UCCGGAAAUGCG.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "ad04632e-1c26-41ce-aa79-e0744f9a0bac", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme with activity:", "Options": { "A": "DNAsa.", "B": "Protease", "C": "RNAsa.", "D": "Lipasa", "E": "Glycosidase" }, "Correct Answer": "Protease", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "16a5c72c-ff67-4bec-9f3a-6de2d632dd5b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Biotin is a transporter of:", "Options": { "A": "CO2", "B": "Phosphoryl", "C": "Acilo", "D": "Methyl.", "E": "Electrons" }, "Correct Answer": "CO2", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "547530cd-8276-422c-8bfe-b66834110246", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Intestinal absorption of carbohydrates by absorptive cells:", "Options": { "A": "It can be carried out with monosaccharides and disaccharides.", "B": "Sucrose is transported by sucrase.", "C": "Glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion and by Na + -dependent facilitated transport.", "D": "The facilitated glucose transporters, which do not bind Na +, are located on the luminal side of the absorptive cell.", "E": "Glucose and fructose are absorbed by transporters other than glucose." }, "Correct Answer": "Glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion and by Na + -dependent facilitated transport.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "da79c6b6-68d9-42d9-822d-5555c227faba", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Ultraviolet radiation changes the structure of DNA by:", "Options": { "A": "Rupture of phosphodiester bonds.", "B": "Deamination of nitrogenous bases.", "C": "Depurinization", "D": "Formation of cyclobutyl rings of pyrimidines.", "E": "Hydroxylation of nitrogenous bases." }, "Correct Answer": "Formation of cyclobutyl rings of pyrimidines.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "eef458af-d0ee-4caa-b05a-29d757ef8b56", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Apoptosis is:", "Options": { "A": "The cellular senescence.", "B": "A form of programmed cell death.", "C": "Cell migration", "D": "A mode of cellular reprogramming.", "E": "The process of cell differentiation." }, "Correct Answer": "A form of programmed cell death.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5da0f53d-c485-4dd5-b32c-0120197b61a7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The mitochondrial genome:", "Options": { "A": "It is circular.", "B": "It is single-strand.", "C": "It encodes all mitochondrial proteins.", "D": "It is part of the nuclear DNA.", "E": "None of the above." }, "Correct Answer": "It is circular.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "552dd854-d5bd-4958-b16b-3926b1bfdf6a", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The lipogenesis takes place mainly in:", "Options": { "A": "The mitochondria'.", "B": "The cytosol.", "C": "The peroxisomes.", "D": "The lysosomes.", "E": "The lipid rafts of the membranes." }, "Correct Answer": "The cytosol.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5de750ba-bf1d-4ce8-9eef-6dece7bf1092", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The non-protein molecules that bind to the protein part of the enzyme constitute the complete enzyme are called:", "Options": { "A": "Cofactors", "B": "Metallic ions", "C": "Coenzymes.", "D": "Vitamins", "E": "Prosthetic groups." }, "Correct Answer": "Cofactors", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "5b7b1c98-d8bb-4d33-b6de-9ea5a4ccfbbf", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Form B of DNA:", "Options": { "A": "It is formed by a double helix levorotatory with two antiparallel nucleotide chains.", "B": "It is wider and longer than form A.", "C": "It has pairs of nitrogenous bases perpendicular to the axis of the helix.", "D": "Corresponds to dehydrated DNA.", "E": "It is the minority form presented by DNA under physiological conditions." }, "Correct Answer": "It has pairs of nitrogenous bases perpendicular to the axis of the helix.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "b0563b80-d947-4309-8483-22c7c0a0adb5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Hydroxylation of Lys and Pro residues in collagen requires:", "Options": { "A": "Vitamin B.", "B": "Vitamin A.", "C": "Vitamin D.", "D": "Vitamin C.", "E": "None of the above options." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamin C.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "1879654c-3adb-423d-aaa0-ec99be9a7d5e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "All of the following is part of the nucleosides EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "Phosphate group.", "B": "Deoxyribose", "C": "Ribosa.", "D": "Pentose", "E": "Pyrrhic base." }, "Correct Answer": "Phosphate group.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "68fb005c-f0fa-4b56-9ea1-1aa78ec76798", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "All the following events occur during the formation of phosphoenolpyruvate from pyruvate EXCEPT:", "Options": { "A": "CO2 is consumed.", "B": "CO2 comes out.", "C": "CoA is needed.", "D": "ATP hydrolyzes.", "E": "GTP is hydrolyzed." }, "Correct Answer": "CoA is needed.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "f6067e9c-41b7-4cde-961e-17be561f3573", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The final product of the cytosolic fatty acid synthase in humans is acid:", "Options": { "A": "Oleic", "B": "Arachidonic.", "C": "Linoleic", "D": "Palmitic.", "E": "Palmitoleic" }, "Correct Answer": "Palmitic.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "e338d1ed-647e-4671-bf05-f0db42203eed", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following options is NOT an effect of insulin ?:", "Options": { "A": "Stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis.", "B": "Stimulates the uptake of glucose at the level of white adipose tissue.", "C": "Stimulates lipogenesis at the level of white adipose tissue.", "D": "Stimulates glycogen genesis in skeletal muscle.", "E": "It stimulates glucose uptake at the muscle level." }, "Correct Answer": "Stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "0840e006-bd63-4b8f-b1e6-44dbe38cc451", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin ?:", "Options": { "A": "Vitamin A.", "B": "Vitamin C.", "C": "Vitamin D.", "D": "Vitamin E.", "E": "Vitamin K." }, "Correct Answer": "Vitamin C.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "96dbeb9b-f347-431f-bdfe-09a5220e3efe", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "About free radicals:", "Options": { "A": "They are compounds that contain two or three unpaired electrons in an outer orbital.", "B": "Reactive oxygen species (ROS) in the cell are only generated enzymatically.", "C": "Hydrogen peroxide is the most damaging radical in the cell.", "D": "The hydroxyl radical originates non-enzymatically (Heber-Weiss reaction) and damages proteins and DNA.", "E": "Oxygen is a triradical." }, "Correct Answer": "The hydroxyl radical originates non-enzymatically (Heber-Weiss reaction) and damages proteins and DNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "fc9c3695-086a-418b-8635-7a49aaed8212", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Which of the following characteristics of the genetic code is NOT CORRECT ?:", "Options": { "A": "The sequence of nitrogenous bases of a given gene has a fixed reading frame and no punctuation marks.", "B": "It is degenerate, because for many amino acids there is more than one codon that encodes it.", "C": "The degeneration of the genetic code supposes an adaptive mechanism that reduces the harmful effects of the mutations.", "D": "It is totally universal, allowing the heterologous expression of human proteins (eg insulin) in prokaryotic organisms such as E. coli.", "E": "Its reading is always done from the 5'-phosphate end towards the hydroxyl of the messenger RNA (mRNA)." }, "Correct Answer": "It is totally universal, allowing the heterologous expression of human proteins (eg insulin) in prokaryotic organisms such as E. coli.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "5ba29b50-f3f8-40be-b85d-1b276c7544c7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Sulfonic acids are converted to sulfonyl chlorides by treatment with:", "Options": { "A": "Methylene chloride", "B": "Chlorine.", "C": "Sodium chloride.", "D": "Thionyl chloride.", "E": "Chloroform." }, "Correct Answer": "Thionyl chloride.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "f507d698-2fb8-4a2a-bb11-5954966c64a7", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases:", "Options": { "A": "In conjunction with another enzyme, they bind the amino acid to the tRNA.", "B": "They interact directly with free ribosomes.", "C": "They exist in multiple forms for each amino acid.", "D": "They require GTP to activate the amino acid.", "E": "\"Recognize\" specific tRNA molecules and specific amino acids." }, "Correct Answer": "\"Recognize\" specific tRNA molecules and specific amino acids.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "5d7dff3a-e094-4ef4-9184-fbdfaf0c8a91", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Mass spectrometry is combined with chromatography to generate a very powerful analytical tool. With regard to mass spectrometry (MS), it can be said that:", "Options": { "A": "The electronic ionization is based on the ion-molecule reactions between the reactive gas ions and the analyte molecules.", "B": "The linear quadrupole mass analyzer consists of four cylinders that are placed in parallel so that they are positively and negatively charged alternately.", "C": "The flight time analyzer is based on a tube of highly charged material so that only the opposite charge ions enter and separate.", "D": "The ion trap can be placed at the end of the chromatographic column for molecular ions from the already separated analytes and impact on the screen of a radioactive detector.", "E": "The ionization method known as MALDI is based on the desorption of ions from a matrix in the form of a gel by rapid bombardment of supercritical gas." }, "Correct Answer": "The linear quadrupole mass analyzer consists of four cylinders that are placed in parallel so that they are positively and negatively charged alternately.", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "5b2ee57d-808b-4e73-acf6-209d051eccd4", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "In protein biosynthesis, base pairing takes place during the translation process between:", "Options": { "A": "RNA and DNA", "B": "DNA and ribosomal RNA", "C": "Transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA", "D": "The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA.", "E": "18S ribosomal RNA and 5S ribosomal RNA." }, "Correct Answer": "The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA.", "Correct Option": "D" }, "id": "9f83c8cf-3c6d-4146-b9be-e29becc568d5", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The synthesis with malonic ester is an important method to prepare:", "Options": { "A": "Ketones", "B": "Aldehydes.", "C": "Alcohols", "D": "Amides", "E": "Acids" }, "Correct Answer": "Acids", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "b886e80f-56c3-4d93-832f-9aea4df9ae51", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "The analysis by potentiometric redisolution is characterized:", "Options": { "A": "By using the square wave as an element of excitation.", "B": "Because the redisolution stage is carried out without agitation.", "C": "Because the reoxidation step is carried out by an oxidizing agent.", "D": "Because currents are measured in the redisolution stage.", "E": "Because the redisolution is carried out at constant potential." }, "Correct Answer": "Because the reoxidation step is carried out by an oxidizing agent.", "Correct Option": "C" }, "id": "be560fba-b7b2-4cb0-91dc-f4c1477cdb5b", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "After the reaction of some xenobiotics with glutathione, the final product is formed:", "Options": { "A": "Sulfanil urea.", "B": "Reduced glutathione", "C": "Oxidized glutathione.", "D": "Thiosulfate.", "E": "Mercapturic acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Mercapturic acid.", "Correct Option": "E" }, "id": "f824e859-c25f-44b9-88d1-88d947de6542", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "Indicate, which of the compounds listed below, has a higher acidity:", "Options": { "A": "Acetic acid.", "B": "Hydrogen bromide", "C": "Sulfuric acid.", "D": "Carbonic acid.", "E": "Nitric acid." }, "Correct Answer": "Hydrogen bromide", "Correct Option": "B" }, "id": "a9fdd2a7-1a79-4257-9ff2-ec2d445c379e", "topic_name": "chemistry" }, { "data": { "Question": "A conjugated protein is:", "Options": { "A": "A protein that contains chemical components different from the permanently associated amino acids.", "B": "A protein that contains amino acids with side chains with conjugated bonds.", "C": "A protein that contains chemical components that make it insoluble.", "D": "A protein incorrectly folded.", "E": "A denatured and inactivated protein." }, "Correct Answer": "A protein that contains chemical components different from the permanently associated amino acids.", "Correct Option": "A" }, "id": "08dca8a0-3c94-4bdf-a7dc-5091f903c5a2", "topic_name": "chemistry" } ]