What abnormalities are in favor of ketoacidosis?

False, the urinary anion hole is not used during metabolic acidosis with indosed substances

False, the plasma anion hole is increased


Which blood gas elements support hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis of tubular origin? (one or more exact propositions)

False, it is negative when the origin is digestive. Here the urinary anion hole must be positive

False, PCO2 in metabolic acidosis is decreased to compensate

False, bicarbonate is decreased in metabolic acidosis

True, the pH to be in acidosis must be less than 7.38


Are signs of hyperkalemia on ECG: (one or more exact proposals)

The pointed head (pointed T waves) of the grandfather (elongation of the PR) widens the priest (widening of the QRS) without his fart (disappearance of the P wave).


Water constitutes about X of the weight in an adult: (one or more exact propositions)


Regarding proximal tubular acidosis type 2? (one or more exact propositions)

It is due to a defect in proximal secretion of bicarbonates

False, proximal tubular reabsorption defect of bicarbonates

We can find phospho-gluco-amino diabetes

False, it is low and is aggravated by the contribution of alkaline


What are the abnormalities found in respiratory acidosis being compensated? (one or more exact propositions)

False, decreased bicarbonate in metabolic acidosis


Which of the etiologies responsible for hypotonic hyponatremia (< 285 mOsm/L), which is (are) associated with a normal extracellular hydration state? (one or more exact propositions)

The extracellular compartment is increased, with the presence of edema, ascites, pleurisy, pegardic effusion, etc.

The extracellular compartment is decreased. We have dehydration (skin fold, hypotension, tachycardia, ...)

These are the three causes to know hyponatremia (Na < 135) hypotonic hypotonic (Osm < 285) with normal extracellular sector (no edema, no skin fold).


A repetitive discharge of muscle fibers (in a muscle disease) or neurons (in epilepsy) can be caused by several situations. Which? (one or more exact propositions)

To be in a situation of repetitive discharge, the membrane potential must increase. So whether there is an exit of the anions, or an entry of the cations (to go from -70, i.e. the basic membrane potential, to a higher potential). So we want to open the K+ channels, lower the operation of the Na+/K+ pump, close the Cl- channels.

True. If the K+ channels no longer open, the K+ remains in the cell and increases the membrane potential

If the K+ channels remain open, all the K+ will come out, there will be much fewer cations in the cell, the membrane potential will decrease

True, the lower the Cl- enters, the less the membrane potential decreases.


How to tell the difference between potomania and diabetes insipidus? (one or more exact propositions)

If diabetes insipidus is peripheral, it's not going to change anything

True. If polyuria stops: potomania. Otherwise: diabetes insipidus.


What changes can lead to membrane hyperpolarization? (one or more exact propositions)

The opening of the Na+ channels causes Na+ to enter the cell, which participates in depolarization.

True. Hyperpolarization is an increase in the absolute value of the membrane voltage = the membrane potential becomes super negative. In general, a normal resting potential is considered to be around -70 mV. For it to decrease even more, it is necessary: either that there is an exit of cations (i.e. K+ or Na+) or that there is an entry of anions (i.e. Cl-). For potassium to leave the cell, there must be an opening of the K+ channels (the ions come out on their own because they are much more concentrated in the cell than outside). For the Na+ to come out, the Na+/K+ ATP pump must work more (it brings out Na+ to bring in K+).

The anions (chlorine) would have to enter the cell to increase the anions and thus lower the membrane potential, making the cell hyper-polarized


What are the signs of intracellular hyperhydration? (one or more exact propositions)

It is a sign of extracellular hyperhydration


You receive in consultation Mr DESBOIS Robin, 76 years old, who describes himself as a "bon vivant". He limps when he arrives at your consultation and has his right foot bare. He says that the pain started in the middle of the night, and that since then he throws him, whether he walks or not. You examine it and brilliantly diagnose a first attack of gout on the 1st metatarsophalangeal, which you treat just as well. You see him again two weeks later at your consultation, to talk to him about the rest. What are the real propositions? (one or more exact propositions)

In this patient, you need to wait for 2 gout attacks before introducing treatment

False, hypouricemic treatment is introduced at the first gout attack

Foods rich in uric acid are organ meats and seafood

True, foods rich in purines and suppliers of uric acids are organ meats, brewer's yeast, seafood, tea, strong alcohol, sodas and beer even without alcohol.

This patient is advised to stop beer, but he can continue non-alcoholic beer.

If treatment is introduced, the uric acid target will be 70mg/L

The target is 60mg/L one of the few standards that we must know by heart!

In this patient we will choose Allopurinol or Febuxostat as background treatment

True, these are the two background treatment options


You have introduced a background treatment with ALLOPURINOL, and you explain to the patient the side effects of this treatment and in particular serious side effects, requiring a consultation in the emergency room. Which of the side effects described below may be attributable to ALLOPURINOL? (one or more exact propositions)

True, there is a concern for a serious allergic reaction during treatment with ALLOPURINOL. These are not the only side effects (neutropenia, digestive disorders), but they are essential to remember


In which cases may alpha-1-antitrypsin be indicated? (one or more exact propositions)


What non-drug measures are indicated for the treatment of COPD? (one or more exact propositions)


What are the differential diagnoses of COPD? (one or more exact propositions)


Which antibiotics are used as a 1st line in an exacerbation of COPD? (one or more exact propositions)

Reserved for special cases, not systematic


What are the possible treatments for COPD? (one or more exact propositions)


What results of EFR can be found in COPD? (one or more exact propositions)

False, rather found in asthma which is a reversible TVO

CPT> 120% defines chest distention, possibly found in COPD


What is the systematic screening offered for any pneumonia? (only one answer expected)


What are the 3 criteria for hospitalization of bronchiolitis? (HAS 2019, included in the College of Pediatrics 2021)

respiratory rate greater than 30 per minute

No cut-off for respiratory rate in 2021 College of Pediatrics

No cut-off for heart rate in 2021 College of Pediatrics


What germs can cause community-acquired acute pneumonia? (one or more exact propositions)


From what age can we no longer talk about bronchiolitis? (only one answer expected)


What are the four different causes of excavated pneumonia?

It is a fungus of the sweet name of Histoplasma capsulatum


What are the two treatments of choice for a CAP by superinfection of influenza?


What are the 3 entities of adult community lower respiratory infections?


What clinical signs support acute bronchitis? (one or more exact propositions)

Their absence is an important negative sign

No dyspnea, no physical signs usually apart from fever and viral symptoms


What is the probabilistic antibiotic combination of choice in ICU/REA of a CAP in a non-immunocompromised patient? (only one exact answer)

This is a relatively useless combination since it covers the same germs

This combination targets P. aeruginosa. It is therefore only put in place in case of risk factors (bronchiectasis, bronchial dilation, cystic fibrosis, immunosuppression, ...)

Cotrimoxazole is added for immunosuppression only.

It is the antibiotic of choice for the elderly (outpatient or hospitalized)


What are the treatments for acute bronchitis in healthy adults? (one or more exact propositions)


What are the criteria for CRB 65? (one or more exact propositions)


What consequences can chronic respiratory failure have? (one or more exact propositions)

Chronic hypoxemia is compensated by polycythemia that leads to blood hyperviscosity and an increased risk of thrombosis

Declated oedema due to fluid retention attributed to an abnormality in the regulation of natriuretic factor or as a result of pulmonary hypertension

Due to decompensation of chronic respiratory failure


What etiologies of chronic respiratory failure are RVCs? (one or more exact propositions)

Mixed disorder: restrictive and obstructive


Which etiologies of respiratory failure are mixed ventilatory disorders? (two answers expected)


What are the main causes of exacerbation of chronic respiratory failure? (one or more exact propositions)

The 3 main causes of exacerbation to look for:
- Lower respiratory infections: pneumonia, bronchitis
- Dysfunction of the left ventricle (pulmonary edema) and rhythm disorders
-Pulmonary embolism


What are the treatments for chronic respiratory failure? (one or more exact propositions)


Which of the following conditions are etiologies of acute dyspnea (and not chronic dyspnea)? (one or more exact propositions)

Obstruction of the upper airway by a foreign body


What is the prevalence of asthma in adults in France?


What is the proportion of disharmonious IUGR?

This is the proportion of IUGR harmonious


Is done on ultrasound by quantifying amniotic fluid

Is done with Doppler of the uterine arteries

Looking for an increase in placental resistance

Looking for brain sparing secondary to hypoxia


How many AS is Rophylac injected in Rh- patients?

Rophylac aims to prevent immunization of Rh- mothers against Rh+ fetuses (among others). It is therefore never offered to Rh+ patients, who cannot be immunized against the Rh antigen, since they are constitutionally carriers of it.


What is the prevalence of premature rupture of membranes (RPM)?


What antibiotics is Listeria naturally resistant to?

Acquired resistance to L. monocytogenes is exceptional


Which of the following treatments are nephrotoxic?

True, just like cyclosporine, immunosuppressants have an effect on kidney vessels and tubules.

True, THE anti-cancer treatment that causes tubulopathies. Do not forget other treatments that can be nephrotoxic such as Methotrexate, Gemcitabine or Mithomycin C

True, more than classic, overall you can forget the NSAIDs that give vascular, interstitial and glomerular damage

True, very classic case of tubular toxicity!


Fluindione is no longer given as a first-line treatment

It is no longer administered at all, EXCEPT in patients who are already on fluindione and who are stable.

INR measurement reflects the dose ingested 3 to 5 days in advance

This is the time it takes for the liver to make clotting factors.

Vitamin K antagonists have many drug interactions

Renal failure is a contraindication to VKAs


Tramadol is a molecule with both opioid properties (by acting directly on mu receptors) and pro-norepinephrine/serotonin. It can be combined with paracetamol.

Nephopam, like NSAIDs, nalbuphin and paracetamol, are level 1 analgesics.

Lamalin, for example, is a specialty that includes opium and paracetamol.


What are the side effects of corticosteroids?

It is a cause of hypercalciuria with normal serum calcium


Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin production

They stimulate its secretion! And it's not the same 😬

Sulfonamides stimulate insulin secretion

Metformin is an insulin-sensitizer. It does not work in the pancreas. This is why there is no risk of hypoglycemia

SGLT2 inhibitors are contraindicated in renal impairment with GFR < 70

They are contraindicated from a GFR < 45 (nasty trap, I admit... but useful! You won't forget it now!)


If transaminase levels are above three times normal, statins should not be introduced

Iatrogenic diabetes is one of the side effects of statins

Statins should not be used at the same time as fibrates

They are monitored under fibrates, if the patient complains of myalgia

The second-line anti-lipidemic is the PCSK9 inhibitor

This is ezetimibe, which is a therapeutic alternative in case of intolerance to statins.


Side effects of potassium-sparing diuretics include:

Overall, we can remember that H+ ions (which acidify the blood) go where potassium goes (it's very schematic, but it works 😉)


During an accident of anticoagulants (hemorrhage under VKA with very high INR), the administration of vitamin K acts by:

Unlike CCP infusion which acts immediately. It is therefore necessary to control the action of the latter about 30 minutes after the end of the infusion by an INR assay.

Vitamin K administration has no place in the management


What is the pre-therapeutic assessment of direct oral anticoagulant anti-IIa (dabigratran)?

We will not give it if its hemoglobin is at 5 😅

We will not give it if its TCA is at 5 😅


The contraindication(s) of B-blockers is:


Which of the following combinations Adverse reaction - Inducer drug(s) are accurate?

True, this is why we do an ECG in psychiatry before administering psychotropic drugs!

False, allopurinol on the other hand is at risk of hepatitis and allergic reaction!

True, just like statins, fibrates are also at risk for rhabdomyolysis

True, one of the most well-known side effects!

Syndrome de Lyell/Stevens Johnson - Lamotrigine

True, lamotrigine is a very allergenic treatment


You receive in consultation, Mr BRISANCHOYEUR, Archibald, 54 years old, in whom you prescribe for the first time morphine. As a result, you make a prescription for narcotics. What are the particularities of this order?

The prescription period is usually 28 days, but it can be 14 days or 7 days

If the new order is drafted before the end of the period covered by the previous one, it is therefore null and void.

False, it will be in addition to the previous ordinance

The overlap of two prescriptions is possible for a shorter period of 3 days


Regarding adverse drug reactions and pharmacovigilance, what are the exact answer(s)?

Immuno-allergic side effects are most often predictable

False, it is the opposite, they are usually unpredictable because allergies are never predicted in advance.

DRESS syndrome is a bullous rash secondary to medication

False, it's Lyell syndrome! DRESS syndrome is manifested by erythroderma with eosinophil infiltration

The declaration of adverse drug reactions is done on the ANSM website

False, it is carried out on the website of the CRPV (regional pharmacovigilance center) which transmits the notifications to the ANSM which, it, will evaluate the notifications

Almost half of the medicines sold on the Internet in Europe, apart from legal sites are fake

True, a point that reminds us that counterfeit medicines are a global scourge, with very lucrative markets...

If the damage related to a medical accident due to the therapeutic hazard exceeds 24%, the patient will be compensated by ONIAM

True, from the College of Pharmacology and Public Health


Melting Pot n°2! Which of the following proposals concerning pharmacology are true?

Patients can report adverse drug reactions online

True, essential information that often falls into MCQ

One of the quality criteria of an ordinance is its computer writing and not its handwritten writing.

True, very logical when we see the hieroglyphs of some

3% of hospitalizations are due to adverse drug reactions

True, small epidemiological figure that is good to keep in mind

The MIC of antibiotics is the maximum inhibitory concentration, which is equivalent to its bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect

False, the MIC is the MINIMUM inhibitory concentration, the lower it is, the more powerful the antibiotic is and allows to define if the bacterium is sensitive, intermediate or resistant

Prescription of unfractionated heparin leads to pharmacokinetic monitoring

False, it is a dosage of activity, anti Xa activity so a pharmacodynamic monitoring


Melting pot! Which of the following proposals concerning pharmacology are correct?

False, this is a pharmacodynamic follow-up. Pharmacodynamic monitoring aims to see the effectiveness of the treatment while pharmacokinetic monitoring aims to see the concentration of the drug

The equilibrium dose is usually reached at 5 half-lives

True, this is the commonly accepted dose of equilibrium

The prescription of oral NEFOPAM as an analgesic is an off-label prescription

True, this is one of the best known off-label prescriptions. If you look in VIDAL you will not find an oral dosage.

The use of certain psychoactive drugs must be declared to the ANSM

False, it must be declared to the regional pharmacovigilance centre

WHO's list of essential medicines is updated every 5 years


What are the risk factors for child maltreatment?

False, the Baby Blues is physiological and does not lead in any case to an excess risk of abuse unlike postpartum depression

A history of childhood abuse in one of the parents

True, as is often said, parents reproduce what they went through together.

False, trap, abuse affects all social classes without exception

Addiction to a psychoactive substance in one of the parents

True, do not forget alcohol and nicotine, which can be the cause of abuse

True, a separation at birth, or a complicated end of pregnancy increases the stress of the couple and can be the cause of abuse


Regarding child abuse, what are the exact answer(s)?

A fracture in a child of non-walking age is abuse until proven otherwise

True, great pediatric adage, always have it in mind.

Dropping out of school can be a sign of abuse

True, we often see a sharp break in academic results.

Legally, it is mandatory during the consultation to have the adult always in the company of the child

False, the doctor (even general practitioner) can see the child alone if he wishes

In case of strong suspicion of ill-treatment with alleged perpetrator in the child's home, information of concern must be sent to the CRIP

False, in this case, the life of the child is in danger and the doctor must, for the survival of the child, contact the hospital and make a report to the public prosecutor.

The physician may be liable if he or she directly or indirectly names the alleged perpetrator of the abuse

True, never name someone or their role (father, mother) in a certificate, mark "the aggressor"


What should lead to the prescription of a microsatellite instability test?

Multiple synchronous cancers of the Lynch syndrome spectrum in the same patient

Multiple metachronous cancers of the Lynch syndrome spectrum in the same patient

The three things to know are:
- Colorectal cancer < 60 years,
- Multiple cancers (synchronous or metachronous) of the Lynch syndrome spectrum in the same patient,
- Colorectal cancer + family history of Lynch syndrome spectrum cancer (at least one first-degree relative< 50 years or two related, first or second degree relatives, regardless of age)


The most common histological type in breast cancer is:


Cisplatin:
- hematological toxicity
- nausea/vomiting
- peripheral neuropathy
- kidney damage
- ototoxicity
no alopecia (cyclophosphamide, irinotecan, anthracycline, etoposide, paclitaxel, docetaxel, 5FU)
no hand-foot syndrome (anthracycline, docetaxel, 5fu, capecitabine)
no diarrhoea (oxaliplatin, irinotecan, anthracycline, paclitaxel, docetaxel, 5FU)
no cardiac involvement (anthracycline and 5FU)
no skin necrosis if extravasation (antracycline)


Cancer is the leading cause of death in France

Cardiovascular diseases are the third leading cause of death in France

Cancer incidence higher in men than in women

Cancer is still a predominantly male disease

Cancer mortality rises steadily for both men and women

Cancer incidence is 0 before the age of 5


What is the global incidence of cancer in 2018?


What is the global mortality of cancers in 2018?


N < 1.3 (or 1.4 depending on the source)


Which of the following leads will show an elevation in a high outboard SCA ST+? (one or more exact propositions)


What is the molecule of choice to slow down poorly tolerated atrial fibrillation (OAP) in acute?

Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in heart failure (whether acute or chronic)

None, do not slow down atrial fibrillation since the patient is in OAP

On the contrary, the patient is in OAP because the left atrium contracts too quickly and uncontrollably for the atrial systole to be effective. The heart rate needs to drop so that the mitral valve stays open longer, so that blood has more time to pass into the left ventricle.


Which cardiovascular risk factors are modifiable?

Non-modifiable cardiovascular risk factor

Alcohol is not a cardiovascular risk factor!


Angiotensin II: (one or more exact proposals)

Stimulates adrenal release of aldosterone


This hormone is released by the hypothalamus into the pituitary gland

This hormone stored in the pituitary gland

This hormone is the main hormone regulating blood pressure

This hormone can be released inappropriately

This hormone can cause hypertonic hyponatremia

Hypotonic hyponatremia (plasma osmolarity < 285)


What are the side effects of beta-blockers? (one or more exact propositions)

Active asthma is also a contraindication


Which of the following diuretics is not contraindicated in chronic renal failure with GFR < 30? (one or more exact propositions)


Your patient, Roberta, 62, comes to your office smiling. She feels very well and has no history other than high blood pressure that you brilliantly diagnosed several months ago. It is under ACE inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) and calcium channel blocker (CI). However, its last blood pressure self-measurement that it presents to you is at 146/89 mm of mercury. How do you adapt the treatment in this patient in order to balance her high blood pressure? (one or more exact propositions)

Maintaining the same treatment, it will settle down over time

Not conventionally used in hypertension, except for example in cases of renal failure and heart failure.

Addition of a central antihypertensive drug

Only considered after trying triple therapy containing thiazide


What elements are found in the Kirkendall classification (hypertensive retinopathy)?


What are the adrenal pathologies associated with hypertension?

We do not see this pathology at the ECN! This is congenital adrenal hyPERplasia

It is a pituitary pathology and not adrenal (as the question asks)


Where is renal sodium reabsorption most important?

Nearly 70% of reabsorbed sodium is reabsorbed at the beginning 😉

I admit that we were not very inspired for the last proposal 😬😬


What are the signs visible on chest X-ray when heart failure is suspected?

Cardiomegaly, defined as a cardiothoracic ratio (RCT) > 0.5.

A vascular redistribution from the vertices to the base.

An interstitial syndrome with Kerley B-lines.


What are the additional tests to be performed when heart failure is suspected?

NFS, blood ionogram, serum creatinine, liver test, TSH, serum iron, ferritin, CST.


What are the possible complications of DVT?

Possible via a permeable foramen oval. This is called a paradoxical embolism


What is the balance sheet of a secondary Raynaud?

These are the two systematic complementary reviews.


In what type of tachycardia can we see a pre-excitation delta wave and a short PR space < 120 ms?


Until proven otherwise, any regular tachycardia with wide QRS is:

False, there is regular tachycardia with fine QRS but we always think first of ventricular tachycardia.

False, anarchic rapid ventricular activity.


Until proven otherwise, any irregular tachycardia with fine QRS is:

In the AM, there is a tremulation of the baseline.


What are the etiologies of primary mitral insufficiency among those proposed below?

Chronic left ventricular remodeling post-infarction.


What propositions are true regarding the epidemiology of infectious agents? (one or more propositions are true)

Enterobacteriaceae are the bacteria most often found in community urinary tract infections

Like E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus mirabilis, etc.

Meningococci are the bacteria most often found in bacterial meningitis in a 30-year-old adult

Meningococcal = 18 to 25 years. After that, it's pneumococcus.

Meningococci are the bacteria most often found in bacterial pneumonia

Meningococci are not involved in pneumonia at all.

Listeria is the bacteria most often found in pneumonia after age 50

Listeria is found mainly in meningitis after 50 years

Staphylococci are frequently found in post-influenza pneumonia


Which of the following proposals may be responsible for genital ulceration? (one or more answers are correct)

Oral and genital canker sore is characteristic

Gonococcus gives high STIs or ervicites with urethritis, yellow-green purulent leucorrhoea, urination burns, etc. No ulcerations at the rendezvous

The primary chlamydia lesion is usually genital site with small, non-indurated papule, often erosive, painless, rapidly limiting. Sound like syphilis? Is it a potential differential diagnosis:)


Which of the following are causes of TPHA- / VDRL+? (one or more answers are correct)


Which of the following are characteristic of trichomonas? (one or more answers are correct)


What are the risk factors for urinary tract infection in women?

A priori, women do not have a prostate 🤭 (sorry for the trap, but it is important to read the statements. Often, in the annals, we make stupid mistakes because we did not read the question correctly)


only the distal urethra is colonized by perineal flora

Hematogenous infection is the main cause of cystitis

It is rather an ascending infection ++ from the distal urethra

Being a woman, especially postmenopausal, is a risk factor for UTI

All causes of obstructive uropathy (BPH, stenosis, cancer) are risk factors


Positive hematuria if > 10^4/mL = 10/mm3


Which antibiotics are effective on EBLSE-producing beta-lactamase-producing enterobacteriaceae? (four proposals expected)

Beta-lactams do not work (except Piperacillin-Tazobactam, Carbapenem and Cefoxitin)


And especially S. saprophyticus (young woman)

Aerobic BGN does not produce it, most often


How long is treatment with Pivmecillinam?

This is the probabilistic second-line treatment for simple acute cystitis. No systematic follow-up consultation (only if the patient's need is felt)

In simple acute cystitis, there is never ECBU


The control of the negativation of the ECBU is indicated in case of:


What is the pathology that does not require ECBU?


S. saprophyticus is naturally resistant to: (only one response expected)

First-line treatment in young women with nitrite negative


The sex ratio is in favor of women F >> H

1/3 of women will have a urinary tract infection

recurrent if there are more than 3 episodes per year

More than 4 episodes per year (more than one every 3 months). Severe if more than one episode per month.


What are the 3 clinical forms of cystitis to identify in order to adapt the management?

3 notions to remember and differentiate. The care follows directly from this:)


What is the only mandatory examination to perform in case of simple hyperalgic NAP? (apart from BU and ECBU)

If risk of complications, at a distance from the episode

Only done if there is a diagnostic doubt


What are the two indications to treat asymptomatic bacteriuria?


What are the four causes of aseptic leukocyturia?

We will rather find a microalbuminuria in case of significant 😊 renal damage


Before any ATB, after a peritoneal toilet, in non-sterile condition, 4 hours after the last urination, and in the middle of the jet

We don't really have an idea for the fifth proposal 🤷 ♂

The main thing is to remember that it is not at the beginning of the jet, unlike the samples for sexually transmitted 😊 infections (it is on this notion that you can be trapped)


Regarding cyclines, which proposals are true?

They have an almost complete absorption orally (PO)

They are contraindicated during pregnancy

Doxycycline is used to prevent malaria. It is taken 1x / D during the stay and 4 weeks after the return.

They work by inhibiting protein synthesis


Concerning the neu
Regarding febrile neutropenia:
Regarding febrile neutropenia:

Regarding febrile neutropenia:

It is defined by neutropenia (PNN < 500/mm3) or fever.

The digestive tract is the majority gateway.

True, then skin, central venous catheters and lungs.

The clinical examination is often rich in clinical signs.

False, often poor because no inflammatory focus.

Central venous catheters promote infections.

Chest X-rays often show a focus at the onset of fever.

False, 40% of neutropenic patients with pneumonia have a normal chest X-ray at the onset of fever (see PILLY p 327).


What are the 3 therapeutic emergencies? What are the 3 therapeutic emergencies?


Which of the following are viruses that can cause encephalitis? (one or more propositions are correct)

HSV1 > HSV2. Involvement occurs mainly in the temporal lobes

He has diarrhea. 💩 Enteroviruses can cause meningitis


Which of the following proposals are part of the semiology of herpetic meningoencephalitis? (one or more propositions are correct)

Progressive onset of symptomatology in 15 days


Which of the following proposals corresponds to the meningococcal serotype mainly responsible for meningitis? (only one exact proposal)


What should we mention if urticaria in return from tropical travel?


What is special about colonic amoebosis?

True, unlike hepatic amoebosis. Treatments, clinical presentation and prognosis differ


What additional examinations do you want to perform in front of a torsion of the spermatic cord?

Given the urgency of torsion of the spermatic cord, no additional examination is necessary, unless there is a diagnostic doubt


How quickly should testicular torsion be treated?

Torsion of the spermatic cord is an emergency, which must be treated surgically within 6 hours. Beyond that, arterial ischemia can become irreversible.


What germs can be responsible for Fournier's gangrene?


In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (UAB), what are the differential diagnoses of benign prostatic hyperplasia? (one or more exact propositions)

At the slightest doubt, it is necessary to perform a urethral fibroscopy

The presence of peripheral neurological pathology must suggest bladder hypoactivity, objectified to the urodynamic balance (BUD)

To be eliminated by a digital rectal examination, and a PSA in case of doubt (which must be normal in BPH)


What are the side effects of treatment with alfuzosin (alpha-blocker)?

AE of alpha-blockers: HO, anejucalation, IC before eye surgery

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor AEs: libido/erectile dysfunction. Divides PSA by 2

AEs of phospho-di-esterase 5 (IPDE5) inhibitors


Which of the following are exact in benign prostatic hyperplasia?

The clinical complaint is not proportional to the volume of the prostate

The digital rectal exam finds a flexible prostate

Digital rectal examination is usually painful

TR: flexible, painless, smooth, regular, disappearance of the median groove

A post-voiding residue is a disorder of the voiding phase

Impact on the lower urinary tract: voiding phase (dysuria, weak stream) and post-voidition (drops, post-voiding residue).

ECBU is routine to rule out bladder cancer


What are the risk factors for clinical progression of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

The IPSS score is to be done systematically but is not a risk factor for complications