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C. L.M. Singhvi Programmes.

Committee 4. Community Development Programme and

D. Ashok Mehta National Extension Service.

Committee 5. Panchayati Raj elections

Codes:ABCD

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 4 1 2

114. The Governor of a state:

1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the

President.

2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.

3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public

Service Commission.

4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the

various ministers.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

115. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during

the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the

Governor” in reality means:

(a) Pleasure of the President

(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister

(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister

(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly

116. The term “Cabinet” is mentioned in which of the following articles of the

Constitution?

(a) Article 74

(b) Article 75

(c) Article 352

(d) Not mentioned in the Constitution

117. Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?

1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.

2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.

3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.

4. He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of

India.

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

118. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between

a censure motion and a no-confidence motion?

1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a

no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.

2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of

ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council

of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.

3. The Government must resign if a noconfidence motion is passed,

whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.

4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya

Sabha, whereas no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok

Sabha.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

119. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a) 1971

(b) 1967

(c) 1968

(d) 1972

120. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

(a) Constitutional provision

(b) Act of the Parliament

(c) Resolution of the Santhanam Committee

(d) Executive resolution

121. The functions of Estimates Committee include:

1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and

economy in administration.

2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.

3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the

policy implied in the estimates.

4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the

Parliament.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

122. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:

1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.

2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj

institutions.

3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.

4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.

5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

123. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Adjournment means an interruption in normal business of the Assembly.

(b) Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.

(c) Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.

(d) Proroagation means end of a session of the Assembly.

124. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd

Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?

1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate

and district levels.

2. Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.

3. Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2, 3 and 4

125. Consider the following statements about municipal corporations:

1. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state

legislatures.

2. They are established in the union territories by an order of the Chief

Administrator.

3. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.

4. Their deliberative functions are separated from the executive functions.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

126. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.

(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.

(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the

cantonment area.

(d) It is a statutory body.

127. Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of

a state?

1. When requested by the President

2. When requested by the Governor

3. With the approval of Parliament

4. With the approval of President

5. With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 5

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 5

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

128. Assertion: A minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the Prime

Minister.

Reason: A minister is appointed by President only on the advice of Prime

129. Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial

balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system.

Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the

Union Government.

131. Assertion: The Governor is dejure head of state administration.

Reason: The Chief Minister is de-facto head of state administration.

132. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-for-

grants.

Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be

introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given

below.

133. List-I (Meaning of writs) List-II (Name

of writs)

A. It is a command issued by the court to a public official 1. Injunction

asking him to perform his official duties.

B. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court when the 2. Mandamu

latter exceeds its jurisdiction. s

C. It is issued by the courts to enquire into the legality of 3. Certiorari

claim of a person to a public office.

D. It is issued by the court asking a person do a thing or 4. Prohibitio

refrain from doing a thing n

5. Quo-

warranto

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 4 5 1

(b) 5 3 4 2

(c) 2 4 5 1

(d) 4 5 2 3

134. List-I (Committees) List-II (Function)

A. Public Accounts 1. Examines whether the promises made by the

Committee ministers on the floor of the house have been

fulfilled.

B. Committee on 2. Examines the CAG’s report on the

Subordinate appropriation accounts and ascertains

Legislation whether the funds voted by Parliament are

spent within the scope of the demand.

C. Committee on 3. Examines whether the powers to make rules

Public and regulations delegated by the Parliament

Undertakings are properly exercised by the executive.

D. Committee on 4. Examines the reports and accounts of the

Government public undertakings and finds out whether

Assurances. their affairs are being managed in accordance

with sound business principles and prudent

commercial practices.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

135. List-I List-II

A. Token grant 1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected

demand whose details cannot be stated.

B. Exceptional grant 2. It is voted by the Lok Sabha before the end of

the financial year.

C. Vote of credit 3. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the end of

the financial year.

D. Excess grant 4. It forms no part of the current service of any

financial year.

5. It is granted when funds to meet proposed

expenditure on a new service can be made

available by reappropriation.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 5 2

(b) 5 4 1 3

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 5 3 1 4

136. List-I (Schedules in the List-II (Provisions)

Constitution)

A. Sixth Schedule 1. Administration and control of scheduled

areas and scheduled tribes.

B. Second Schedule 2. Administration of tribal areas in states of

Assam, Meghalya, Tripura and Mizoram.

C. Twelfth Schedule 3. Provisions as to the Speaker and Deputy

Speaker of state Legislative Assemblies.

D. Fifth Schedule 4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of

municipalities.

5. Powers, authority and responsibilities of

Panchayats.

Codes: A B C D

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 3 5 1

137. The most important Legislative power of the Governor is:

(a) Nominating members to the state legislature.

(b) Issuing ordinances

(c) Assenting bills passed by the state legislature

(d) Dissolving the state legislative Assembly

138. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the

Governor and the council of ministers. Reason: The Chief Minister is the

head of the state council of ministers.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

139. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Amendment

Act on Panchayati Raj?

1. Making provision for reservation to the backward classes.

2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.

3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas.

4. Conferring financial powers on Pan-chayats with regard to taxes, fees

and so on.

5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to the

Panchayats.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

140. Assertion: The UPSC’s function is not to decide but to advise.

Reason: UPSC is a constitutional body Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

141. Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?

1. It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the

Constitution.

2. It was set up by an order of the President of India.

3. It was set up in 1985

4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

142. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question

shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

(b) The Governor of the concerned state

(c) The Attorney-General of India

(d) The Chief Justice of India

143. The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings

was first visualised by:

(a) Ashok Mehta

(b) G.V. Mavalankar

(c) Lanka Sundaram

(d) Krishna Menon Committee

144. Assertion: Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by

the creation of the Contingency Fund of India. Reason: The Contingency

Fund of India is operated by the President of India. Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

145. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Vote on —To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and

account discussion of the budget.

2. Charged —Not submitted to the Parliament.

items

3. Vote of —Blanck cheque given to the executive.

credit

4. Excess —Submitted directly to the Lok Sabha for its approval

grant

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4