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(c) 2 and 4 | (d) 3 and 4 | 146. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund |
of India? | 1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges | 2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC |
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable | 4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister | (a) 1, 2 and 3 |
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 1, 3 and 4 | (d) 1, 2 and 4 |
1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the | appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament. | 2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of |
state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those | as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings. | 3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semi- |
autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG. | 4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a | financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for |
that purpose. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 | (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
(c) 1, 2 and 3 | (d) 1, 3 and 4 | 148. Assertion: The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya |
Sabha. Reason: An Adjournment Motion does not result in removing the | Government from office. | Select the correct code: |
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. | (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. | (c) A is true but R is false. |
(d) A is false but R is true. | 149. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission? | 1. It was set up in 1964. |
2. It is a statutory body. | 3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as those of UPSC. | 4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to that of the Parliamentary |
Commissioner for Administration in UK. | (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (b) 1, 3 and 4 |
(c) 1, 2 and 3 | (d) 1 and 3 | 150. Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct? |
1. It derives its functions only from the Constitution. | 2. It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the | BCs, SCs and STs. |
3. The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview | of consultation with UPSC. | 4. The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, |
corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC. | (a) 2 and 3 | (b) 1, 2 and 3 |
(c) 2, 3 and 4 | (d) 1, 2 and 4 | 151. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the: |
(b) Defence Secretary | (c) Chief Secretary of the state | (d) President of India |
152. The correct statements about municipalities include: | 1. They are known by various other names in different states. | 2. They are controlled by the state governments. |
3. Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman. | 4. They are statutory bodies. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 |
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 1 and 2 | (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
153. Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council. | (a) Parliament | (b) President |
(c) Governor | (d) State Assembly | 154. In which of the following recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee |
differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee? | 1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj. | 2. Official participation of politicalparties at all levels of Panchayat |
elections. | 3. Zila Parishad as the executive body. | 4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila Parishad. |
(a) 1, 2 and 4 | (b) 1, 2 and 3 | (c) 1 and 2 |
(d) 1, 3 and 4 | 155. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a | state bill for the consideration of the President? |
1. If it is ultra vires. | 2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy. | 3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court. |
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article | 31A. | (a) 1, 2 and 3 |
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 2, 3 and 4 | (d) 1, 3 and 4 |
156. Which of the following expenditures are “charged” on the Consolidated | Fund of India? | 1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of Council of States. |
2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor-General. | 3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal. | 4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker. |
(b) 1, 2 and 3 | (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (d) 2 and 4 |
157. Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts | Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting? | (a) Additional grant |
(b) Exceptional grant | (c) Token grant | (d) Excess grant |
158. Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget? | (a) Finance Ministry | (b) NITI Aayog |
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General | (d) Finance Commission | 159. Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the |
President before their introduction? | 1. Bills to reorganise states. | 2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested. |
3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade. | 4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 |
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 2, 3, and 4 | (d) 1, 2, 3 |
160. The Inter-State Council consists of | 1. Prime Minister | 2. Chief Ministers of all states |
3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures | 4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers | 5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures |
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 | (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 1, 2 and 3 |
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 | 161. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime | Minister? |
(a) Political Affairs Committee | (b) Appointments Committee | (c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs |
(d) Economic Affairs Committee | 162. On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes | recommendations to the President? |
1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of | taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of | such proceeds. |
2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of | the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India. | 3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to |
supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis | of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state. | 4. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound |
finance. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 | (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
(c) 1 and 2 | (d) 1, 2 and 3 | 163. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the |
recommendation of: | (a) Shah Commission | (b) Administrative Reforms Commission |
(c) Santhanam Committee | (d) Swaran Singh Committee | Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern |
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. | (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. |
(c) A is true but R is false. | (d) A is false but R is true | 164. Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the |
Constitution. | Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the | President. |
165. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the | evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country. | Reason: The Act has brought the Pan-chayati Raj institutions under the |
purview of justiciable part of the the Constitution. | 166. Consider the following statements about the Governor: | 1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the state. |
2. He should have completed 35 years of age. | 3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the | President. |
4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him. | Of the above, the incorrect statements are: | (a) 1 and 3 |
(b) 2, 3 and 4 | (c) 1, 3 and 4 | (d) 2 and 4 |
(a) One-third | (b) One-twelfth | (c) One-eighth |
(d) One-sixth | 168. Assertion: A minister at the state level continues in office till he enjoys the | confidence of the Chief Minister. |
Reason: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to | dismiss him in case of difference of opinion. Select the correct code: | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. | (c) A is true but R is false. | (d) A is false but R is true. |
169. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of Ashok Mehta | Committee on Panchayati Raj? | 1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to |
15,000. | 2. The state legislature to have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look | after the needs of weaker sections. |
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held | within one year. | 4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development |
officer. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 | (b) 2 and 4 |
(c) 1, 2 and 3 | (d) only 2 | 170. Which of the following are true of the provisions of the 74th Amendment Act |
on municipalities? | 1. Wards Committees, for wards with population of two lakhs. | 2. The state Governor may authorise them to levy, collect and appropriate |
taxes. | 3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area. | 4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional items for the municipalities. |
(a) 1, 3 and 4 | (b) 1, 2 and 4 | (c) 3 only |
(d) 3 and 4 | 171. Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the | President. Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the |
President. | Select the correct code: | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A. | (c) A is true but R is false. | (d) A is false but R is true. |
172. Assertion: The members of All-India Services work in the Central | Government, state governments and union territories. | Reason: They are selected and recruited on the basis of all-India |
competitive examinations conducted by the UPSC. | Select the correct code: | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. | (c) A is true but R is false. | (d) A is false but R is true. |
173. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse leads to “rush of expenditure” | towards the end of a financial year. | Reason: The unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the |
financial year. | Select the correct code: | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. | (c) A is true but R is false. | (d) A is false but R is true. |
174. Match the following: | List-I (Parliamentary committees) List-II (Created in) | A. Committee on Government Assurances 1. 1923 |
B. Committee on Public Undertakings 2. 1953 | C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation 3. 1921 | D. Public Accounts Committee 4. 1953 |
5. 1964 | Codes: A B C D | (a) 4 5 1 3 |
(b) 2 5 4 1 | (c) 4 5 2 1 | (d) 2 5 4 3 |
175. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission? | 1. It was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee. | 2. It does not exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI. |
3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India. | 4. It consists of a chairman and three members. | (a) 1, 2 and 4 |
(b) 1, 3 and 4 | (c) 1 and 3 | (d) 1 and 4 |
176. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national | emergency by the President? | 1. The President can issue directives to the state executives. |
4. The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources | between Centre and states. | (a) 1, 3 and 4 |
(b) 1and 4 | (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
177. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? | (a) 1919 Act - Dyarchy at the Centre | (b) 1861 Act - Portfolio system |
(c) 1935 Act - Bicameralism | (d) 1853 Act - Governor-General of India | 178. Which of the following are true of the President’s ordinance making power? |
1. It is laid down in Article 123. | 2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament. | 3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in |
session. | 4. It is a discretionary power of the President. | (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
(b) 1, 2 and 4 | (c) 1 and 2 | (d) 1, 2, and 3 |
179. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian | Parliament? | 1. Fundamental Rights |